Book - FAA Questions Flashcards

Question

2B FAA Questions

Answer 1

Using a fuel grade lower than specified can cause cylinder head and engine temperatures to exceed normal operating limits. If the recommended fuel grade is not available, you may substitute the next higher grade, if approvedby the manufacturer

Answer 2

Airplane engines depend on circulation of oil for lubrication of internal parts and cooling

Answer 3

Immediately after starting the engine, adjust r.p.m. and check engine instruments for the proper indications

Answer 4

High engine oil temperature may be caused by an oil level that is too low

Answer 5

Excessive engine temperatures can result in loss of power, high oil consumption, and possible engine damage

Answer 6

Engine temperature may be reduced by enriching the mixture, reducing the rate of climb, increasing airspeed, or reducing power

Answer 7

If oil and cylinder head temperatures are above normal, you may be using too much power with an overly lean mixture

Answer 8

With a constant-speed propeller, the throttle controls engine power output, as indicated on the manifold pressure gauge, while the propeller control regulates engine r.p.m.

Answer 9

A constant-speed propeller allows you to select the blade angle that provides the most efficient performance

Answer 10

With a constat-speed propeller, you should avoid low r.p.m. settings with high manifold pressure to prevent internal engine stress

Answer 11

When hand-starting an airplane, a competent pilot must be at the controls

Answer 12

The instruments required for day VFR flight in a single-engine airplane are: airspeedindicator, altimeter, magnetic compass, tachometer, oil pressure gauge, oil temperature gauge, manifold pressure gauge (for constant-speed propeller), fuel gauge for each tank, and landing gear position indicator (for retractable landing gear)

Answer 13

ISA at sea level equals 29.92 in. Hg., or 1013.2 millibars, and has a temperature of 15C. Temperature decreases approximately 2C for each 1,000-foot increase in altitude

Answer 14

The pitot-static system provides impact, or ram, air pressure to the airspeed indicator

Answer 15

Airspeed ranges are shown by color-coded arcs on the airspeed indicator. The white arc is the flap operating range, the green arc is for normal operations, the yellow arc is the caution range, and the red line marks the never exceed speed. Important airspeeds are also marked by the boundaries of the color-coded arcs

Answer 16

Since V_a changes with aircraft weight, it is not marked on the airspeed indicator

Answer 17

As altitude increases, the indicated airspeed at whcih a given airplane stalls in a specific configuration remains the same

Answer 18

The longest pointer of the altimeter shows hundreds of feet, the middle-sized pointer indicates thousands of feet, and the shortest pointer shows tens of thousands of feet

Answer 19

Pressure altitude is the height above the standard datum plane when 29.92 is set in the altimeter scale

Answer 20

Density altitude is the pressure altitude corrected for nonstandard temperature. Density altitude increases as ambient temperature increases

Answer 21

True altitude is the actual vertical distance above mean sea level, and is equal to pressure altitude and indicated altitude when standard atmospheric conditions exist. True altitude is equal to field elevation when the altimeter is set to the local pressure setting.

Answer 22

Absolute altitude is the height, or vertical distance, above the surface

Answer 23

If you fly from an area of high pressure to an area of lower pressure without resetting your altimeter, the altimeter will indicate higher than the actual (true) altitude. If you do not reset your altimeter when flying from a low pressure area to an area of high pressure, your altimeter will indicate lower than actual (true) attitude

Answer 24

A one inch change in the altimeter setting equals 1,000 feet of indicated altitude change in the same direction

Answer 25

When atmospheric temperature is higher than standard, pressure levels are raised, and your true altitude is higher than your indicated altitude. When temperature is colder than standard, pressure levels are lowered, and your true altitude is lower than your indicated altitude

Answer 26

Blockage of the pitot tube affects only the airspeed indicator, but a clogged static system affects all three pitot-static instruments, the airspeed inicator, altimeter, and VSI

Answer 27

The turn coordinator shows aircraft yaw and roll movement

Answer 28

As the airplane banks, the relationship between the minature airplane and the horizon bar depicts the direction of turn

Answer 29

The miniature airplane is adjustable and should be set to match the level flight indication of the horizon bar

Answer 30

Due to precession, the heading indicator must be aligned periodically with the magnetic compass

Answer 31

Deviation is the error caused by the magnetic fields of the airplane and its electronic equipment

Answer 32

If you accelerate an airplane in the northern hemisphere, the compass shows a turn to the north; if you decelerate, it indicates a turn to the north; if you decelerate, it indicates a turn to the south. The error is most pronounced when flying on headings of east of west; it doesn't occur when flying directly on a north or south heading

Answer 33

In the northern hemisphere, a magnetic compass will initially indicate a turn to the west if a right turn is entered from a heading of north. A left turn under the same circumstances will cause a magnetic compass to initially indicate a turn toward the east

Answer 34

Turning error causes the magnetic compass to lead or lag the actual magnetic headings of the airplane during turns

Answer 35

The magnetic compass provides accurate indicators only when you are flying in smooth air and in straight-and-level, unaccelerated flight

Answer 36

The four forces acting on an airplane in flight are lift, weight, thrust, and drag. These forces are in equilibrium during unaccelerated flight.

Answer 37

In straight-and-level, unaccelerated flight, lift equals weight and thrust equals drag.

Answer 38

The angle formed by the wing chord line and relative wind is called the angle of attack

Answer 39

An airplane always stalls when the critical angle of attack is exceeded regardless of airspeed, flight attitude, or weight

Answer 40

Flaps allow you to steepen the angle of descent on an approach without increasing airspeed

Answer 41

Ground effect is the result of the earth's surface altering the airflow patterns about the airplane. In ground effect, an airplane may become airborne before it reaches its recommended takeoff speed

Answer 42

In ground effect, induced drag decreases and excess speed in the flare may cause floating when the aircraft is within one wingspan above the surface

Answer 43

An airplane said to be inherently stable will require less effort to control

Answer 44

Yaw movement about the vertical axis is produced by the rudder

Answer 45

The longitudinal stability of an airplane is determined primarily by the location of the center of gravity in relation to the center of pressure (lift)

Answer 46

An Airplane loaded to its aft CG limit will be less stable at all speeds

Answer 47

An airplane becomes progressively more difficult to control as the CG moves aft. If the CG is beyond the aft limit, it will be difficult to lower the nose to recover from a stall or spin

Answer 48

A power reduction in airplanes, other than T-tails, will decrease the downwash on the horizontal stabilizer from the wings and propeller slipstream. This is what causes the nose to pitch down after a power reduction

Answer 49

To enter a spin, an airplane must first be stalled. Although both wings are in stalled condition during a spin, one wing is stalled more than the other

Answer 50

The four flight fundamentals involved in maneuvering an aircraft are: straight-and-level flight, turns, climbs, and descents

Answer 51

Torque effect is greatest at low airspeeds, high power settings, and high angles of attack

Answer 52

P-factor causes an airplane to yaw to the left when it is at high angles of attack. P-factor results from the descending propeller blade on the right producing more thrust than the ascending blade on the left.

Answer 53

If a power failure occurs after takeoff, immediately establish the proper gliding attitude and airspeed

Answer 54

The horizontal component of lift causes an airplane to turn

Answer 55

The load factor imposed on an airplane will increase as the angle of bank is increased

Answer 56

Increasing the load factor will cause an airplane to stall at a higher speed

Answer 57

V_A is defined as the design maneuvering speed

Answer 58

The amount of excess load that can be imposed on an airframe depends on the aircraft's speed

Answer 59

The most effective way to scan during daylight is through a series of short, regularly-spaced eye movements in 10⁰ sectors

Answer 60

If there is no apparent relative motion between another aircraft and yours, you are probably on a collision course

Answer 61

In haze, air traffic and terrain features appear to be farther away than they actually are

Answer 62

Prior to starting any maneuvers, make clearing turns and carefully scan the area for other aircraft.

Answer 63

An aircraft in distress has the right-of-way over all other aircraft

Answer 64

When two aircraft of the same category are converging, but not head-on, the aircraft to the left shall give way. If the aircraft are on a head-on collision course, both aircraft should give way to the right.

Answer 65

The least maneuverable aircraft normally has the right-of-way. For example, a glider has the right-of-way over an airship and an airship has the right-of-way over an airplane

Answer 66

When two or more aircraft are approaching an airport for the purpose of landing, the right-of-way belongs to the aircraft at the lower altitude

Answer 67

The minimum safe altitude anywhere must allow an emergency landing, following an engine failure, without undue hazard to persons of property on the surface

Answer 68

Over a congested area, you are required to fly 1,000 feet above any obstacle within a horizontal radius of 2,000 feet of your aircraft

Answer 69

When flying over an uncongested area, you must fly at least 500 feet above the surface. Over sparsely populated or open water areas you cannont fly within 500 feet of any person, vessel, vehicle, or structure

Answer 70

When taxing in strong winds, proper use of the sileron and elevator controls of your airplane. For example, when taxiing in a quartering headwind, hold the aileron up on the side from which the wind is blowing. In a quatering tailwind, position the aileron down on the side from which the wind is blowing

Answer 71

Generally, the most critical wind condition when taxiing a high-wing, tricycle-gear airplane is a quartering tailwind

Answer 72

When taxiing a tailwheel airplane, you should position the ailerons the same as you do for a tricycle-gear airplane. However, you should hold the elevator control aft (elevator up) in a headwind, and hold the elevator control forward (elevator down) in a tailwind

Answer 73

The runway's magnetic direction is rounded off to the nearest 10⁰, with the last zero omitted. For example, runways oriented approximately 090⁰ and 270⁰ magnetic are designated by the numbers 9 and 27

Answer 74

At an uncontrolled airport, you can determine landing direction by observing the wind direction indicator. The extensions on the segmented circle indicate whether a lefthand of righthand pattern should be used for a given runway.

Answer 75

On runways with a displaced threshold, the beginning portion of the landing zone is marked with a solid white line with white arrows leading up to it. Although the pavement leading up to a displaced threshold may not be used for landing, it may be available for taxiing, the landing rollout, and takeoffs.

Answer 76

A blast pad/stopway area cannot be used for taxiing, takeoff, or landing. A yellow demarcation bar delineates a displaced threshold area where taxi is permitted from a blast pad or stopway that precedes the area

Answer 77

A closed runway or taxiway is marked by a yellow X

Answer 78

ATC should issue a LAHSO clearance only when the visibility is at least three miles and the cealing is at least 1,000 feet

Answer 79

An airport's rotating beacon operated during daylight hours normally indicates that weather at the airport is below basic VFR minimums

Answer 80

A militrary airport is identified by a rotating beacon which emits two quick, white flashes between green flashes

Answer 81

If you are landing at a controlled airport served by a VASI, regulations require that you maintain an altitude at or above the glide slope until a lower altitude is necessary for a safe landing

Answer 82

You will see white over white lights on the VASI if you are too high. Red over white indicates that you are on teh glide path, and you are too low if the VASI shows red over red

Answer 83

An above glide slope indication from a tri-color VASI is an amber light. If you see a green light, you are on glide path, and a red light indicates that you are too low

Answer 84

A below glide path indication from a pulsating approach slope indicator is a pulsating red light

Answer 85

A slightly high glide slope indication from a PAPI is three white lights and one red light

Answer 86

Blue omnidirectional lights identify the edge of the taxiway at night

Answer 87

To operate pilot-controlled lighting, key your mike seven times on the specified frequency to turn all the lights on at maximum intensity. Key the mike fice times for medium-intensity lighting and three times for the lowest intensity

Answer 88

You can locate a position on an aeronautical chart by knowing its coordinates of latitude and longitude

Answer 89

The terrain height is portrayed on sectional charts by contour lines and spot elevations

Answer 90

You should fly no lower than 2,000 feet AGL over a national park or wildlife refuge

Answer 91

Tick marks extending from an airport symbol indicate that fuel is available and that the field is attended, at least during normal working hours. A star above the airport symbol indicates an airport beacon normally operates from sunset to sunrise

Answer 92

By referring to the airport data on sectional charts, you can determine what radio frequencies to use for communication at that airport. In addition, information such as longest runway length, airport lighting, and field elevation can be determined

Answer 93

A VORTAC navigational facility is depicted by a blue triangular symbol on aeronautical charts

Answer 94

A circle H located in the top right corner of a communication box indicates that the weather service HIWAS is transmitted over the navaid frequency

Answer 95

The height of an obstruction is located next to the symbol and may be indicated by both an MSL and AGL altitude. By referring to terrain and obstruction heights, you can determine a safe cruising altitude

Answer 96

At times, a caution box may alert you to a specific hazard depicted on a sectional chart

Answer 97

Specific VFR weather minimums apply in Class G airspace below 1,200 feet AGL, between 1,200 feet AGL and 10,000 feet MSL, and above 10,000 feet MSL. The minimums which you must maintain in Class G airspace depend on whether you are operating during the day or at night

Answer 98

Class G airspace typically extends from the surface to 700 or 1,200 feet AGL. In some areas, Class G may extend from the surface to 14,500 feet MSL

Answer 99

An operable 4,096-code transponder with Mode C capability is required while operating within Class A airspace, Class B airspace, within 30 nautical miles of Class B primary airports, and Class C airspace

Answer 100

Class E airspace segments include Federal, or Victor, airways which usually extend to 4 nautical miles on each side of the airway centerline and from 1,200 feet AGL up to 17,999 feet MSL

Answer 101

When climbing or descending VFR along an airway, execute gentle banks left and right for continuous scanning of the airspace

Answer 102

Class E airspace consists of several different segments. The weather minimums that you must maintain while in each of these segments depend on whether you are operating at an altitude below 10,000 feet MSL, or at or above 10,000 feet MSL

Answer 103

Airspace at an airport with a part-time control tower is classified as Class D airspace only when the associated tower is in operation

Answer 104

The lateral dimensions of Class D airspace are based on the instrument procedures for which the controlled airspace is established. Class D airspace is depicted on a sectional chart by a blue segmented circle

Answer 105

When operating at a nontower satelite airport within Class D airspace, you must establish contact with the primary airport's control tower

Answer 106

Unless otherwise authorized, you must establish two-way radio communication with the control tower prior to entering Class D airspace. In addition, while operating within Class D airspace, you must maintain at least 3 statute miles visibility and a distance 500 feet below, 1,000 feet above, and 2,000 feet horizontally from clouds

Answer 107

Class C airspace usually has similar dimensions from one airport to another although some areas may be modified to fit unique aspects of a specific airport environment

Answer 108

The normal radius of the outer area of Class C airspace is 20 nautical miles from the primary airport

Answer 109

You must establish two-way radio communication with the ATC facility having jurisdiction over the area prior to entering Class C airspace

Answer 110

While operating in Class C airspace, you must maintain at least 3 statute miles visibility and remain at least 500 feet below, 1,000 feet above, and 2,000 feet horizontally from clouds

Answer 111

If you are operating out of a satelite airport within Class C airspace you should contact ATC as soon as practicable after takeoff

Answer 112

To operate within Class B airspace, your aircraft must have two-way radio communication capability and a Mode C transponder

Answer 113

To operate in Class B airspace, you must be at least a private pilot or a student pilot with the appropriate logbook endorsement

Answer 114

The floor and ceiling of each layer of Class B airspace are denoted on a sectional chart by MSL altitude

Answer 115

Class A airspace extends from 18,000 feet MSL up to and including FL600. You must be instrument rated and be on an IFR flight plan to operate in Class A airspace

Answer 116

Within Class A airspace, you are required to set your altimeter to the standard settting of 29.92 in. Hg.

Answer 117

A special VFR clearance allows you to operate within the surface areas of Class B, C, D, or E airspace if the visibility is at least 1 statute mile and you can remain clear of clouds

Answer 118

You may not operate under a special VFR clearance at night unless you are instrument rated and your aircraft is instrument equipped

Answer 119

The phrase NO SVFR included with the airport data on a sectional chart indicates that special VFR clearances are not issued to fixed-wing aircraft

Answer 120

Scud running is an operational pitfall in which a pilot pushes his or her capabilities and the aircraft's limits by trying to maintain visual contact with the terrain in low visibility and ceiling

Answer 121

Responsibiilty for collision avoidance in an alert area rests with all pilots

Answer 122

While operating under VFR in an MOA, you should exercise extreme caution when military training activity is being conducted

Answer 123

Warning areas often contain hazards such as aerial gunnery or guided missiles

Answer 124

You must have the controlling agency's permission to fly through a restricred area

Answer 125

Milirtary aircraft are normally operating at speeds in excess of 250 knots along MTRs

Answer 126

MTRs are classified as VR or IR and are identified with a three or four number designation based on the type and altitude of the operations conducted on the specific route

Answer 127

You may not use a transponder for operations in controlled airspace unless it has been tested and inspected within at least the preceding 24 calandar months

Answer 128

When making routine transponder code changes, you should avoid inadvertent selection of 7500, 7600, 7700

Answer 129

The standard transponder code for VFR operations is 1200

Answer 130

Controllers reference traffic from your airplane as if it were a clock

Answer 131

Basic radar service in the terminal radar program includes traffic advisories and limited vectoring to VFR aircraft

Answer 132

Pilots of departing VFR aircraft requestion radar traffic information should notify ground control on initial contact with their request and proposed direction of flight

Answer 133

Automatic terminal information service (ATIS) is the continuous broadcast of noncontrol airport information at selected high activity terminal areas

Answer 134

The letters VHF/DF appearing in an *Airport/Facility Directory airport listing indicate that the FSS has direction finding equipment*

Answer 135

To use VHF/DF facilities for assistance in locating your aircraft's position, you must have a VHF transmitter and receiver

Answer 136

The correct method of stating 4,500 feet MSL is "four thousand five hundred"

Answer 137

In the United States, you add hours to convert local time to Zulu time. For example, if you depart an airport in the eastern daylight time zone at 0945 EDT for a 2 hour flight to an airport located in the central daylight time zone, you will land at approximately 1545 Zulu time (0945 EDT + 4:00 = 1345Z + 2:00 (flight time) = 1545Z

Answer 138

Prior to entering an airport advisory area, you should contact the local FSS for airport and traffic advisories

Answer 139

When you are landing at an airport with a part-time tower and the tower is not in operation, you should monitor airport traffic and announce your position and intentions on the designated

Answer 140

The recommended communication procedure when using a CTAF is to transmit your intentions when you are 10 miles out and give position reports in the traffic pattern

Answer 141

Pilots should state their position on the airport when calling the tower for takeoff

Answer 142

An air traffic clearance is an authorization by ATC for you to proceed under specified traffic conditions within controlled airspace

Answer 143

After landing at a controlled airport, you should contact ground control when advised to do so by the tower

Answer 144

If your aircraft radio fails when landing at a controlled airport, you should observe the traffic flow, enter the pattern, and look for a light signal from the control tower

Answer 145

Each color or color combination of light signal has a specific meaning for an aircraft in flight or on the airport surface. For example, after a communication failure, a steady green light signal from the control tower indicates that you are cleared to land

Answer 146

You may not operate an aircraft in formation flight except by prior arrangement with the pilot in command of each aircraft

Answer 147

When activated, an emergency locator transmitter (ELT) transmits on designated emergency frequencies

Answer 148

ELT false alarms can be minimized by monitoring 121.5 MHz during flight, prior to engine shut down, and after maintenance

Answer 149

The battery in an emergency locator transmitter (ELT) must be replaced, or recharged if the battery is rechargeable, after one-half of its useful life. An ELT may be tested during the first five minutes after the hour

Answer 150

Airport listings in the *Airport/Facility Directory* (A/FD) include the airport location, availability and type of radar services, as well as communication and navigation frequencies. The designation "Rgt tfc." indicates that the runway has right-hand traffic

Answer 151

You can refer to the *Airport/Facility Directory* (A/FD) for information regarding parachute jumping and glider operations

Answer 152

Advisory circulars are divided into a variety of subjects, and are identified by numbers corresponding to the different Part numbers of the FARs. For example, ACs specifically related to airmen are issued under 60. Airspace information is contained in ACs issued under 70, while air traffic control and general operations can be found under 90.

Answer 153

FAA advisory circulars (some free, others at cost) are available to all pilots and can be ordered from the U.S. Government Printing Office

Answer 154

Variations in altimeter settings between weather reporting points are primarily caused by the unequal heating of the earth's surface

Answer 155

Friction causes wind to shift directions when near the earth's surface

Answer 156

Convective circulation patterns associated with sea breezes are caused by the temperature differences between land and sea. The result is cool, dense air moving inland from over the water

Answer 157

Stability of an airmass is decreased by warming from below

Answer 158

The actual lapse rate can be used to determine the stability of the atmosphere

Answer 159

A smooth, stable layer of air and a temperature increase with altitude are features of a temperature inversion. Visibility in an inversion is usually poor due to trapped pollutants. In addition, high humidity beneath a low-level temperature inversion can contribute to the formation of fog, haze, or low clouds

Answer 160

A surface-based temperature inversion is often produced by terrestrial radiation on clear, cool nights when the air is relatively calm

Answer 161

Every physical process of weather is accompanied by a heat exchange

Answer 162

Water vapor is added to the atmosphere by evaporation and sublimation

Answer 163

The amount of moisture in the air depends on air temperature

Answer 164

Dewpoint is the temperature to which air must be cooled to become saturated

Answer 165

You can calculate cloud bases by using the following formula: _Temperature (_⁰F_) - Dewpoint_ (⁰F) X 1,000 4.4(F⁰)

Answer 166

Frost forms when the temperature of the collecting surface is at or below the dewpoint of the surrounding air and the dewpoint is below freezing

Answer 167

If frost is not removed from the wings before flight, it may spoil the smooth airflow over the wings, decrease lift, and increase drag, preventing the aircraft from becoming airborne at normal takeoff speed

Answer 168

Clouds, fog, or dew always form when water vapor condenses

Answer 169

A small and decreasing temperature/dewpoint spread indicates conditions are favorable for the formation of fog

Answer 170

Clouds are grouped by families according to their altitudes (height range)

Answer 171

The term *nimbus* describes clouds which produce rain

Answer 172

When moist air flows upslope and cools to its saturation point, it produces: * Stratus clouds if the air is stable * Cumulus clouds if the air is unstable

Answer 173

Radiation fog forms in moist air over low, flat areas on clear, calm nights

Answer 174

Advection and upslope fog require wind for formation. Both types of fog commonly occur along coastlines where sea breezes transport air from warm water to the cooler land surfaces

Answer 175

Low-level turbulence and aircraft icing are associated with steam fog

Answer 176

Vertical cloud development and turbulence result from the lifting of unstable air

Answer 177

Ice pellets at the surface are an indication of a temperature inversion and freezing rain at a higher altitude

Answer 178

Stable air is generally smooth with layered or stratiform clouds. Visibility is usually restricted, with widespread areas of clouds and steady rain or drizzle

Answer 179

Moist unstable air causes the formation of cumuliform clouds, showers, turbulence, and good surface visibility

Answer 180

Fronts are boundaries between airmasses

Answer 181

One of the most easily recognized discontinuities across a front is the change in temperature

Answer 182

When you are flying across a front, you will notice a change in wind direction. Wind speed may also change

Answer 183

Steady precipitation with little turbulence usually precedes a warm front

Answer 184

Thunderstorm formation requires unstable conditions, a lifting force, and high moisture levels

Answer 185

A squall line is a non-frontal band of thunderstorms that often produces the most intense weather hazards for aircraft

Answer 186

The cumulus stage is characterized by continuous updrafts

Answer 187

Thunderstorms reach the greatest intensity during the mature stage which is signaled by the beginning of precipitation

Answer 188

A dissipating thunderstorm is characterized by downdrafts

Answer 189

Severe turbulence often exists in a cumulonimbus cloud, the most turbulent of all clouds

Answer 190

Lightning is always associated with thunderstorms

Answer 191

If you encounter severe turbulence during flight, set the power for turbulence penetration airspeed, maintain a level flight attitude, and accept variations in airspeed and altitude

Answer 192

When sufficient moisture is present, towering cumulus clouds indicate the presence of convective turbulence

Answer 193

Wingtip vortices are creted when an airplane generates lift

Answer 194

The greatest vortex strength occurs when the generating aircraft is heavy, slow, and in a clean configuration

Answer 195

Wingtip vortices tend to sink below the flight path of the aircraft which generated them. They are most hazardous during light, quartering tailwind conditions

Answer 196

Mountain wave turbulence can be anticipated when the winds across a ridge are 40 knots or more, and the air is stable

Answer 197

The crests of mountain waves may be marked by lens-shaped, or lenticular, clouds

Answer 198

Although they may appear stationary, standing lenticular clouds may contain winds of 50 knots of more

Answer 199

Wind shear often exists near the surface when there is a frontal system, thunderstorm, or temperature inversion with strong upper-level winds in the area. Wind shear is also associated with clear air turbulence

Answer 200

Wind shear may occur during a low-level temperature inversion when cold, still surface air is covered by warmer air which contains winds of 25 knots or more at 2,000 to 4,000 feet above the surface

Answer 201

Wind shear can exist at any altitude and may occur in all directions

Answer 202

Visible moisture is necessary for structural icing to form. Freezing rain usually produces the highest rate of ice accumulation

Answer 203

Winds are reported in reference to true north

Answer 204

Wind gusts are reported using a G followed by the highest gust

Answer 205

Precailing visibility is reported in statute miles, as indicated by the abbreviation SM

Answer 206

A ceiling is the lowest broken or overcast layer, or vertical visibility into an obstruction

Answer 207

In controlled airspace, VFR conditions exist with a visibility of at least 3 statute miles and a ceiling of 1,000 feet or more

Answer 208

Cloud heights of the vertical visibility into an obscuration are reported with three digits in hundreds of feet

Answer 209

The beginning of the remarks section is indicated by the code RMK. The remarks section reports weather considered significant to aircraft operations

Answer 210

PIREPs use a standard format. Note that altitudes are given in hundreds of feet above mean sea level (MSL)

Answer 211

TAF's (Terminal Aerodrome Forcast) usually are valid for a 24-hour period and are similar to those used in METARs.

Answer 212

Cumulonimbus (CB) is the only type of cloud included in the TAF

Answer 213

You should refer to the area forcast to determine forecast weather conditions between reporting stations and over several states. The area forecast is helpful in determining weather at airports which do not have TAFs

Answer 214

In a winds and temperatures aloft forecast, winds are given in true direction and speed is shown in knots

Answer 215

Wind direction and speed information on an FD is shown by a four-digit code. The first two digits are the wind direction in tens of degrees. Wind speed is shown by the second two digits. The last two digits indicate the temperature in degrees Celsius. All temperatures above 24,000 feet are negative

Answer 216

To decode a forecast of winds between 100 and 199 knots, subtract 50 from the two-digit direction code and multiply by 10. Then, add 100 to the two-digit wind speed code. If the code 9900 is used, it means the winds are light and variable

Answer 217

AIRMETs warn of weather conditions which are particularly hazardous to small, single-engine aircraft

Answer 218

SIGMETs warn of weather hazards, such as severe icing, which concern all aircraft

Answer 219

Convective SIGMETs warn of weather hazards including tornadoes, embedded thunderstorms, and hail 3/4 inch or greater in diameter

Answer 220

A stationary front is depicted with rounded warm front symbols on one side and triangular cold front symbols on the opposite side

Answer 221

A station circle on a weather depiction chart shows the visibility, cloud height or ceiling, and weather and/or obstructions to vision

Answer 222

For flight planning, the weather depiction chart is most useful for determing general weather conditions and quickly locating areas of adverse weather

Answer 223

Radar summary charts depict the location of precipitation along with the type, intensity, and cell movement

Answer 224

Individual thunderstorm cells as well as lines of thunderstorms are depicted on radar summary charts. Since radar only reflects precipitation, it does not detect cloud formations

Answer 225

In addition to helping you avoid areas of significant turbulence, the information contained on the low-level significant weather prog chart helps you avoid areas where temperatures are conductive to aircraft icing

Answer 226

Symbols used to define areas of IFR, MVFR, VFR, and moderate or greater turbulence, as well as the forcast altitude of the freezing level, are depicted in the legend between the two upper panels of the low-level significant weather prog chart

Answer 227

On the low-level significant weather prog chart, solid lines enclose areas of precipitation. Shading is used to describe the precipitation conditions and coverage. Continuous precipitation covering more than half of the area is shaded. Intermittent precipitation covering half or less of the area is unshaded

Answer 228

Turbulence is depicted on the low-level significant weather prog chart with a peaked symbol. Underneath the symbol, figures indicate the top and base of the turbulence

Answer 229

When you contact a weather briefer, identify yourself as a pilot flying VFR and provide the briefer with your aircraft number of your name, type of aircraft, intended route, destination, and other relevant background data for the flight

Answer 230

The standard briefing provides the most complete information concerning weather for your flight. When you request a standard briefing, the weather briefer assumes you have not received any preliminary information

Answer 231

Request an abbreviated briefing to update weather information from mass dissemination sources. e.g. telephone information briefing service, or an earlier briefing

Answer 232

You should request an outlook briefing when your proposed departure is six or more hours in the future

Answer 233

EFAS facilities provide actual weather information, including any thunderstorm activity which might affect your route

Answer 234

The frequency for EFAS (Flight Watch) below 18,000 feet MSL is 122.0 MHz

Answer 235

TWEB recordings are broadcast over selected NDBs and/or VORs. The recorded messages typically provide a variety of information including specific route forecasts and winds aloft information

Answer 236

Low atmospheric pressure, high temperature, and high humidity all result in decreased air density and a corresponding increase in density altitude

Answer 237

Pressure altitude and density altitude are equal only at standard temperature

Answer 238

As density altitude increases, engine power output, propeller efficiency, and aerodynamic lift all decrease

Answer 239

Both density altitude and pressure altitude calculations may be solved using a density altitude chart

Answer 240

High density altitude will reduce aircraft takeoff performance

Answer 241

Headwind and crosswind components are computed by using a crosswind component graph

Answer 242

Takeoff performance charts show the total distance required to clear a 50-foot obstacle. In addition, some provide estimates of ground roll distance prior to liftoff

Answer 243

Total distance required to land and approximate ground roll distance after landing can be determined by using a landing distance graph or table

Answer 244

The best angle-of-climb airspeed (V_x) provides the greatest gain in altitude in the shortest distance during climb after takeoff

Answer 245

The best rate-of-climb airspeed (V_y) provides the greatest gain in altitude over a period of time

Answer 246

A high density altitude decreases engine performance, aerodynamic lift, and propeller efficiency with a resulting reduction in climb performance

Answer 247

Cruise performance tables are used to calculate manifold pressure, fuel flow, fuel consumption, and true airspeed.

Answer 248

Basic empty weight includes the weight of the standard airplane, optional equipment, unusable fuel, and full operating fluids including full engine oil

Answer 249

The standard weight of gasoline is 6 pounds per gallon. To convert gallons to pounds, multiply by 6 (20 fallons times 6 equals 120 pounds). To convert pounds to gallons, divide by 6 (30 pounds divided by 6 equals 5 gallons)

Answer 250

To find the CG location, divide the total moment by the total weight

Answer 251

If the total moment falls between the fore and aft moment limits given in the table for that total weight, then the aircraft is within CG limits

Answer 252

The weight shift formula can be used to calculate the amount of weight that must be moved a specific distance or to determine the distance a specific weight would need to move to bring the CG within approved limits. The formula is: _Weight Moved_ = _Distance CG Moves_ Aircraft Weight = Distance Between Arm Locations

Answer 253

To find an estimated time enroute (ETE), first calculate groundspeed, then compute the time to cover the remaining distance. To compute an estimated time of arrival (ETA), add the estimated time enroute to the time over the last checkpoint

Answer 254

Magnetic course is true course corrected for local magnetic variation

Answer 255

Magnetic heading is magnetic course corrected for the effects of wind

Answer 256

Compass heading is magnetic heading corrected for compass deviation

Answer 257

On magnetic courses from 0⁰ to 179⁰ above 3,000 feet AGL, VFR cruising altitudes are odd thousands plus 500 feet. On magnetic courses from 180⁰ to 359⁰ above 3,000 feet AGL, VFR cruising altitudes are even thousands plus 500 feet

Answer 258

Day VFR flights must carry enough fuel to fly to the first point of intended landing, and to fly after that for an additional 30 minutes. A reserve of 45 minutes is required for night VFR flights

Answer 259

The initial cruising altitude should be entered on the flight plan, even if an altitude change is anticipated later in the flight

Answer 260

The fuel on board is the total amount of usable fuel in hours and minutes

Answer 261

If no stopover or more than one hour is expected, the name of the destination airport should be entered on the flight plan

Answer 262

VFR flight plans must be closed with the nearest FSS or other FAA facility upon landing

Answer 263

When the CDI needle is centered with a TO indication, the radial you are on is the reciprocal of the course set by the OBS. To determine which course takes you to a VOR from a specific location on a sectional chart, plot the course and note where it intersects the VOR compass rose

Answer 264

The CDI indicates whether the aircraft is left or right of the station on the selected course

Answer 265

The standard VOR indicator displays course information independent of aircraft heading

Answer 266

When the VOR indicator displays an OFF flag (or similar indication), the aircraft is either directly over the station or 90⁰ to either side of the course set in your VOR indicator. An OFF flag (or similar indication) also can mean that the tuned VOR station's signal is unreliable

Answer 267

You can determine your position on a chart by platting the intersection of LOPs from two or more VORs

Answer 268

The needle on a fixed-card ADF points to the relative bearing

Answer 269

Magnetic heading (MH) + relative bearing (RB) = magnetic bearing (MB) to the station

Answer 270

Once you are established on an inbound course with the proper wind correction, the head of the ADF needle indicates the wind correction angle and points in the opposite direction as the correction

Answer 271

When the magnetic heading is set on a movable-card ADF indicator, the head of the needle points to the magnetic bearing to the station and the tail of the needle points to the magnetic bearing from the station. To determine relative bearing, turn the knob so 0⁰ is at the top, or subtract the magnetic heading from the magnetic bearing to the station

Answer 272

During night flight, the most effective method of looking for other aircraft is to scan small sectors slowly and to use off-center viewing

Answer 273

To adapt the eyes for night flying, avoid bright white lights at least 30 minutes before your flight

Answer 274

Lighted position lights must be displayed on an aircraft from sunset to sunrise

Answer 275

Night is the time between the the end of evening civil twilight and the beginning of morning civil twilight

Answer 276

Interpreting the position lights of other aircraft can help you determine their direction of movement. For example, if you see a red position light to the right of a green light, the aircraft is flying toward you. A steady red and flashing red light indicate the aircraft is crossing to your left and a steady white light combined with a flashing red light identify an aircraft flying away from you

Answer 277

Your landing approaches at night should be made the same as during the daytime to reduce the effects of landing illusions

Answer 278

A state of temporary confusion resulting from misleading information being sent to the brain by various sensory organs is defined as disorientation

Answer 279

Relying on the instruments and believing their indications, regardless of how your body feels, are the keys to maintaining orientation during flight at night or in marginal weather conditions

Answer 280

You are more susceptible to disorientation if you use body signals to interpret flight attitudes

Answer 281

Hypoxia is a state of oxygen deficiency in the body

Answer 282

Large accumulations of C in the body can result in symptoms such as a loss of muscular power

Answer 283

Between cabin pressure altitudes of 12,500 feet MSL and 14,000 feet MSL, the flight crew is required to use supplemental oxygen after 30 minutes. Above 14,000 feet MSL, the crew is required to use supplemental oxygen for the entire duration of the flight and above 15,000 feet MSL, each aircraft occupant must be provided with it

Answer 284

Hyperventilation is rapid or deep breathing which can be caused by emotional tension, anxiety, or fear. Hyperventilation can occur while breathing supplemental oxygen

Answer 285

You should be able to overcome the symptoms, or avoid the occurrence of hyperventilation by slowing the breathing rate, breathing into a bag, or talking aloud.

Answer 286

The pilot in command of an aircraft is directly responsible for, and is the final authority as to, the operation of that aircraft. In an in-flight emergency requiring immediate action, the pilot in command may deviate from any rule to the extent required to meet that emergency

Answer 287

The pilot in command is responsible for ensuring that the pre-takeoff breifing of passengers is completed

Answer 288

An airworthiness certificate is valid when the aircraft is maintained according to FARs. A special flight permit may allow an aircraft to be relocated, tested, or demonstrated, if it is capable of safe flight within the limits of the flight permit

Answer 289

The owner of operator is primarily responsible for maintaining an aircraft in an airworthy condition

Answer 290

The pilot in command is responsible for determining that an aircraft is safe for flight

Answer 291

Some aircraft include a minimum equipment list (MEL), which lists the equipment that may be inoperatice based on the flight conditions. A pilot may fly an airplane with inoperative instruments or equipment only if that equipment is not required by the FARs or by the MEL. The inoperative equipment must not constitute a hazard to the aircraft, and the inoperative equipment must be removed or deactivated and placarded as inoperative

Answer 292

An aircraft preflight inspection for the first flight of the day, should be accomplished by a thorough and systematic means recommended by the manufacturer

Answer 293

Always perform a walkaround inspection prior to every flight. During your preflight, you should use a written checklist to ensure that all necessary items are checked in a logical sequence