Summary Checklist Flashcards

Question 1

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1A Summary Checklist

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The Federal Aviation Administration (FAA) is the agency which governs commercial and general aviation

Question 2

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The Federal Aviation Regulations (FARs) provide rules which apply to all areas of aviation, including flight operations, the construction of aircraft, and the training requirements which must be met to obtain pilot certificates and ratings

Question 3

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Many Pilot training schools are located at airport facilities called fixed base operators (FBOs). These facilities provide a variety of services to pilots, including aircraft rental, fueling, maintenance, parking, and the sale of pilot supplies.

Question 4

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There are two types of pilot training schools; FAA-approved schools governed by FAR Part 141 and schools governed by FAR Part 61

Question 5

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A syllabus provides structure to pilot training by organizing flight and ground lessons

Question 6

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To be eligible for a student pilot certificate you must be at least 16 years of age, be able to read, speak, and understand the English language, and hold at least a third-class medical certificate

Question 7

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There are three classes of medical certificates: first-class which is designed for the airline transport pilot, second-class which is required for the commercial pilot, and third-class for student, recreational, and private pilots

Question 8

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In addition to the student pilot requirements, to be eligible for a private pilot certificate you must be at least 17 years of age, complete specific training and flight time requirements described in the FARs, pass a knowledge test, and successfully complete a practical test which consists of oral quizzing, performing pilot operations, and executing maneuvers in the airplane

Question 9

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A private pilot training program can generally be divided into three phases; pre solo, cross-country, and practical test preparation. Each phase includes both flight and ground training.

Question 10

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The pilot in command of an aircraft is directly responsible for, and is the final authority as to , the operation of that aircraft

Question 11

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For pilot certification, aircraft are organized into category, class, and type. Your private pilot certificate will state the category, class, and type (if appropriate) of aircraft which you are authorized to fly

Question 12

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For aircraft certification, category related to the intended use of an aircraft and sets strict limits on its operation

Question 13

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To act as pilot in command of an aircraft, you must satisfactorily complete a flight review every twenty-four calendar months

Question 14

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to act as pilot in command of an aircraft carrying passengers, you must have performed at least three takeoffs and landings in an aircraft of the same category and class within the preceding 90 days

Question 15

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You may not fly an aircraft unless it has received an annual inspection within the previous 12 calendar months, plus a 100-hour inspection within the previous 100 hours if the aircraft is used for rental and flight instruction

Question 16

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Frequent refresher training is essential to keep your flying skills sharp and to keep you informed on current pilot information.

Question 17

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Mountain flying requires proper training because special considerations have to be made for weather, airport operations, course selection, and aircraft performance

Question 18

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Aerobatics instruction increases your proficiency as a pilot. While there are no specific flight hour training requirements to operate an aircraft in aerobatic flight, the FARs do place certain restrictions on aerobatic maneuvers

Question 19

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1B Summary Checklist

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Aviation organizations such as AOPA, the EAA, The Ninety-Nines Inc., and the CAP sponsor flying activities, promote safety, and furnish pilot information

Question 20

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The FARs require that you receive trying and a logbook endorsement stating competency before you can operate as pilot in command of either a high performance airplane or tailwheel airplane

Question 21

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To obtain an instrument rating, you are required to have a least 40 hours of instrument flight time as well as pass a knowledge test and practical test

Question 22

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There are no specific ground or flight instruction hours required for the addition of a multi-engine rating to your certificate, but you will have to pass a practical test

Question 23

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To obtain a seaplane rating, your pilot training will focus on the characteristics of water and its effect on the seaplane

Question 24

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To pilot aircraft such as helicopters, gliders, or hot air balloons, you will need to obtain an appropriate category and class rating

Question 25

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To apply for a commercial pilot certificate, you must accumulate a total of 190 to 250 hours of flight time (depending on the type of pilot school that you attend) which typically include a minimum of 100 hours of pilot-in-command time and 50 hours of cross-country time

Question 26

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There is no specific number of flight hours required for CFI training, but you must pass two knowledge exams and a practical test

Question 27

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To obtain an ATP certificate, you must have a total of 1,500 hours of flight time including 250 hours of pilot-in-command time, 500 hours cross-country time, 100 hours of night flight, and 75 hours of instrument experience

Question 28

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1B Summary Checklist

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If you are seeking a position with a regional airline, you should accumulate as much total flight time, pilot-in-command time, and multi-engine time as possible

Question 29

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To obtain a position as an airline pilot, you must meet specific minimum requirements, and competitive qualifications which vary as the job market shifts

Question 30

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Typically, the minimum pilot qualifications to fly as a corporate pilot include a commercial pilot certificate with an instrument rating and a multi-engine rating

Question 31

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To become employed as an aerial applicator you must hold a commercial pilot certificate and receive additional training in agricultural aircraft operations

Question 32

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The Army, Navy, Air Force, and Marines provide extensive and demanding pilot training in some of the most technologically advanced aircraft in the world

Question 33

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1C Summary Checklist

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When the decision-making process is applied to flight operations it is termed aeronautical decision making (ADM)

Question 34

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1C Summary Checklist

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Your general health, level of stress or footage, attitude, knowledge, skill level, and recency of experience are several factors which affect your performance as pilot in command

Question 35

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Communication is the exchange of ideas, information, or instruction

Question 36

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Since useful tools and sources of information may not always be readily apparent, learning to recognize and utilize the resources available to you is an essential part of human factors training

Question 37

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Effective workload management ensures that essential operations are accomplished by planning, prioritizing, and sequencing tasks to avoid work overload

Question 38

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Situational awareness is the accurate perception of the operational and environmental factors which affect the aircraft, pilot and passengers during a specific period of time

Question 39

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Ear pain is normally the result of a difference between air pressure in the middle ear and outside air pressure

Question 40

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Slow descent rates can help prevent or reduce the severity of ear problems and to equalize pressure, the eustachian tube can sometimes be opened by yawning, swallowing, chewing, or employing the Valsalva maneuver

Question 41

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1C Summary Checklist

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The reduction of atmospheric pressure during flight can cause scuba divers to experience decompression sickness. Recommended waiting periods are specified before ascending to 8,000 feet MSL or above after diving

Question 42

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Motion sickness is caused by the brain receiving conflicting messages about the state of the body

Question 43

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Stress can be defined as the body’s response to physical and psychological demands placed upon it

Question 44

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Some of the effects of fatigue include degradation of attention and concentration, impaired coordination, and decreased ability to communicate

Question 45

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Cockpit noise can contribute to excessive fatigue, stress, and airsickness, as well as severely impede the understanding of speech

Question 46

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Pilots who fly frequently may experience serious hearing loss over a period of time unless ear protection is used

Question 47

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Depressants are drugs which reduce the body’s functioning in many areas. The most common depressant is alcohol

Question 48

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Intoxication is determined by the amount of alcohol in the bloodstream which is usually measured as a percentage by weight in the blood. The FARs require that your blood alcohol level be less than .04 percent and that 8 hours pass between drinking alcohol and piloting an aircraft

Question 49

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1C Summary Checklist

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Stimulants are drugs which excite the central nervous system and produce an increase in alertness and activity. Amphetamines, caffeine, and nicotine are all forms of stimulants

Question 50

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Your ability to assess your mental and physical fitness for flight, and your skill at making effective decisions are essential to flight safety

Question 51

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2A Summary Checklist

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The fuselage houses the cabin, or cockpit, and serves as the attachment point for the other major airplane components

Question 52

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2A Summary Checklist

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Wings may be attached at the top, middle, or lower portion of the fuselage and are contoured to take maximum advantage of the lifting force created by the passing airflow

Question 53

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2A Summary Checklist

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The empennage typically consists of the vertical stabilizer, rudder, horizontal stabilizer, and elevator, which act to steady the airplane and maintain a straight path through the air.

Question 54

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2A Summary Checklist

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Trim devices are used to help minimize your workload by aerodynamically helping you move a control surface, or maintain the surface in a desired position

Question 55

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2A Summary Checklist

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Landing gear employing a rear-mounted wheel is called conventional landing gear

Question 56

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2A Summary Checklist

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When the third wheel is located on the nose, the design is referred to as tricycle gear

Question 57

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2A Summary Checklist

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Brake pressure may be applied equally or to varying degrees by pressing on the top of each rudder pedal

Question 58

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2A Summary Checklist

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The engine works to turn the propeller, generate electrical energy, create vacuum source for some flight instruments, and, in most single-engine airplanes, provide a source of heat for the pilot and passengers

Question 59

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2A Summary Checklist

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The propeller translates the rotating force of the engine into a forward-acting force called thrust that helps to move the airplane through the air

Question 60

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2A Summary Checklist

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Most of the pertinent information about particular make and model of airplane, including operating limits, can be found in the pilot’s operating handbook (POH) and FAA approved airplane flight manual (AFM)

Question 61

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2B Summary Checklist

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The continuos energy-creating process in typical reciprocating airplane engine is referred to as the four-stroke operating cycle. The steps in this cycle are: the intake of the fuel/air mixture, the compression by the piston, the ignition and expansion of the uses, and the venting of the burned gases

Question 62

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2B Summary Checklist

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Engine speed for aircraft equipped with a fixed-pitch propeller is displayed on a tachometer in revolutions per minute (r.p.m.)

Question 63

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A constant-speed propeller is adjustable from the cockpit. A manifold pressure gauge is used on these types of airplanes to monitor engine output by displaying the pressure inside the engine in inches of mercury (in.Hg.)

Question 64

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2B Summary Checklist

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The carburetor mixes incoming air with fuel and delivers it to the combustion chamber

Answer 65

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The operating principle of float-type carburetors is based on the difference in pressure at the venturi throat and the air inlet

Answer 66

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The fuel/air mixture can be adjusted from the cockpit with the mixture control

Answer 67

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Carburetor ice may be caused by fuel vaporization and decreasing air pressure in the venturi, which causes a sharp temperature drop in the carburetor

Answer 68

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Carburetor ice is more likely to occur when temperatures are below 21C (70F) and relative humidity is above 80%. To combat the effects of carburetor ice, engines with float-type carburetors employ a carburetor heat system that is designed to eliminate ice by routing air across a heat source before it enters the carburetor

Answer 69

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One of the most significant advantages of the fuel injection system is the relative freedom from the formation of induction icing

Answer 70

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Sea-level performance can be obtained even at high altitudes using either a supercharging or turbocharging system

Answer 71

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The ignition system is made up of magnetos, spark plugs, interconnecting wires, and the ignition switch

Answer 72

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Detonation occurs when fuel in the cylinders explodes instead of burning smoothly

Answer 73

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Preignition is a result of the fuel/air mixture being ignited in advance of the normal timed ignition

Answer 74

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Fuel-pump and gravity-feed systems are similar, except the gravity system does not include engine-driven or electric boost pumps or fuel gauges

Answer 75

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To help prevent moisture buildup it is a good practice to ensure that an airplane’s tanks are refueled following the last flight of the day

Answer 76

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A wet-sump system uses an oil pump to draw oil from the sump and route it to the engine. Oil system operation can be monitored by referring to the oil pressure and temperature gauges

Answer 77

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Cooling air enters the engine compartment through an inlet behind the propeller hub where it is further directed to the hottest part of the engine by baffles

Answer 78

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Exhaust is normally directed out below the engine compartment through a muffler and tailpipe. Metal shrouds around the muffler capture heat that is used to defrost the windscreen and heat the cabin.

Answer 79

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A fixed-pitch propeller uses a single blade that is selected on the basis of what is best for the primary function of the airplane

Answer 80

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A constant-speed propeller control permits you to select a blade angle that is the most appropriate for the flight operation being conducted. The propeller control regulates engine r.p.m. as shown on the tachometer, while the throttle controls engine power output, as indicated on the manifold pressure gauge

Answer 81

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With a constant-speed propeller, you should avoid low r.p.m. settings with high manifold pressure

Answer 82

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When hand-propping an airplane, always ensure that you have received instruction in the correct procedure, and a qualified pilot is at the controls

Answer 83

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Alternators produce alternating current (AC) first, and then convert it to direct current (DC) for use in the airplane electrical system

Answer 84

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One type of ammeter reflects current flowing to or from the battery while the other type, called a load meter, simply displays the load placed on the alternator

Answer 85

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The airspeed indicator, altimeter, and vertical speed indicator all use static pressure. The airspeed indicator is the only instrument which uses pitot pressure

Answer 86

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At sea level, the standard atmosphere consists of a barometric pressure of 29.92 in. Hg. (1013.2 millibars) and a temperature of 15C (59F)

Answer 87

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In the lower atmosphere (below 36,000 feet), the standard pressure lapse rate for each 1,000 feet of altitude is approximately 1.00 in. Hg., and the standard temperature lapse rate is 2C (3.5F)

Answer 88

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The airspeed indicator is divided into color-coded arcs which define speed ranges for different phases of flight. The upper and lower limits of the arcs correspond to specific airspeed limitations, called V-speeds

Answer 89

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V_Aor maneuvering speed, is the maximum speed at which you may apply full and abrupt control movement without the possibility of causing structural damage. Since V_A changes with aircraft weight, it is not depicted on the airspeed indicator

Answer 90

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Regardless of altitude, the indicated airspeed at which a particular airplane stalls in a specific canfiguration remains the same

Answer 91

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Indicated altitude is the altitude measured, and displayed, by your altimeter. Pressure altitude is the verticle distance above the standard datum plane, while density altitude corrects pressure altitude for nonstandard temperature. True altitude is the actual height af an object above mean sea level. Absolute altitude is the actual height of the airplane above the earth’s surface over which it is flying

Answer 92

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If you fly from an area of high pressure to an area of lower pressure without resetting your altimeter, the altimeter will indicate higher than the true altitude. True altitude will be higher than indicated altitude if you do not reset your altimeter when flying from a low pressure area to an area of high pressure

Answer 93

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A one inch change in teh altimeter setting equals 1,000 feet of indicated altitude change in the same direction

Answer 94

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If atmospheric temperature is higher than standard, true altitude will be higher than your indicated altitude. In colder than standard temperatures, true altitude will be lower than indicated altitude

Answer 95

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Trend information shows an immediate indication of an increase or decrease in the airplane’s rate of climb of descent, while rate information shows you a stabilized rate of change

Answer 96

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Blockage of the pitot tube only affects teh airspeed indicator, but a clogged static system affects all three pitot-static instruments

Answer 97

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Rigidity in space refers to the principle that a wheel spun rapidly tends to remain fixed in teh plane in which it is spinning

Answer 98

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Precession causes slow drifting and minor erroneous indications in teh gyroscopic instruments

Answer 99

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The turn coordinator typically uses electrical power while an engine-driven vacuum pump is used to power the attitude and heading indicators

Answer 100

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The turn coordinator provides an indication of turn direction and quality as well as a backup source of bank information in the event of attitude indicator failure

Answer 101

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The attitude indicator uses an artificial horizon and miniature airplane to depict the position of your airplane in relation to the true horizon

Answer 102

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Due to precession, the heading indicator must be aligned periodically with the magnetic compass. When aligning the heading indicator, be certain you are in straight-and-level, unaccelerated flight with the magnetic compass showing a steady indication.

Answer 103

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The magnetic compass shows a turn to the north if you accelerate an airplane in the northern hemisphere; if you decelerate, it indicates a turn to the south. The error doesn’t occur when you are flying on a north or south heading

Answer 104

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Turning error causes the magnetic compass to lead or lag the actual magnetic heading of the airplane during turns

Answer 105

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During flight, the four forces acting on the airplane are lift, weight, thrust, and drag

Answer 106

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The four forces are in equilibrium during unaccelerated flight

Answer 107

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Lift is the upward force created by the effect of airflow as it passes over and under the wing

Answer 108

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The airplane wing’s shape is designed to take advantage of both Newton’s laws and Bernoulli’s principle

Answer 109

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According to Bernoulli’s principle, the increase in speed of air on the top of an airfoil produces a drop in pressure and this lowered pressure is an component of total lift. The decrease in speed of air on the bottom of an airfoil produces an increase in pressure, providing the other main component of total lift

Answer 110

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The reaction to downwash causes an upward reaction according to Newton’s third law of motion

Answer 111

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Planform, camber, aspect ratio. and wing area are some of the design factors which affect a wing’s lifting capability

Answer 112

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A stall is caused by the seperation of airflow from the wing’s upper surface. For a given airplane, a stall always occurs at the critical angle of attack, regardless of airspeed, flight attitude, or weight

Answer 113

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Total lift depends on the combined effects of airspeed and angle of attack. When speed decreases, you must increase the angle of attack to maintain the same amount of lift

Answer 114

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Flaps increase lift (and drag) by increasing the wing’s effective camber and changeing the chord line which increases the angle of attack. Flap types include plain, split, slotted, and Fowler

Answer 115

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Weight is the force of gravity which acts vertically through the center of gravity of the airplane toward the center of the earth

Answer 116

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Thrust is the forward-acting force which opposes drag and propels the airplane

Answer 117

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Drag acts in opposition to the direction of flight, opposes the forward-acting force of thrust, and limits the forward speed of the airplane

Answer 118

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Parasite drag is caused by any aircraft surface which deflects or interferes with the smooth airflow around the airplane. Parasite drag normally is divided into three types: form drag, interference drag, and skin friction drag. If airspeed is doubled, parasite drag increases fourfold

Answer 119

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Induced drag is generated by airflow circulation around the wing as it creates lift. Induced drag increases with flight at slow airspeeds as the angle of attack increases

Answer 120

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The phenomenon of ground effect occurs close to the ground where the earth’s surface restricts the downward deflection of the airstream from the wing, decreasing induced drag

Answer 121

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Most training aircraft are designed to display both positive static and positive dynamic stability

Answer 122

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All aircraft movement takes place around the longitudinal, lateral, and vertical axes, all of which pass through the center of gravity

Answer 123

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Longitudinal stability relates to movement about the airplane’s lateral axis. Longitudinal stability is influenced by the relationship between the center of pressure and the center of gravity as well as the effects of power changes and the design of the horizontal stabalizer

Answer 124

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Stability around the aircraft’s longitudinal axis is reffered to as lateral stability, Wing dihedral, sweepback, keel effect, and weight destribution are design features that affect an airplane’s lateral stability

Answer 125

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Directional stability, or stability about the vertical axis, of most aircraft is maintained by the vertical tail

Answer 126

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Dutch roll is most likely to occur on aircraft with weak directional stability and strong lateral stability

Answer 127

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Aircraft with strong directional stability and weak lateral stability are susceptible to spiral instability

Answer 128

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A stall will always occur when the critical angle of attack, or C_Lmax, is exceeded. This can occur at any airspeed and in any configuration or attitude

Answer 129

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A spin will not develop unless both wings are stalled. A normal, erect spin results in the airplane entering a nose-low autorotative descent with one wing stalled more than the other

Answer 130

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In climbing flight, one component of weight acts perpendicular to the flight path, and another component of weight acts rearward, in hte same direction as drag

Answer 131

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Four left-turning tendencies associated with propeller-driven airplanes are torque, gyroscopic precession, asymmetrical thrust, and spiraling slipstream

Answer 132

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During descending flight, one component of weight acts forward along the flight path, while another component acts perpendicular to the flight path

Answer 133

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The least drag, best glide angle, and maximum gliding distance can be obtained by maintaining the angle of attack that corresponds to L/D_max

Answer 134

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Changes in aircraft weight will not affect glide ratio, but a higher airspeed will have to be maintained in a heavier aircraft in order to cover the same distance over the ground

Answer 135

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Centripetal force, which is created by the horizontal component of lift, is the center-seeking force that acts on a turning airplane

Answer 136

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The effects of adverse yaw can be counted by maintaining a coordinated turn using rudder

Answer 137

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Rate of turn increases and radius of turn decreases as angle of bank is increased in a constant airspeed turn, If angle of bank is held constant and airspeed is increased, turn rate will decrease and turn radius will increase

Answer 138

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The ratio of the weight that the wings must support to the actual weight of the aircraft is termed load factor

Answer 139

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Accelerated stalls occur when the critical angle of attack is exceeded at an airspeed higher than the one-G stall speed

Answer 140

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The V-g diagram defines the airplane’s envelope, which is bounded by the stall region, limit load factor, and V_NE

Answer 141

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The majority of midair collisions occur during daylight hours, in VFR conditions, and within five miles of an airport

Answer 142

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During daylight hours, the most effective way to scan is through a series of short, regularly-spaced eye movements in 10⁰ sectors.

Answer 143

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You may not notice objects in your peripheral vision unless there is some relative motion

Answer 144

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If there is no apperent relative motion between another aircraft and yours, you are probably on a collision course

Answer 145

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Empty field myopia occurs when you are looking at a featureless sky that is devoid of objects, contrasting colors, or patterns and your eyes tend to focus at only 10 to 30 feet

Answer 146

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Blind spots make it difficult to see conflicting traffic. In both high-wind and low-wing designs, portions of your view are blocked by the fuselage and wings

Answer 147

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Operation lights On encourages you to use your landing lights during departures and approaches, both day and night, especially when operating within 10 miles of an airport, or in conditions of reduced visibility

Answer 148

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Clearing turns allow you to see areas blocked by blind spots and make it easier to maintain visual contact with other aircraft in the practice area

Answer 149

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An aircraft in distress has the right-of-way over all other aircraft

Answer 150

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Primarily, there are three situations where right-of-way rules apply; converging with another aircraft, approaching another aircraft head-on, or overtaking another aircraft

Answer 151

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You must maintain minimum safe altitudes at all times except during takeoffs and landings

Answer 152

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Mountain flying and flight over open water require specialized training from experienced instructors who are familiar with the area over which the flights will be conducted

Answer 153

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While taxing in wind, proper use of the aileron and elevator controls will help you maintain control of the airplane

Answer 154

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To ensure that it is clear as to who has control of the aircraft, the FAA strongly recommends the use of a three-step process when exchanging the flight controls

Answer 155

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A two-way radio is required for you to operate in the controlled airport environment since all aircraft in the vicinity, as well as those on the ground, are subject to instructions issued from the control tower

Answer 156

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Control of VFR traffic is not exercised at an uncontrolled airport

Answer 157

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The number at the end of the runway corresponds to the magnetic direction that you are heading when taking off or landing on that runway

Answer 158

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A standard rectangular pattern with five named legs is used at most airports to ensure that air traffic flows in an orderly manner

Answer 159

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The most common wind direction indicator is the wind sock, which is used at both controlled and uncontrolled airports. It provides you with the present wind conditions near the touchdown zone of the runway

Answer 160

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A tetrahedron is a landing direction indicator which may swing around with the small end pointing into the wind, or may be manually positioned to show landing direction

Answer 161

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The segmented circle helps to identify the location of the wind direction indicator and employs landing strip indicators in conjunction with traffic pattern indicators to show traffic pattern turn direction for a given runway

Answer 162

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Adhering to noise abatement procedures reduces the level of noise over neighborhoods that are near airports

Answer 163

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A visual runway normally is marked only with the runway number and a dashed white centerline. When flying instrument approaches, pilots can use the additional markings on IFR runways, such as threshold markings, touchdown zone markings, and aiming point markings

Answer 164

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Usually, a runway has a displaced threshold because of an obstruction off the end of the runway which might prohibit a normal descent and landing on the beginning portion of the pavement

Answer 165

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A blast/stopway area is an area where propeller or jet blast can dissipate without creating a hazard to others

Answer 166

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Taxiways normally have yellow centerline markings, and hold lines wherever they intersect with a runway

Answer 167

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There are six basic types of airport signs - mandatory, location, direction, destination, information, and runway distance remaining

Answer 168

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Airport beacons are used to guide pilots to lighted airports at night and may indicate when weather conditions are below VFR minimums during the day

Answer 169

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The two-bar visual approach slope indicator (VASI) shows whether or not you are on a glide path that will take you safely to the touchdown zone of the runway

Answer 170

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A variety of lighting systems, including approach light systems, runway edge lights, runway end identifier lights (REILs), in-runway lighting, and taxiway lighting are used at airports to aid pilots in identifying the airport environment at night and in low visibility conditions

Answer 171

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Pilot-controlled lighting is the term used to describe systems that you can activate by keying the aircraft’s microphone on a specified radio frequency

Answer 172

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Aeronautical charts are maps that provide a detailed portrayal of an area’s topography and include aeronautical and navigational information

Answer 173

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Reference lines based on great and small circles are used to define locations on the earth’s surface

Answer 174

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You can locate a position on an aeronautical chart by knowing its coordinates of latitude and longitude

Answer 175

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Each sectional chart covers 6⁰ to 8⁰ of longitude and approximately 4⁰ of latitude and is given the name of a primary city within its coverage

Answer 176

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Maximum elevation figures (MEFs) are based on the highest known feature within a quadrangle bounded by lines of latitude and longitude

Answer 177

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You should fly no lower than 2,000 feet AGL over a special conservation area, such as a national park or wildlife refuge

Answer 178

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World aeornautical charts (WACs) use a scale of 1:1,000,000 and are commonly used by pilots of high performance aircraft

Answer 179

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Divided into seven categories, the chart legend describes symbology for airports, airport data, radio aids to navigation and communication boxes, airport traffic service and airspace information, obstructions, topographic information, and miscellaneous data

Answer 180

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Since there is a wide variety of airport types, shapes, and sizes, several types of airport diagrams are shown on sectional charts to help you picture the actual airport being illustrated

Answer 181

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Tick marks extending from an airport diagram indicate that fuel is available and that the field is attended, at least during normal working hours

Answer 182

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A star above the airport diagram indicates an airport beacon normally operates from sunset to sunrise

Answer 183

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Airports with control towers are shown in blue, while all others are identified by a magenta color

Answer 184

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By referring to the airport data on sectional charts, you can determine what radio frequencies to use for communication at a particular airport. In addition, information such as longest runway length, airport lighting, and field elevation can be determined

Answer 185

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For cross-country planning and flight, refer to navigation and communication boxes for information concerning navaids and fligth service stations (FSSs) in the area

Answer 186

A

Boxes placed near the appropriate navaid, include the name, frequency, and Morse code identifier of the navaid, FSS frequencies are printed above the boxes

Answer 187

A

With the help of contour lines, spot elevations, and the elevations of obstructions, you can choose a safe cruising altitude

Answer 188

A

The locations of natural and man-made features, such as lakes, rivers, railroads, roads, and highways are shown on charts as reference points for navigation

Answer 189

A

While obstructions can impose hazards to flight, they can be good references to identify your postition

Answer 190

A

In each class of airspace, you must maintain specific VFR weather minimums (minimum flight visibilities and distance from clouds)

Answer 191

A

While operating in controlled airspace (Class A, Class B, Class C, Class D, and Class E) you are subject to certain operating rules, as well as pilot qualification and aircraft equipment requirements

Answer 192

A

ATC does not exercise control of air traffic in uncontrolled, or Class G, airspace

Answer 193

A

Class G airspace typically extends from the surface to 700 or 1,200 feet AGL. In some areas, Class G may extend from the surface to 14,500 feet MSL

Answer 194

A

A transponder is an electronic device abaord the airplane which enhances your aircraft’s identity on an ATC radar screen

Answer 195

A

The FARs require that you have an operating transponder with Mode C capability when flying at or above 10,000 feet MSL (excluding the airspace at and below 2,500 feet AGL), in Class A airspace, Class B airspace, within 30 nautical miles of Class B primary airports, and in and above Class C airspace

Answer 196

A

There are no communication requirments to operate within Class E airspace, but you can request traffic advisory services which ATC provides on a workload-permitting basis

Answer 197

A

Federal airways are usually 8 nautical miles wide, begin at 1,200 feet AGL, and extend up to but not including 18,000 feet MSL

Answer 198

A

You must establish two-way radio communication with the tower prior to entering Class D airspace and maintain radio contact during all operations to, from, or on that airport

Answer 199

A

Prior to entering Class C airspace, you must establish two-way communication with the ATC facility having jurisdiction and maintain it while you are operating within the airspace. Within a Class C area, ATC provides radar service to all IFR and VFR aircraft

Answer 200

A

Located at some of the country’s major airports, Class B airspace has different levels which are portrayed as a series of interconnected circular patterns around the airport

Answer 201

A

Prior to entering any part of Class B airspace, you are required to obtain a clearance from ATC

Answer 202

A

To operate in class B airspace, you must be at least a private pilot or a student pilot with the appropriate logbook endorsement

Answer 203

A

Whenever you are flying VFR in or around Class B airspace, VFR terminal area charts will help significantly with orientation and navigation

Answer 204

A

VFR flyway planning charts, published on the reverse side of some VFR terminal area charts, show VFR routes for transitioning around, under, and through Class B airspace

Answer 205

A

To operate within Class A airspace, you must be instrument rated, and your aircraft must be transponder equipped, operated under an IFR flight plan, and controlled directly by ATC

Answer 206

A

A special VFR clearance must be obtained from ATC to operate within the surface areas of Class B, C, D, or E airspace when the ground visibility is less than 3 statute miles and the cloud ceiling is less than 1,000 feet AGL

Answer 207

A

Since the airspace at lower altitudes, and especially in the vicinity of airports, tends to be congested, the FAA has established aircraft speed restrictions

Answer 208

A

Alert areas are shown on aeronautical charts to inform you of unusual types of aerial activities, such as parachute jumping and glider towing, or high concentrations of student pilot training

Answer 209

A

A military operations area (MOA) is a block of airspace in which military training and other military maneuvers are conducted

Answer 210

A

Warning areas extend from three nautical miles outward from the coast of the United States and contain activity which may be hazardous to nonparticipating aircraft

Answer 211

A

Restricted areas often have invisible hazards to aircraft, such as artillery firing, aerial gunnary, or guided missiles. Permission to fly through restricted areas must be granted by the controlling agency

Answer 212

A

Prohibited areas are established for security or other reasons associated with the national welfare and contain airspace within which the flight of aircraft is prohibited

Answer 213

A

Activities within a controlled firing area are discontinued immediately when a spotter aircraft, radar, or ground lookout personnel determines an aircraft might be approaching the area

Answer 214

A

Local airport advisory areas extend 10 statute miles from airports where there is an FSS located on the field and no operating control tower

Answer 215

A

Generally, military training routes (MTRs) are established below 10,000 feet MSL for operations at speeds in excess of 250 knots

Answer 216

A

Temporary flight restrictions are imposed by the FAA to protect persons or property on the surface or in the air from a specific hazard or situation

Answer 217

A

Emergency air traffic rules are established by the FAA immediately after determining that, without such action, the air traffic control system could not operate at the required level of safety and efficiency

Answer 218

A

Air defense identification zones (ADIZs) are established to facilitate identification of aircraft in the vicinity of U.S. international airspace boundaries

Answer 219

A

Security-related restricted airspace is created in sensitive areas to protect persons or objects on the ground from general aviation aircraft. It is normally published as a temporary flight restriction (TFR)

Answer 220

A

Presidential TFRs prohibit all flight training activity within 30 miles of the president and create 10-mile radius no-fly zones that ban almost all general aviation activity

Answer 221

A

You are responsible for knowing about and avoiding TFR airspace. It is important to always obtain a preflight weather briefing and to ask for TFRs if the briefer doesn’t offer them

Answer 222

A

The Washington DC Special Flight Rules Area requires pilots to be in contact with ATC and squaking a discrete transponder code within 30 NM of DCA VOR up to 18,000 feet MSL; in the flight restricted zone, 13-15 miles from the DCA VOR, general aviation flight is prohibited

Answer 223

A

Aircraft that are withi security-related restricted airspace without authorization may be intercepted by law enforcement or military aircraft. Pilots must comply with visual instructions from that aircraft while attempting contact on 121.5 MHz

Answer 224

A

Radar (radio detection and ranging) is a system which uses a synchronized radio transmitter and receiver to emit radio waves and process their reflections for display

Answer 225

A

Primary radar is a ground-based system used by ATC which transmits radio waves in a narrow beam by a rotating antenna. When the radio waves strike your aircraft, they are reflected back to the antenna and processed to provide a display, or echo, which shows your aircraft’s location on a radarscope

Answer 226

A

The range of your aircraft is determined by measuring the time it takes for the radio waves to reach your aircraft and then return to the receiving antenna

Answer 227

A

The azimuth, or angle of your aircraft from the radar site, is measured clockwise from north in a horizontal plane

Answer 228

A

Some of the limitations of primary radar are the bending of radar pulses (anomalous propagation), blocking of radar returns by precipitation or heavy clouds, and its inability to easily identify an individual aircraft return and display an aircraft’s altitude

Answer 229

A

The ATCRBS which sometimes is referred to as seconday surveillance radar, or simply seconday radar, consists of three main components in addition to primary radar; a decoder, an interrogator, and a transponder

Answer 230

A

The FARs require that your transponder be tested and inspected every 24 calender months for operations in controlled airspace

Answer 231

A

The term squawk is used by the controller to assign a four-digit code, as well as to indicate which transponder function you should select

Answer 232

A

Airport surveillance radar (ASR) facilities are designed to provide relatively short-range coverage in hte airport vicinity and ot serve as an expeditious means of handling terminal area traffic

Answer 233

A

ARTS equipment automatically provides a continuous display of an aircraft’s position, altitude, groundspeed, and other pertinent information

Answer 234

A

The primary responsibility of terminal radar approach control facilities (TRACONs) is to ensure safe separation of aircraft transitioning fromdeparture to cruise flight or from cruise to a landing approach

Answer 235

A

Air route surveillance radar (ARSR) is the long-range radar equipment used in controlled airspace to manage traffic

Answer 236

A

Workload permitting, air route control centers (ARTCCs) will provide traffic advisories and course guidance, or vectors to VFR aircraft on request

Answer 237

A

When giving traffic alerts, controllers reference traffic from your airplane as if it were a clock

Answer 238

A

Safety alerts are issued when an aircraft is in unsafe proximity to terrain, obstructions, or other aircraft

Answer 239

A

Terminal VFR radar service includes basic radar service, terminal radar service area (TRSA) service, Class C service, and Class B service

Answer 240

A

Basic radar service for VFR aircraft includes safety alerts, traffic adcisories, and limited radar vectoring. Sequencing also is available at certain terminal locations

Answer 241

A

To improve controller effectiveness and to reduce frequency congestion, automatic terminal information service (ATIS) is available in selected high activity terminal areas

Answer 242

A

Flight service stations (FSSs) are ATC facilities which provide a variety of services to pilots, including weather briefings, enroute communication, VFR search and rescue services, processing of flight plans, and assisting lost aircraft and aircraft in emergency situations

Answer 243

A

When you file a flight plan with an FSS prior to a cross-country, a record is made which incudes your destination, route of flight, arrival time, and nmber of people on board your aircraft

Answer 244

A

Communication radios in general aviation aircraft use a portion of the very high frequency (VHF) range, which includes the frequencies between 118.0 MHz and 135.975 MHz

Answer 245

A

The range of VHF transmissions is limited to line of sight, which means that obstructions such as buildings, terrain, or the curvature of the earth block radio waves

Answer 246

A

An initial callup to ATC or another facility should include who you are, where you are, and what type of service you are requesting

Answer 247

A

The ICAO has adopted a phonetic alphabet to be used in radio transmissions

Answer 248

A

Aviation uses the 24-hour clock system and coordinated universal time (UTC), or Zulu time, which places the entire world on one time standard

Answer 249

A

To increase safety at airports without operating control towers, it is important that all radio-equipped aircraft transmit and receive traffic information on a common traffic advisory frequency (CTAF)

Answer 250

A

An aeronautical advisory station, or UNICOM is privately owned air/ground communication station which transmits on a limited number of frequencies

Answer 251

A

The purpose of MULTICOM is to provide an air-to-air communication frequency for pilots to self-announce their position and intentions at airports which do not have a tower, an FSS, or UNICOM

Answer 252

A

The initial callup to ATC should include the name of the facility you are trying to contact, your full aircraft identification, the type of message to follow or request if it is short

Answer 253

A

An air traffic control clearance is an authorization by ATC for you to proceed under specified traffic conditions within controlled airspace

Answer 254

A

Ground control is an ATC function for directing the movement of aircraft and other vehicles on the airport surface

Answer 255

A

The term radar contact means your aircraft has been radar identified and flight following will provided

Answer 256

A

Approach control is the ATC funciton that provides separation and sequencing of inbound aircraft, as well as traffic advisories and safety alerts when necessary

Answer 257

A

To land at a tower-controlled airport if your communication radios become inoperative, set your transponder to code 7600, and follow the lost communication procedures

Answer 258

A

In the event of a radio failure, a tower controller can provide light signals to direct your aircraft

Answer 259

A

If armed and subjected to crash-generated forces, ELTs are designed to automatically emit a distinctive audio tone on designated emergency frequencies

Answer 260

A

The FARs require that the ELT battery must be replaced, or recharged if the battery is rechargeable, after one-half of the battery’s useful life, or if the transmitter has been used for more than one cumulative hour

Answer 261

A

The Airport/Facility Directory contains a descriptive listing of all airports, heliports, and seaplanebases which are open to the public

Answer 262

A

The Aeronautical Information Manual (AIM) contains basic flight information, a detailed description of the national airspace system, ATC procedures, and other items of special interest to pilots, such as medical facts and other flight safety information

Answer 263

A

NOTAM(D)s are disseminated for all navigational facilities which are part of the U.S. airspace system, all public use airports, seaplane bases, and heliports listed in the A/FD

Answer 264

A

FDC NOTAMs, which are issued by National Flight Data Center, contain regulatory information such as temporary flight restrictions or amendments to instrument approach procedures and other current aeronautical charts

Answer 265

A

The Notices to Airmen publication is issued every 28 days and contains all current NOTAM(D)s and FDC NOTAMs (except FDC NOTAMs for temporary flight restrictions) available for publication

Answer 266

A

Advisory circulars (ACs) provide you with nonregulatory guidance and information in a variety of subject areas. ACs also explain methods for complying with the FARs

Answer 267

A

Jeppesen Information Services offers an extensive range of flight information products in both print and electronic formats

Answer 268

A

The troposphere is the atmospheric layer extending from the surface to an average altitude of about 36,000 feet. Above the troposphere is the stratosphere, mesosphere, and the thermosphere

Answer 269

A

Because of heating inequities, heat is transported, or circulated, from one latitude to another by a process known as convection

Answer 270

A

In the three-cell circulation model, the Hadley, Ferrel, and Polar cells generate predictable wind patterns and distribute heat energy

Answer 271

A

Pressure readings on weather maps connect points of equal pressure with lines called isobars. When isobars are spread widely apart, the pressure gradient is considered to be weak, while closely spaced isobars indicate a strong gradient

Answer 272

A

A high is a center of high pressure surrounded on all sides by lower pressure. Conversely, a low is an area of low pressure surrounded by higherpressure

Answer 273

A

A ridge is an elongated area of high pressure, while a trough is an elongated area of low pressure. A col can designate either a neutral area between two highs and two lows, or the intersection of a ridge and a trough

Answer 274

A

Coriolis force causes all free-moving objects to trace a curved path due to the earth’s retation. In the northern hemisphere, the deviation will be to the right of its intended path while the opposite will occur in the southern hemisphere

Answer 275

A

Frictional force causes a wind to shift directions when near the earth’s surface

Answer 276

A

A sea breeze blows from the cool water to the warmer land during the day. At night, a land breeze blows from the cooler land to the warmer water.

Answer 277

A

A cold downslope wind flows downhill from snow-covered plateaus or steep mountain slopes

Answer 278

A

Warm, downslope winds sometimes dramatically raise the temperature at the base of the mountain

Answer 279

A

Stability is the atmosphere’s resistance to vertical motion

Answer 280

A

The rate at which temperature decreases with an increase in altitude is referred to as its lapse rate. As you ascend in the atmoshphere, temperature decreases at an averagerate of 2⁰C (3.5⁰F) per 1,000 feet

Answer 281

A

When temperature increases with altitude, a temperature inversion exists

Answer 282

A

Evaporation is the changing of liquid water to invisible water vapor. Condensation occurs when water vapor changes to a liquid. Sublimation is the changing of ice directly to water vapor, while the transformation of water vapor to ice is known as desposition. In both cases, the liquid state is bypassed

Answer 283

A

Relative humidity is the actual amount of moisture in the air compared to the total amount that could be present at that temperature

Answer 284

A

The temperature at which air reaches a state where it can hold no more water is called the dewpoint

Answer 285

A

Frost forms on aircraft when the temperature of the collecting surface is at or below the dewpoint of the surrounding air and the dewpoint is below freezing. If frost is not removed from the wings before flight, it may decrease lift and increase drag to a point which seriously compromises safety

Answer 286

A

When the temperature/dewpoint spread reaches 4⁰F (2⁰C) and continues to decrease, the air is nearing the saturation point and the probability of fog and low clouds forming increases

Answer 287

A

Since they normally form below 6,500 feet AGL, stratus, stratocumulus, and nimbostratus are classified as low clouds. Altostratus and altocummulus, and nimbostratus clouds are classified as middle clouds and have bases that range from about 6,500 to 20,000 feet AGL. High clouds have bases beginning at altitudes above 20,000 feet AGL. The three basic types of high clouds are called cirrus, cirrostratus, and cirrocumulus. Extensive vertical development is characteristic of cumulus, towering cumulus, and cumulonimbus clouds

Answer 288

A

Fog is a low cloud which has its base within 50 feet of the ground. If the fog is less than 20 feet deep, it is called ground fog

Answer 289

A

Although a cloud usually forms when the atmosphere is saturated, it doesn’t necessarily mean that the cloud will produce precipitation. For precipitation to occur, water or ice particles must grow in size until they can no longer be supported by the atmosphere

Answer 290

A

As they fall, snowflakes and raindrops may change into other types of precipitation depending on the atmospheric conditions beneath the cloud. In addition to snow and rain, falling moisture also can take the form of drizzle, ice pellets, or hail

Answer 291

A

An airmass is a large body of air with fairly uniform temperature and moisture content. As an airmass moves, it is modified by the temperature and moisture of the area over which it moves

Answer 292

A

Stable air is generally smooth with layered or stratiform clouds. Visibility is usually restricted, with widespread areas of clouds and steady rain or drizzle. Moist unstable air causes the formation of cumuliform clouds, showers, turbulence, and good surface visibility

Answer 293

A

A cold front is one where cold air is moving to displace warmer air. In a warm front, warm air is replacing cold air. A stationary front has no movement. When cold and warm fronts merge, they create an occluded front

Answer 294

A

Frontal discontinuities refer to the comparatively rapid changes in the meteorological characteristics of an airmass. When you cross a front, you move from one airmass into another and will normally experience changes in temperature, pressure, and wind

Answer 295

A

Airmass thunderstorms are relatively short-lived storms which rarely produce large hail or strong winds. Severe thunderstorms contain wind gusts of 50 knots or more, hail 3/4 inch in diameter or larger, and/or tornadoes

Answer 296

A

The life of a thunderstorm passes through three distinct stages. The cumulus stage is characterized by continuous updrafts. When precipitation begins to fall, the thunderstorm has reached the mature stage. As the storm dies during the dissipating stage, updrafts weaken and downdrafts become predominant

Answer 297

A

Some weather hazards associated with thunderstorms, such as turbulence, lightning, and hail are not confined to the cloud itself

Answer 298

A

If you encounter turbulence during flight, you should establish maneuvering speed and try to maintain a level flight attitude

Answer 299

A

Mechanical turbulence is often experienced in the traffic pattern when wind forms eddies as it blows over hangars, stands of trees, or other obstructions

Answer 300

A

When sufficient moisture is present, cumulus cloud build-ups indicate the presence of convective turbulence

Answer 301

A

Wingtip vortices are created when an airplane generates lift. The greatest vortex strength occurs when the generating aircraft is heavy, slow, and in a clean configuration

Answer 302

A

Mountains wave turbulence can be anticipated when the winds across a ridge are 40 knots or more, and the air is stable. The crests of mountain waves may be marked by lens-shaped, or lenticular, clouds

Answer 303

A

Wind shear can exist at any altitude and may occur in a vertical or horizontal direction. A microburst is one of the most dangerous sources of wind shear

Answer 304

A

The three types of structural ice are rime, clear, and mixed

Answer 305

A

Volcanic ash clouds may be hundreds of miles wide and thousands of feet thick

Answer 306

A

Predicting that the weather you are experiencing at the moment will continue to prevail is referred to as the persistence method of forecasting

Answer 307

A

The trend forecast assumes that weather systems which are moving in one direction and speed will continue to do so in the absence of any other intervening circumstances

Answer 308

A

Climatological forecasts are based on the average weather in a region

Answer 309

A

The analogue forecast uses past weather patterns as a guide to predict what will occur in the future

Answer 310

A

A meteorological forecast uses the forecaster’s scientific knowledge of the atmosphere and its processes to generate a weather prediction

Answer 311

A

Numerical weather prediction develops a forecast using mathmatical equations which relate atmospheric conditions with other variables

Answer 312

A

Weather conditions are observed and recorded worldwide several times a day. Observations are subsequently relayed to three World Meteorological Centers, where the data are transmitted to meteorological centers in each participating country, including the National Centers for Environmental Prediction (NCEP) in the United States

Answer 313

A

Information produced by the NCEP is sent to National Weather Service (NWS) facilities across the country as well as other public and private agencies worldwide

Answer 314

A

Of all forecasts, short-term predictions are generally the most accurate

Answer 315

A

An aviation routine weather report (METAR), is an observation of surface weather which typically contains 10 or more separate elements in a standard format

Answer 316

A

When a significant change in one or more elements occurs, a non-routine aviation weather report (SPECI) is issued

Answer 317

A

Prevailing visibility is the greatest distance an observer can see and identify objects through at least half of the horizon

Answer 318

A

Runway visual range (RVR) is based on what a pilot in a moving aircraft should see when looking down the runway. If included in a METAR, RVR will be reported following prevailing visibility

Answer 319

A

A ceiling is the height above ground level of the lowest layer of clouds aloft which is reported as broken or overcast, or the vertical visibility into an obscuration

Answer 320

A

Radar weather reports (SDs) define general areas of precipitation, particularly thunderstorms

Answer 321

A

Pilot weather reports (PIREPs) include information such as the height of bases and tops of cloud layers, in-flight visibility, icing conditions, wind shear, and turbulence

Answer 322

A

A prediction of what the weather will be in the future ar a specific airport is contained in the associated terminal aerodrome forecast (TAF)

Answer 323

A

An aviation area forecast (FA) can not only provide a good source of information for enroute weather, but it can also help you determine the conditions at airports which do not have terminal aerodrome forecasts

Answer 324

A

An estimate of wind direction in relation to true north, wind speed in knots, and the temperature in degrees Celsius for selected altitudes can be found in the winds and temperatures aloft forecast (FD)

Answer 325

A

A convective outlook (AC) forecasts general thunderstorm activity for the next 48-hour period

Answer 326

A

Areas of possible severe thunderstorms or tornadoes are defined by a severe weather watch bulletin (WW)

Answer 327

A

AIRMETs are issued every 6 hours with amendements issued, as necessary, for weather phenomena which are potentially hazardous to light aircraft. AIRMETs are issued for moderate icing, moderate turbulence, sustained winds of 30 knots or more at the surface, ceilings less than 1,000 feet and/or visibility less than 3 miles affecting over 50 percent of an area at ony one time, and extensive mountain obscurement

Answer 328

A

SIGMETs are issued for hazardous weather such as severe icing, severe and extreme turbulence, clear air turbulence (CAT), duststorms or sandstorms lowering visibility to less than three miles, and volcanic ash

Answer 329

A

Existing or forecast hazardous convective weather, which is significant to the safety of all aircraft, is contained in convective SIGMETs (WSTs)

Answer 330

A

To get a picture of atmospheric pressure patterns at the earth’s surface, you can refer to the surface analysis chart

Answer 331

A

The surface analysis chart provides information obtained from surface weather observations for a large number of reporting points throughout the United States

Answer 332

A

The weather depiction chart is particularly useful during the preflight planning process for determining general weather conditions and areas of IFR and MVFR weather

Answer 333

A

The radar summary chart shows the location, size, shape, and intensity of areas of precipitation, as well as the direction of individual cell movement. Although the chart plots the location of lines and cells of hazardous thunderstorms, it does not show cloud formations

Answer 334

A

Both visible and infrared (IR) imagery are available from weather satellites. The visible picture is used generally to indicate the presence of clouds as well as the cloud shape and texture. IR photos, which depict the heat radiation emitted by the various cloud tops and the earth’s surface, can be used to determine cloud height

Answer 335

A

The U.S. low-level significant weather prog chart can not only help you avoid areas of significant turbulence, but it also can provide you with information to help you avoid areas where temperatures are conductive to aircraft icing. The chart is valid from the surface up to 24,000 feet

Answer 336

A

The upper panels of the low-level significant weather prog chart show areas of non-convective turbulence, and freezing levels as well as areas of IFR, marginal VFR, and VFR weather. The surface prog panels, contained in the lower portion of the chart, use standard symbols for fronts and presure centers

Answer 337

A

The convective outlook chart is a two-panel chart, which forecasts thunderstorm activity over the next 48 hours. The day 1 panel depicts the outlook for general thunderstorm acticity and severe thunderstorms for the first 24-hour period beginning at 1200Z. The day 2 panel of the convective outlook chart provides a forecast for the second 24-hour period

Answer 338

A

The forecast winds and temperatures aloft chart contains eight panels, each of which corresponds to a forecast level - 6,000; 9,000; 12,000; 18,000; 24,000; 30,000; 34,000; and 39,000 feet MSL. The chart is issued at 1200Z or 0000Z and is valid for a 12-hour forecast period

Answer 339

A

The volcanic ash forecast transport and dispersion chart (VAFTAD) forecasts the concentration of volcanic ash over 6- and 12-hour time intervals, beginning 6 hours following a volcanic eruption. The VAFTAD chart is not intended to take the place of SIGMETs regarding volcanic eruptions; it is designed specifically for flight planning purposes

Answer 340

A

You can obtain a preflight weather briefing from an FSS/AFSS 24 hours a day by calling the toll free number, 1-800-WX BRIEF. When you contact a weather briefer, identify yourself as a pilot flying VFR and provide the briefer with your aircraft number and other relevant background data for the flight

Answer 341

A

When you are planning a trip and have not obtained preliminary weather or a previous briefing, you should request a standard briefing

Answer 342

A

You should request an abbreviated briefing when you need only one or two specific items or would like to update weather information from a previous briefing or other weather sources

Answer 343

A

An outlook briefing will provide you with forecast information appropriate to the proposed flight to help you make an initial judgment about the feasibility of your flight

Answer 344

A

The telephone information briefing service (TIBS) provides a continuous recording of area and/or route meteorological briefings, airspace procedures, and special aviation-oriented announcements

Answer 345

A

You can receive weather briefings and file flight plans directly via a personal computer and modem using the direct user access terminal system (DUATS)

Answer 346

A

Transcribed weather broadcasts (TWEBs), which are transmitted continuously over selected NDBs and/or VORs in Alaska, include route-oriented data with specially prepared National Weather Service forecasts, in-flight adcisories, winds aloft, and preselected information such as weather reports

Answer 347

A

Hazardous in-flight weather advisory service (HIWAS) broadcasts, which include advisories such as AIRMETs, SIGMETs, convective SIGMETs, and urgent PIREPs, are transmitted on a continuous basis over selected VORs

Answer 348

A

An unscheduled weather advisory issued by an ARTCC to alert pilots of existing or anticipated adverse weather conditions within the next two hours is called a center weather advisory (CWA)

Answer 349

A

When flying below 18,000 feet MSL, you can contact the enroute flight advisory service (EFAS) on 122.0 MHz for real-time weather information, including any thunderstorm activity which might affect your route

Answer 350

A

The two types of automated weather observation systems currently in use are the automated weather observing system (AWOS) and the automated surface observing system (ASOS)

Answer 351

A

The pilot’s operating handbook presents numerous charts which allow you to predict the airplane’s performance accurately. They pertain to the takeoff climb, cruise, descent, and landing phases of flight

Answer 352

A

Density altitude, wind, and runway conditions can greatly affect airplane performance

Answer 353

A

Takeoff performance depends mainly upon factors that can be measured or calculated in advance, such as density altitude, pressure altitude, temperature, wind, aircraft weight, and runway gradient or surface.

Answer 354

A

You can easily break down wind direction and speed into headwind and crosswind components by using a wind component chart

Answer 355

A

Best angle-of-climb airspeed (V_x) is used to gain the most altitude in the shortest horizontal distance

Answer 356

A

The best rate-of-climb airspeed (V_y) gives the maximum altitude gain in the least amount of time

Answer 357

A

Typically, a normal or cruise climb airspeed is used when climbing for prolonged periods of time

Answer 358

A

Climb performance data is included in the POH to provide you with an idea of the approximate performance that can be expected under various conditions

Answer 359

A

When choosing a cruising speed, you should consider fuel consumption, range, and the effects of winds

Answer 360

A

Both the amount and the distribution of weight affect aircraft performance

Answer 361

A

The reference datum is the location from which all horizontal distances are measured for weight and balance purposes

Answer 362

A

An arm is a distance from the datum. Measurements aft of the datum are generally positive numbers, while those forward of the datum are negative numbers. A moment is a weight multiplied by an arm

Answer 363

A

To compute the location of the CG, add the moments for each item of useful load to the moment of the empty airplane and divide the total moment by the total weight

Answer 364

A

Ramp weight is the term used to describe the airplane loaded for flight prior to engine start. Subtracting the fuel burned during engine start, runup, and taxi, yields the takeoff weight. Landing weight is the takeoff weight minus the fuel burned enroute

Answer 365

A

To determine an airplane’s useful load, either prior to engine start or at takeoff, you must subtract the basic empty weight from ramp weight or takoff weight repectively. The useful load includes the weight of the flight crew and useble fuel, as well as any passengers, baggage, and cargo. Payload is the term used for the weight of only the passengers, baggage, and cargo

Answer 366

A

The maximum weight may be divided into categories such as maximum ramp weight, maximum takeoff weight, and maximum landing weight

Answer 367

A

When performing calculations, the empty weight, moment, and center of gravity information is obtained from the individual aircraft’s weight and balance records

Answer 368

A

The pilot’s operating handbook provides tables and/or graphs to help find the moment of occupants, baggage and fuel

Answer 369

A

An overloaded airplane will have diminished performance. It will have a longer takeoff roll, lower angle and rate of climb , higher stall speed, reduced range and cruise speed, and a longer landing roll than a properly loaded airplane

Answer 370

A

Moving the CG forward increases stability, due to the increased tail-down force required for trimmed flight. The airplane will also stall at a higher speed, due to the increased wing loading

Answer 371

A

If the CG is locted ahead of the established CG range, the elevator may not have sufficient force to raise the nose for landing

Answer 372

A

If an airplane is flown with the CG aft of the CG range, it will be less stable in pitch. It will be difficult to control, and if a stall or spin is entered, it may be impossible to recover

Answer 373

A

Even when an airplane is loaded within CG limits, its handling characteristics will vary with the location of the CG

Answer 374

A

On a mechanical flight computer, the A scale and B scale are identical

Answer 375

A

Multiplication and division are done using the unit index or 10 index

Answer 376

A

The speed index or 60 index is the unit index for the C scale, which is used for hours. Hours on the C scale correspond to minutes on the B scale

Answer 377

A

Time, speed, and distance problems are solved on the computer side. Fuel consumption, density altitude, true airspeed, and conversion problems also are done on the computer side

Answer 378

A

The wind vector can be separated into two components, a headwind or tailwind component, and a crosswind component

Answer 379

A

Course is the term for the intended path over the ground. Heading is the direction in which the nose of the airplane is pointed. An aircraft flying with a crosswind component will drift off course if the heading is the same as the course. By applying a wind correction angle, you can compensate for drift and remain on course

Answer 380

A

Wind correction angles are determined on the wind side of the computer. The effect of predicted winds aloft can be determined prior to takeoff, and actual winds aloft can be calculated using heading and ground reference information gathered in flight

Answer 381

A

Electronic flight computers duplicate many of the functions of mechanical flight computers, and some offer additional features such as timers or weight and balance functions

Answer 382

A

Pilotage is flying by reference to landmarks

Answer 383

A

Sectional charts provide the largest scale and most detailed representation of visual landmarks for most cross-country flights

Answer 384

A

The best checkpoints are those that cannot be mistaken for any other nearby features

Answer 385

A

Select checkpoints that present a number of features to create a unique combination or a distinctive pattern

Answer 386

A

Highlighting your course line on the chart will make it easier to follow

Answer 387

A

Maintaining a constant awareness of your position will reduce your chance of becoming lost

Answer 388

A

Pure dead reckoning is navigating by time, speed, distance, and direction calculations, without reference to visual landmarks

Answer 389

A

A navigation plotter combines a protractor, straightedge, and distance scales for various charts

Answer 390

A

Navigation logs help keep track of headings, times, distances, and fuel consumption during dead reckoning flights

Answer 391

A

The true course must be corrected for magnetic variation, wind drift, and compass deviation to arrive at the compass heading

Answer 392

A

The VFR cruising altitude rule dictates cruising altitudes above 3,000 feet AGL

Answer 393

A

Required VFR fuel reserves are 30 minutes for daytime flights and 45 minutes for night flights

Answer 394

A

A VFR flight plan is a request that a search be started if your flight does not arrive at your stated destination

Answer 395

A

If you become lost, climb, communicate, confess, comply, and conserve

Answer 396

A

VORs only provide course guidance while VOR/DMEs and VORTACs also provide distance information

Answer 397

A

There are three classes of VORs with different coverage areas - terminal, low altitude, and high altitude

Answer 398

A

VOR radials and course derived from radials are oriented to magnetic north and are depicted on most aeronautical charts using compass roses

Answer 399

A

Before using a VOR for navigation, always identify the station using the Morse code or voice identifier

Answer 400

A

To determine your location after tuning and identifying a VOR station, turn the course selector or OBS knob until the CDI needle centers with a FROM indication and read the radial next to course index. To determine your course to a VOR station, turn the course selector or OBS knob until the CDI needle centers with a TO indication, and read the magnetic course on the course index

Answer 401

A

The indications of a VOR receiver are not directly affected by aircraft heading. To avoid reverse sensing, always set the VOR indicator to generally agree with your intended course

Answer 402

A

Tracking involves flying a desired course to or from a station using sufficient wind correction, if necessary

Answer 403

A

Bracketing is the process of determining and applying a wind correction which keeps you on course with the CDI needle centered

Answer 404

A

You can determine your position by cross checking between two VORs

Answer 405

A

You can check VOR receiver accuracy using ground and airborne checkpoints, or by using a VOT

Answer 406

A

An HSI is a VOR indicator combined with a heading indicator

Answer 407

A

DME automatically displays your slant range distance to a suitibly equipped VOR ground station. Slant range error is greatest when your aircraft is directly over the transmitting station

Answer 408

A

An ADF receives low and medium frequency transmitting stations, including NDBs (190-535 kHz) and AM broadcast stations (535-1605 kHz)

Answer 409

A

An ADF utilizes a directional antenna and a snese antenna, which are often combined into a single antenna mounted on the bottom of the fuselage

Answer 410

A

The head of the ADF indicator needle points to the station relative to the nose of the airplane

Answer 411

A

A fixed-card ADF indicator always displays 0⁰ at the top of the azimuth card and the needle points to the relative bearing to the station

Answer 412

A

When you set your magnetic heading value under the top index of a movable-card indicator, the head of the ADF needle directly indicates magnetic bearing to the station

Answer 413

A

Magnetic heading plus relative bearing equals magnetic bearing to the station. (MH + RB = MB)

Answer 414

A

To fly to an NDB using the homing procedure simply turn toward the ADF needle, then keep the head of the ADF needle on the aircraft’s nose (0⁰ on a fixed card indicator)

Answer 415

A

A radio magnetic indicator (RMI) combines a heading indicator with two bearing needles which normally provide VOR and ADF indications

Answer 416

A

The low and medium frequency radio waves used by ADF can be adversely affected by a number of factors including the ionosphere, mountains, and shorelines

Answer 417

A

Area navigation equipment is designed to allow you to fly any desired course within the coverage of a navaid’s signals or within the limits of a self-contained system

Answer 418

A

VORTAC-based area navigation systems allow you to create waypoints at any location within the reception range of the VORTAC or VOR/DME station

Answer 419

A

An internal navigation system (INS) computer uses initial data and information it receives from accelerometers to calculate aircraft attitude, velocity, and heading

Answer 420

A

The global positioning system consists of space, control, and user segments

Answer 421

A

Signals collected by a GPS receiver from three satellites can produce a two-dimensional position. A fourth satellite signal enables the reciever to determine a three-dimensional fix

Answer 422

A

Even with inherent errors, GPS can typically calculate your true horizontal position to within 15 meters

Answer 423

A

For VFR flying, GPS should always be used in conjunction with other navigation methods

Answer 424

A

All U.S. aircraft will soon be required to have automatic dependent surveillance-broadcast equipment in order to operate in many parts of the National Airspace System

Answer 425

A

Cones function well in bright light, are sensitive to colors, and allow you to see fine detail. Cones are concentrated in the center of the retina in a slight depression know as the fovea

Answer 426

A

The rods are your primary receptors for night vision and also are responsible for much of your peripheral vision

Answer 427

A

While scanning for traffic at night, you should use off-center viewing to focus objects on the rods rather than on the foveal blind spot

Answer 428

A

As visual purpleis formed, the rods can take up to 30 minutes to fully adapt to the dark

Answer 429

A

At night, interpreting the position lights of other aircraft can help you determine their direction of movement

Answer 430

A

Autokinesis is the false perception of movement after staring at a single point of light against a dark background for more than a few seconds

Answer 431

A

The false horizon illusion occurs when the natural horizon is obscured or not readily apparent

Answer 432

A

Landing illusions can be caused by a wide variety of factors including runway width, sloping runways and terrain, and weather conditions which reduce visibility

Answer 433

A

Disorientation is an incorrect mental image of your position, attitude, or movement in relation to what is actually happening to your aircraft

Answer 434

A

Kinesthetic sense is the term used to describe an awareness of position obtained from the nerves in your skin, joints, and muscles

Answer 435

A

Spatial disorientation occurs when there is a conflict between the information relayed by your central vision and your peripheral vision

Answer 436

A

The utricle and saccule organs within the vestibule are responsible for the perception of gravity and linear acceleration

Answer 437

A

The three semicircular canals, which are oriented in three planes perpendicular to each other, sense angular acceleration such as roll, pitch, and yaw

Answer 438

A

When subjected to the different forces of flight, the vestibular system can send misleading signals to the brain resulting in vestibular disorientation

Answer 439

A

Hypoxic hypoxia is due to a lack of available oxygen molecules at sufficient pressure for the body to use

Answer 440

A

Hypemic hypoxia occurs when your blood is not able to carry a sufficient amount of oxygen to the cells in your body

Answer 441

A

Since it attaches itself to the hemoglobin about 200 times more easily than does oxygen, carbon monoxide (CO) prevents hemoglobin from carrying oxygen to the body’s cells

Answer 442

A

Stagnant hypoxia is an oxygen deficiency in the body due to inadequate circulation of the blood

Answer 443

A

The inability of the cells to effectively use oxygen is defined as histotoxic hypoxia

Answer 444

A

FAR Part 91 lists supplemental oxygen requirments for flights at cabin pressure altitudes above 12,500 feet MSL

Answer 445

A

Hyperventilation occurs when rapid or deep breathing removes too much carbon dioxide from the blood. It usually results from emotional stress, fright, or pain

Answer 446

A

The decision-making process involves an evaluation of the pilot in command, the aircraft, the environment, and the operation to achieve an accurate perception of the flight situation

Answer 447

A

As a flight progresses, you need to continue to examine the outcome of your decisions made earlier to ensure they are producing the desired results

Answer 448

A

The National Transportation Safety Board (NTSB) is an independetn Federal agency responsible for investigating every U.S. civil aviation accident and issuing safety recommendations aimed at preventing future accidents

Answer 449

A

The poor judgment chain is a term used to describe the concept of contributing factors in a human factors-related accident

Answer 450

A

NTSB accident and incident reports and other aviation safety research can provide information which allows you to assess risk more effectively

Answer 451

A

Your ability to make effective decisions during flight can be impaired by physical, physiological, and psychological stressors

Answer 452

A

Operational pitfalls are dangerous tendencies that can affect pilots who gain flight experience and become complacent

Answer 453

A

To prevent a hazardous attitude from impairing effective decision making, it is important to recognize the attitude, correctly label the thought, and then say its antidote to yourself

Answer 454

A

Failure to listen effectively can destroy the communication process. Feedback confirmation ensures that an accurate exchange of information has taken place

Answer 455

A

Maintain a sterile cockpit by avoiding nonessential activities or conversations during taxi, takeoff, landing, and other non-cruise flight operations

Answer 456

A

Barriers to effective communication can include a lack of a common core of experience between the communicator and receiver, misuse of terminology, and an overuse of abstractions

Answer 457

A

Accidents often occur when flying task requirements exceed pilot capabilities. The difference between these two factors is called the margin of safety

Answer 458

A

Fatique, stress, work overload, distractions, and complacency can all contribute to a loss of situational awareness

Answer 459

A

You can decide to change, delay, or cancel a portion or all of your flight at any point during the flight planning process

Answer 460

A

For detailed planning, you should use sectional and VFR Terminal Area charts

Answer 461

A

You should calculate an approximate no-wind time enroute in order to provide the weather briefer with estimated times of arrival at airports along your route

Answer 462

A

As part of your preflight activities, you should always conduct a personal evaluation of you finess to fly

Answer 463

A

Unless the aircraft is maintained according to FARs, an aircraft’s airworthiness certificate is not valid

Answer 464

A

You must comply with security procedures for your airport. If you observe suspicious activity, call TSA’s 24-hour anti-terrorism hotline at 1-866-GA SECURE

Answer 465

A

Prior to every flight, you should perform a walkaround inspection using a written checklist to ensure that all necessary items are checked in a logical sequence

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