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Book - FAA Questions Flashcards

1
Q

1A FAA Questions

A

A class of aircraft, with respect to the certification of airmen, means a classification of aircraft within a category having similar operating characteristics, such as single engine, multi-engine, land, water,gyroplane, and Helicopter. With respect to the certification of aircraft, class means a broad grouping of aircraft having similar characteristics of propulsion, flight, or landing, such as airplane, rotorcraft, glider, ballon, landplane, and seaplane

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2
Q

1A FAA Questions

A

An aircraft with an experimental certificate may not be operated for compensation or hire or for any purpose other than the purpose for which the certificate was issued

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3
Q

1A FAA Questions

A

If the aircraft logbook shows that the last annual inspection and transponder inspection were completed on November 1, then the next annual inspection is due November 30 of the following year. The transponder inspection is due November 30, two years later

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4
Q

1A FAA Questions

A

An aircraft may be flown beyond a 100-hour inspection expiration to a place where the service can be completed. However, the next inspection is due 100 hours from the original expiration time.

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5
Q

1A FAA Questions

A

If an aircraft is altered in a way that could appreciably change its flight characteristics, it must be flight tested by a person who is rated in that aircraft and who holds at least a private pilot certificate

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6
Q

1A FAA Questions

A

Preventive maintenance must be entered in aircraft maintenance record; including the signature, certificate number, and kind of certificate held by the person approving the work and a description of the work performed

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7
Q

1A FAA Questions

A

You must complete a flight review every 24 calendar months to continue exercising your pilot certificate privileges. To carry passengers, you must complete three takeoffs and landings in the same category and class of aircraft. To carry passengers at night, those takeoffs and landings must be to a full stop and between one hour after sunset and one hour before sunrise

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8
Q

1B FAA Questions

A

A parachute that is carried in an aircraft for emergency use must have been packed by a certificated and appropriately-rated parachute rigger: If constructed of natural materials - within the preceding 60 days If constructed of synthetic materials - within the preceding 180 days

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9
Q

2A FAA Questions

A

Aircraft operating limitations may be found in the approved flight manual, markings, placards, or a combination of these

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10
Q

2A FAA Questions

A

An experimental or light-sport aircraft’s operating limitations are part of Form 8130-7, which is the special airworthiness certificate, This must be carried in the aircraft

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11
Q

2B FAA Questions

A

The operating principle of float-type carburetors is based on the difference in pressure at the venturi throat and the air inlet

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12
Q

2B FAA Questions

A

When you lean the mixture, you decrease the fuel flow to compensate for decreased air density. Leaning the mixture may eliminate engine roughness during sunup at high-elevation airports

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13
Q

2B FAA Questions

A

If you do not adjust the mixture control during descents from high to low altitudes, the fuel/air mixture will be too lean

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14
Q

2B FAA Questions

A

You should expect carburetor ice when temperatures are at or below 210C (700F) and the relative humidity is high

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15
Q

2B FAA Questions

A

The first indication of carburetor ice in an airplane equipped with a fixed-pitch propeller is a loss of r.p.m. The decrease in r.p.m. casued by the enriched mixture will be followed by an increase in r.p.m. as the ice melts

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16
Q

2B FAA Questions

A

The use of carburetor heat generally decreases engine performance

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17
Q

2B FAA Questions

A

Fuel injection systems are generally less susceptible to icing than float-type carburetors

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18
Q

2B FAA Questions

A

The dual ignition system on an airplane engine provides improved engine performance

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19
Q

2B FAA Questions

A

Detonation occurs when fuel in the cylinders explodes instead of burning smoothly

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20
Q

2B FAA Questions

A

Detonation may result if you allow the engine to overheat or if you use an improper grade of fuel. If you suspect the engine is detonating on climbout, you can lower the nose to increase airspeed and the cooling airflow around the engine

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21
Q

2B FAA Questions

A

Preignition is the uncontrolled combustion of fuel in advance of normal ignition

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22
Q

2B FAA Questions

A

On aircraft equiped with electric fuel pumps, the auxillary electric driven pump is used in the event the engine-driven fuel pump fails

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23
Q

2B FAA Questions

A

To porperly purge water from the fuel system of an aircraft equipped with fuel tank sumps and a fuel strainer quick drain, drain fuel from both the fuel strainer drain and teh fuel sumps

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24
Q

2B FAA Questions

A

Filling fuel tanks after the last flight of the day prevents moisture from condensing by eliminating air from the tanks

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25
Q

2B FAA Questions

A

Using a fuel grade lower than specified can cause cylinder head and engine temperatures to exceed normal operating limits. If the recommended fuel grade is not available, you may substitute the next higher grade, if approvedby the manufacturer

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26
Q

2B FAA Questions

A

Airplane engines depend on circulation of oil for lubrication of internal parts and cooling

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27
Q

2B FAA Questions

A

Immediately after starting the engine, adjust r.p.m. and check engine instruments for the proper indications

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28
Q

2B FAA Questions

A

High engine oil temperature may be caused by an oil level that is too low

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29
Q

2B FAA Questions

A

Excessive engine temperatures can result in loss of power, high oil consumption, and possible engine damage

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30
Q

2B FAA Questions

A

Engine temperature may be reduced by enriching the mixture, reducing the rate of climb, increasing airspeed, or reducing power

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31
Q

2B FAA Questions

A

If oil and cylinder head temperatures are above normal, you may be using too much power with an overly lean mixture

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32
Q

2B FAA Questions

A

With a constant-speed propeller, the throttle controls engine power output, as indicated on the manifold pressure gauge, while the propeller control regulates engine r.p.m.

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33
Q

2B FAA Questions

A

A constant-speed propeller allows you to select the blade angle that provides the most efficient performance

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34
Q

2B FAA Questions

A

With a constat-speed propeller, you should avoid low r.p.m. settings with high manifold pressure to prevent internal engine stress

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35
Q

2B FAA Questions

A

When hand-starting an airplane, a competent pilot must be at the controls

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36
Q

2C FAA Questions

A

The instruments required for day VFR flight in a single-engine airplane are: airspeedindicator, altimeter, magnetic compass, tachometer, oil pressure gauge, oil temperature gauge, manifold pressure gauge (for constant-speed propeller), fuel gauge for each tank, and landing gear position indicator (for retractable landing gear)

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37
Q

2B FAA Questions

A

ISA at sea level equals 29.92 in. Hg., or 1013.2 millibars, and has a temperature of 15C. Temperature decreases approximately 2C for each 1,000-foot increase in altitude

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38
Q

2C FAA Questions

A

The pitot-static system provides impact, or ram, air pressure to the airspeed indicator

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39
Q

2C FAA Questions

A

Airspeed ranges are shown by color-coded arcs on the airspeed indicator. The white arc is the flap operating range, the green arc is for normal operations, the yellow arc is the caution range, and the red line marks the never exceed speed. Important airspeeds are also marked by the boundaries of the color-coded arcs

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40
Q

2C FAA Questions

A

Since Va changes with aircraft weight, it is not marked on the airspeed indicator

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41
Q

2C FAA Questions

A

As altitude increases, the indicated airspeed at whcih a given airplane stalls in a specific configuration remains the same

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42
Q

2C FAA Questions

A

The longest pointer of the altimeter shows hundreds of feet, the middle-sized pointer indicates thousands of feet, and the shortest pointer shows tens of thousands of feet

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43
Q

2C FAA Questions

A

Pressure altitude is the height above the standard datum plane when 29.92 is set in the altimeter scale

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44
Q

2C FAA Questions

A

Density altitude is the pressure altitude corrected for nonstandard temperature. Density altitude increases as ambient temperature increases

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45
Q

2C FAA Questions

A

True altitude is the actual vertical distance above mean sea level, and is equal to pressure altitude and indicated altitude when standard atmospheric conditions exist. True altitude is equal to field elevation when the altimeter is set to the local pressure setting.

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46
Q

2C FAA Questions

A

Absolute altitude is the height, or vertical distance, above the surface

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47
Q

2C FAA Questions

A

If you fly from an area of high pressure to an area of lower pressure without resetting your altimeter, the altimeter will indicate higher than the actual (true) altitude. If you do not reset your altimeter when flying from a low pressure area to an area of high pressure, your altimeter will indicate lower than actual (true) attitude

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48
Q

2C FAA Questions

A

A one inch change in the altimeter setting equals 1,000 feet of indicated altitude change in the same direction

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49
Q

2C FAA Questions

A

When atmospheric temperature is higher than standard, pressure levels are raised, and your true altitude is higher than your indicated altitude. When temperature is colder than standard, pressure levels are lowered, and your true altitude is lower than your indicated altitude

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50
Q

2C FAA Questions

A

Blockage of the pitot tube affects only the airspeed indicator, but a clogged static system affects all three pitot-static instruments, the airspeed inicator, altimeter, and VSI

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51
Q

2C FAA Questions

A

The turn coordinator shows aircraft yaw and roll movement

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52
Q

2C FAA Questions

A

As the airplane banks, the relationship between the minature airplane and the horizon bar depicts the direction of turn

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53
Q

2C FAA Questions

A

The miniature airplane is adjustable and should be set to match the level flight indication of the horizon bar

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54
Q

2C FAA Questions

A

Due to precession, the heading indicator must be aligned periodically with the magnetic compass

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55
Q

2C FAA Questions

A

Deviation is the error caused by the magnetic fields of the airplane and its electronic equipment

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56
Q

2C FAA Questions

A

If you accelerate an airplane in the northern hemisphere, the compass shows a turn to the north; if you decelerate, it indicates a turn to the north; if you decelerate, it indicates a turn to the south. The error is most pronounced when flying on headings of east of west; it doesn’t occur when flying directly on a north or south heading

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57
Q

2C FAA Questions

A

In the northern hemisphere, a magnetic compass will initially indicate a turn to the west if a right turn is entered from a heading of north. A left turn under the same circumstances will cause a magnetic compass to initially indicate a turn toward the east

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58
Q

2C FAA Questions

A

Turning error causes the magnetic compass to lead or lag the actual magnetic headings of the airplane during turns

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59
Q

2C FAA Questions

A

The magnetic compass provides accurate indicators only when you are flying in smooth air and in straight-and-level, unaccelerated flight

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60
Q

3A

FAA Questions

A

The four forces acting on an airplane in flight are lift, weight, thrust, and drag. These forces are in equilibrium during unaccelerated flight.

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61
Q

3A FAA Questions

A

In straight-and-level, unaccelerated flight, lift equals weight and thrust equals drag.

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62
Q

3A

FAA Questions

A

The angle formed by the wing chord line and relative wind is called the angle of attack

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63
Q

3A

FAA Questions

A

An airplane always stalls when the critical angle of attack is exceeded regardless of airspeed, flight attitude, or weight

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64
Q

3A

FAA Questions

A

Flaps allow you to steepen the angle of descent on an approach without increasing airspeed

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65
Q

3A

FAA Questions

A

Ground effect is the result of the earth’s surface altering the airflow patterns about the airplane. In ground effect, an airplane may become airborne before it reaches its recommended takeoff speed

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66
Q

3A

FAA Questions

A

In ground effect, induced drag decreases and excess speed in the flare may cause floating when the aircraft is within one wingspan above the surface

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67
Q

3B

FAA Questions

A

An airplane said to be inherently stable will require less effort to control

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68
Q

3B

FAA Questions

A

Yaw movement about the vertical axis is produced by the rudder

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69
Q

3B

FAA Questions

A

The longitudinal stability of an airplane is determined primarily by the location of the center of gravity in relation to the center of pressure (lift)

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70
Q

3B

FAA Questions

A

An Airplane loaded to its aft CG limit will be less stable at all speeds

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71
Q

3B

FAA Questions

A

An airplane becomes progressively more difficult to control as the CG moves aft. If the CG is beyond the aft limit, it will be difficult to lower the nose to recover from a stall or spin

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72
Q

3B

FAA Questions

A

A power reduction in airplanes, other than T-tails, will decrease the downwash on the horizontal stabilizer from the wings and propeller slipstream. This is what causes the nose to pitch down after a power reduction

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73
Q

3B

FAA Questions

A

To enter a spin, an airplane must first be stalled. Although both wings are in stalled condition during a spin, one wing is stalled more than the other

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74
Q

3C

FAA Questions

A

The four flight fundamentals involved in maneuvering an aircraft are: straight-and-level flight, turns, climbs, and descents

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75
Q

3C

FAA Questions

A

Torque effect is greatest at low airspeeds, high power settings, and high angles of attack

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76
Q

3C

FAA Questions

A

P-factor causes an airplane to yaw to the left when it is at high angles of attack. P-factor results from the descending propeller blade on the right producing more thrust than the ascending blade on the left.

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77
Q

3C

FAA Questions

A

If a power failure occurs after takeoff, immediately establish the proper gliding attitude and airspeed

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78
Q

3C

FAA Questions

A

The horizontal component of lift causes an airplane to turn

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79
Q

3C

FAA Questions

A

The load factor imposed on an airplane will increase as the angle of bank is increased

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80
Q

3C

FAA Questions

A

Increasing the load factor will cause an airplane to stall at a higher speed

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81
Q

3C

FAA Questions

A

VA is defined as the design maneuvering speed

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82
Q

3C

FAA Questions

A

The amount of excess load that can be imposed on an airframe depends on the aircraft’s speed

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83
Q

4A

FAA Questions

A

The most effective way to scan during daylight is through a series of short, regularly-spaced eye movements in 100 sectors

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84
Q

4A

FAA Questions

A

If there is no apparent relative motion between another aircraft and yours, you are probably on a collision course

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85
Q

4A

FAA Questions

A

In haze, air traffic and terrain features appear to be farther away than they actually are

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86
Q

4A

FAA Questions

A

Prior to starting any maneuvers, make clearing turns and carefully scan the area for other aircraft.

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87
Q

4A

FAA Questions

A

An aircraft in distress has the right-of-way over all other aircraft

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88
Q

4A

FAA Questions

A

When two aircraft of the same category are converging, but not head-on, the aircraft to the left shall give way. If the aircraft are on a head-on collision course, both aircraft should give way to the right.

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89
Q

4A

FAA Questions

A

The least maneuverable aircraft normally has the right-of-way. For example, a glider has the right-of-way over an airship and an airship has the right-of-way over an airplane

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90
Q

4A

FAA Questions

A

When two or more aircraft are approaching an airport for the purpose of landing, the right-of-way belongs to the aircraft at the lower altitude

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91
Q

4A

FAA Questions

A

The minimum safe altitude anywhere must allow an emergency landing, following an engine failure, without undue hazard to persons of property on the surface

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92
Q

4A

FAA Questions

A

Over a congested area, you are required to fly 1,000 feet above any obstacle within a horizontal radius of 2,000 feet of your aircraft

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93
Q

4A

FAA Questions

A

When flying over an uncongested area, you must fly at least 500 feet above the surface. Over sparsely populated or open water areas you cannont fly within 500 feet of any person, vessel, vehicle, or structure

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94
Q

4A

FAA Questions

A

When taxing in strong winds, proper use of the sileron and elevator controls of your airplane. For example, when taxiing in a quartering headwind, hold the aileron up on the side from which the wind is blowing. In a quatering tailwind, position the aileron down on the side from which the wind is blowing

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95
Q

4A

FAA Questions

A

Generally, the most critical wind condition when taxiing a high-wing, tricycle-gear airplane is a quartering tailwind

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96
Q

4A

FAA Questions

A

When taxiing a tailwheel airplane, you should position the ailerons the same as you do for a tricycle-gear airplane. However, you should hold the elevator control aft (elevator up) in a headwind, and hold the elevator control forward (elevator down) in a tailwind

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97
Q

4B

FAA Questions

A

The runway’s magnetic direction is rounded off to the nearest 100, with the last zero omitted. For example, runways oriented approximately 0900 and 2700 magnetic are designated by the numbers 9 and 27

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98
Q

4B

FAA Questions

A

At an uncontrolled airport, you can determine landing direction by observing the wind direction indicator. The extensions on the segmented circle indicate whether a lefthand of righthand pattern should be used for a given runway.

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99
Q

4B

FAA Questions

A

On runways with a displaced threshold, the beginning portion of the landing zone is marked with a solid white line with white arrows leading up to it. Although the pavement leading up to a displaced threshold may not be used for landing, it may be available for taxiing, the landing rollout, and takeoffs.

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100
Q

4B

FAA Questions

A

A blast pad/stopway area cannot be used for taxiing, takeoff, or landing. A yellow demarcation bar delineates a displaced threshold area where taxi is permitted from a blast pad or stopway that precedes the area

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101
Q

4B

FAA Questions

A

A closed runway or taxiway is marked by a yellow X

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102
Q

4B

FAA Questions

A

ATC should issue a LAHSO clearance only when the visibility is at least three miles and the cealing is at least 1,000 feet

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103
Q

4B

FAA Questions

A

An airport’s rotating beacon operated during daylight hours normally indicates that weather at the airport is below basic VFR minimums

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104
Q

4B

FAA Questions

A

A militrary airport is identified by a rotating beacon which emits two quick, white flashes between green flashes

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105
Q

4B

FAA Questions

A

If you are landing at a controlled airport served by a VASI, regulations require that you maintain an altitude at or above the glide slope until a lower altitude is necessary for a safe landing

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106
Q

4B

FAA Questions

A

You will see white over white lights on the VASI if you are too high. Red over white indicates that you are on teh glide path, and you are too low if the VASI shows red over red

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107
Q

4B

FAA Questions

A

An above glide slope indication from a tri-color VASI is an amber light. If you see a green light, you are on glide path, and a red light indicates that you are too low

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108
Q

4B

FAA Questions

A

A below glide path indication from a pulsating approach slope indicator is a pulsating red light

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109
Q

4B

FAA Questions

A

A slightly high glide slope indication from a PAPI is three white lights and one red light

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110
Q

4B

FAA Questions

A

Blue omnidirectional lights identify the edge of the taxiway at night

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111
Q

4B

FAA Questions

A

To operate pilot-controlled lighting, key your mike seven times on the specified frequency to turn all the lights on at maximum intensity. Key the mike fice times for medium-intensity lighting and three times for the lowest intensity

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112
Q

4C

FAA Questions

A

You can locate a position on an aeronautical chart by knowing its coordinates of latitude and longitude

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113
Q

4C

FAA Questions

A

The terrain height is portrayed on sectional charts by contour lines and spot elevations

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114
Q

4C

FAA Questions

A

You should fly no lower than 2,000 feet AGL over a national park or wildlife refuge

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115
Q

4C

FAA Questions

A

Tick marks extending from an airport symbol indicate that fuel is available and that the field is attended, at least during normal working hours. A star above the airport symbol indicates an airport beacon normally operates from sunset to sunrise

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116
Q

4C

FAA Questions

A

By referring to the airport data on sectional charts, you can determine what radio frequencies to use for communication at that airport. In addition, information such as longest runway length, airport lighting, and field elevation can be determined

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117
Q

4C

FAA Questions

A

A VORTAC navigational facility is depicted by a blue triangular symbol on aeronautical charts

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118
Q

4C

FAA Questions

A

A circle H located in the top right corner of a communication box indicates that the weather service HIWAS is transmitted over the navaid frequency

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119
Q

4C

FAA Questions

A

The height of an obstruction is located next to the symbol and may be indicated by both an MSL and AGL altitude. By referring to terrain and obstruction heights, you can determine a safe cruising altitude

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120
Q

4C

FAA Questions

A

At times, a caution box may alert you to a specific hazard depicted on a sectional chart

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121
Q

4D

FAA Questions

A

Specific VFR weather minimums apply in Class G airspace below 1,200 feet AGL, between 1,200 feet AGL and 10,000 feet MSL, and above 10,000 feet MSL. The minimums which you must maintain in Class G airspace depend on whether you are operating during the day or at night

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122
Q

4D

FAA Questions

A

Class G airspace typically extends from the surface to 700 or 1,200 feet AGL. In some areas, Class G may extend from the surface to 14,500 feet MSL

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123
Q

4D

FAA Questions

A

An operable 4,096-code transponder with Mode C capability is required while operating within Class A airspace, Class B airspace, within 30 nautical miles of Class B primary airports, and Class C airspace

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124
Q

4D

FAA Questions

A

Class E airspace segments include Federal, or Victor, airways which usually extend to 4 nautical miles on each side of the airway centerline and from 1,200 feet AGL up to 17,999 feet MSL

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125
Q

4D

FAA Questions

A

When climbing or descending VFR along an airway, execute gentle banks left and right for continuous scanning of the airspace

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126
Q

4D

FAA Questions

A

Class E airspace consists of several different segments. The weather minimums that you must maintain while in each of these segments depend on whether you are operating at an altitude below 10,000 feet MSL, or at or above 10,000 feet MSL

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127
Q

4D

FAA Questions

A

Airspace at an airport with a part-time control tower is classified as Class D airspace only when the associated tower is in operation

128
Q

4D

FAA Questions

A

The lateral dimensions of Class D airspace are based on the instrument procedures for which the controlled airspace is established. Class D airspace is depicted on a sectional chart by a blue segmented circle

129
Q

4D

FAA Questions

A

When operating at a nontower satelite airport within Class D airspace, you must establish contact with the primary airport’s control tower

130
Q

4D

FAA Questions

A

Unless otherwise authorized, you must establish two-way radio communication with the control tower prior to entering Class D airspace. In addition, while operating within Class D airspace, you must maintain at least 3 statute miles visibility and a distance 500 feet below, 1,000 feet above, and 2,000 feet horizontally from clouds

131
Q

4D

FAA Questions

A

Class C airspace usually has similar dimensions from one airport to another although some areas may be modified to fit unique aspects of a specific airport environment

132
Q

4D

FAA Quesions

A

The normal radius of the outer area of Class C airspace is 20 nautical miles from the primary airport

133
Q

4D

FAA Questions

A

You must establish two-way radio communication with the ATC facility having jurisdiction over the area prior to entering Class C airspace

134
Q

4D

FAA Questions

A

While operating in Class C airspace, you must maintain at least 3 statute miles visibility and remain at least 500 feet below, 1,000 feet above, and 2,000 feet horizontally from clouds

135
Q

4D

FAA Questions

A

If you are operating out of a satelite airport within Class C airspace you should contact ATC as soon as practicable after takeoff

136
Q

4D

FAA Questions

A

To operate within Class B airspace, your aircraft must have two-way radio communication capability and a Mode C transponder

137
Q

4D

FAA Questions

A

To operate in Class B airspace, you must be at least a private pilot or a student pilot with the appropriate logbook endorsement

138
Q

4D

FAA Questions

A

The floor and ceiling of each layer of Class B airspace are denoted on a sectional chart by MSL altitude

139
Q

4D

FAA Questions

A

Class A airspace extends from 18,000 feet MSL up to and including FL600. You must be instrument rated and be on an IFR flight plan to operate in Class A airspace

140
Q

4D

FAA Questions

A

Within Class A airspace, you are required to set your altimeter to the standard settting of 29.92 in. Hg.

141
Q

4D

FAA Questions

A

A special VFR clearance allows you to operate within the surface areas of Class B, C, D, or E airspace if the visibility is at least 1 statute mile and you can remain clear of clouds

142
Q

4D

FAA Questions

A

You may not operate under a special VFR clearance at night unless you are instrument rated and your aircraft is instrument equipped

143
Q

4D

FAA Questions

A

The phrase NO SVFR included with the airport data on a sectional chart indicates that special VFR clearances are not issued to fixed-wing aircraft

144
Q

4D

FAA Questions

A

Scud running is an operational pitfall in which a pilot pushes his or her capabilities and the aircraft’s limits by trying to maintain visual contact with the terrain in low visibility and ceiling

145
Q

4D

FAA Questions

A

Responsibiilty for collision avoidance in an alert area rests with all pilots

146
Q

4D

FAA Questions

A

While operating under VFR in an MOA, you should exercise extreme caution when military training activity is being conducted

147
Q

4D

FAA Questions

A

Warning areas often contain hazards such as aerial gunnery or guided missiles

148
Q

4D

FAA Questions

A

You must have the controlling agency’s permission to fly through a restricred area

149
Q

4D

FAA Questions

A

Milirtary aircraft are normally operating at speeds in excess of 250 knots along MTRs

150
Q

4D

FAA Questions

A

MTRs are classified as VR or IR and are identified with a three or four number designation based on the type and altitude of the operations conducted on the specific route

151
Q

5A

FAA Questions

A

You may not use a transponder for operations in controlled airspace unless it has been tested and inspected within at least the preceding 24 calandar months

152
Q

5A

FAA Questions

A

When making routine transponder code changes, you should avoid inadvertent selection of 7500, 7600, 7700

153
Q

5A

FAA Questions

A

The standard transponder code for VFR operations is 1200

154
Q

5A

FAA Questions

A

Controllers reference traffic from your airplane as if it were a clock

155
Q

5A

FAA Questions

A

Basic radar service in the terminal radar program includes traffic advisories and limited vectoring to VFR aircraft

156
Q

5A

FAA Questions

A

Pilots of departing VFR aircraft requestion radar traffic information should notify ground control on initial contact with their request and proposed direction of flight

157
Q

5A

FAA Questions

A

Automatic terminal information service (ATIS) is the continuous broadcast of noncontrol airport information at selected high activity terminal areas

158
Q

5A

FAA Questions

A

The letters VHF/DF appearing in an Airport/Facility Directory airport listing indicate that the FSS has direction finding equipment

159
Q

5A

FAA Questions

A

To use VHF/DF facilities for assistance in locating your aircraft’s position, you must have a VHF transmitter and receiver

160
Q

5B

FAA Questions

A

The correct method of stating 4,500 feet MSL is “four thousand five hundred”

161
Q

5B

FAA Questions

A

In the United States, you add hours to convert local time to Zulu time. For example, if you depart an airport in the eastern daylight time zone at 0945 EDT for a 2 hour flight to an airport located in the central daylight time zone, you will land at approximately 1545 Zulu time (0945 EDT + 4:00 = 1345Z + 2:00 (flight time) = 1545Z

162
Q

5B

FAA Questions

A

Prior to entering an airport advisory area, you should contact the local FSS for airport and traffic advisories

163
Q

5B

FAA Questions

A

When you are landing at an airport with a part-time tower and the tower is not in operation, you should monitor airport traffic and announce your position and intentions on the designated

164
Q

5B

FAA Questions

A

The recommended communication procedure when using a CTAF is to transmit your intentions when you are 10 miles out and give position reports in the traffic pattern

165
Q

5B

FAA Questions

A

Pilots should state their position on the airport when calling the tower for takeoff

166
Q

5B

FAA Questions

A

An air traffic clearance is an authorization by ATC for you to proceed under specified traffic conditions within controlled airspace

167
Q

5B

FAA Questions

A

After landing at a controlled airport, you should contact ground control when advised to do so by the tower

168
Q

5B

FAA Questions

A

If your aircraft radio fails when landing at a controlled airport, you should observe the traffic flow, enter the pattern, and look for a light signal from the control tower

169
Q

5B

FAA Questions

A

Each color or color combination of light signal has a specific meaning for an aircraft in flight or on the airport surface. For example, after a communication failure, a steady green light signal from the control tower indicates that you are cleared to land

170
Q

5B

FAA Questions

A

You may not operate an aircraft in formation flight except by prior arrangement with the pilot in command of each aircraft

171
Q

5B

FAA Questions

A

When activated, an emergency locator transmitter (ELT) transmits on designated emergency frequencies

172
Q

5B

FAA Questions

A

ELT false alarms can be minimized by monitoring 121.5 MHz during flight, prior to engine shut down, and after maintenance

173
Q

5B

FAA Questions

A

The battery in an emergency locator transmitter (ELT) must be replaced, or recharged if the battery is rechargeable, after one-half of its useful life. An ELT may be tested during the first five minutes after the hour

174
Q

5C

FAA Questions

A

Airport listings in the Airport/Facility Directory (A/FD) include the airport location, availability and type of radar services, as well as communication and navigation frequencies. The designation “Rgt tfc.” indicates that the runway has right-hand traffic

175
Q

5C

FAA Questions

A

You can refer to the Airport/Facility Directory (A/FD) for information regarding parachute jumping and glider operations

176
Q

5C

FAA Questions

A

Advisory circulars are divided into a variety of subjects, and are identified by numbers corresponding to the different Part numbers of the FARs. For example, ACs specifically related to airmen are issued under 60. Airspace information is contained in ACs issued under 70, while air traffic control and general operations can be found under 90.

177
Q

5C

FAA Questions

A

FAA advisory circulars (some free, others at cost) are available to all pilots and can be ordered from the U.S. Government Printing Office

178
Q

6A

FAA Questions

A

Variations in altimeter settings between weather reporting points are primarily caused by the unequal heating of the earth’s surface

179
Q

6A

FAA Questions

A

Friction causes wind to shift directions when near the earth’s surface

180
Q

6A

FAA Questions

A

Convective circulation patterns associated with sea breezes are caused by the temperature differences between land and sea. The result is cool, dense air moving inland from over the water

181
Q

6B

FAA Questions

A

Stability of an airmass is decreased by warming from below

182
Q

6B

FAA Questions

A

The actual lapse rate can be used to determine the stability of the atmosphere

183
Q

6B

FAA Questions

A

A smooth, stable layer of air and a temperature increase with altitude are features of a temperature inversion. Visibility in an inversion is usually poor due to trapped pollutants. In addition, high humidity beneath a low-level temperature inversion can contribute to the formation of fog, haze, or low clouds

184
Q

6B

FAA Questions

A

A surface-based temperature inversion is often produced by terrestrial radiation on clear, cool nights when the air is relatively calm

185
Q

6B

FAA Questions

A

Every physical process of weather is accompanied by a heat exchange

186
Q

6B

FAA Questions

A

Water vapor is added to the atmosphere by evaporation and sublimation

187
Q

6B

FAA Questions

A

The amount of moisture in the air depends on air temperature

188
Q

6B

FAA Questions

A

Dewpoint is the temperature to which air must be cooled to become saturated

189
Q

6B

FAA Questions

A

You can calculate cloud bases by using the following formula:

Temperature (0F_) - Dewpoint_ (0F) X 1,000

4.4(F0)

190
Q

6B

FAA Questions

A

Frost forms when the temperature of the collecting surface is at or below the dewpoint of the surrounding air and the dewpoint is below freezing

191
Q

6B

FAA Questions

A

If frost is not removed from the wings before flight, it may spoil the smooth airflow over the wings, decrease lift, and increase drag, preventing the aircraft from becoming airborne at normal takeoff speed

192
Q

6B

FAA Questions

A

Clouds, fog, or dew always form when water vapor condenses

193
Q

6B

FAA Questions

A

A small and decreasing temperature/dewpoint spread indicates conditions are favorable for the formation of fog

194
Q

6B

FAA Questions

A

Clouds are grouped by families according to their altitudes (height range)

195
Q

6B

FAA Questions

A

The term nimbus describes clouds which produce rain

196
Q

6B

FAA Questions

A

When moist air flows upslope and cools to its saturation point, it produces:

  • Stratus clouds if the air is stable
  • Cumulus clouds if the air is unstable
197
Q

6B

FAA Questions

A

Radiation fog forms in moist air over low, flat areas on clear, calm nights

198
Q

6B

FAA Questions

A

Advection and upslope fog require wind for formation. Both types of fog commonly occur along coastlines where sea breezes transport air from warm water to the cooler land surfaces

199
Q

6B

FAA Questions

A

Low-level turbulence and aircraft icing are associated with steam fog

200
Q

6B

FAA Questions

A

Vertical cloud development and turbulence result from the lifting of unstable air

201
Q

6B

FAA Questions

A

Ice pellets at the surface are an indication of a temperature inversion and freezing rain at a higher altitude

202
Q

6B

FAA Questions

A

Stable air is generally smooth with layered or stratiform clouds. Visibility is usually restricted, with widespread areas of clouds and steady rain or drizzle

203
Q

6B

FAA Questions

A

Moist unstable air causes the formation of cumuliform clouds, showers, turbulence, and good surface visibility

204
Q

6B

FAA Quesitons

A

Fronts are boundaries between airmasses

205
Q

6B

FAA Questions

A

One of the most easily recognized discontinuities across a front is the change in temperature

206
Q

6B

FAA Questions

A

When you are flying across a front, you will notice a change in wind direction. Wind speed may also change

207
Q

6B

FAA Questions

A

Steady precipitation with little turbulence usually precedes a warm front

208
Q

6C

FAA Questions

A

Thunderstorm formation requires unstable conditions, a lifting force, and high moisture levels

209
Q

6C

FAA Questions

A

A squall line is a non-frontal band of thunderstorms that often produces the most intense weather hazards for aircraft

210
Q

6C

FAA Questions

A

The cumulus stage is characterized by continuous updrafts

211
Q

6C

FAA Questions

A

Thunderstorms reach the greatest intensity during the mature stage which is signaled by the beginning of precipitation

212
Q

6C

FAA Questions

A

A dissipating thunderstorm is characterized by downdrafts

213
Q

6C

FAA Questions

A

Severe turbulence often exists in a cumulonimbus cloud, the most turbulent of all clouds

214
Q

6C

FAA Questions

A

Lightning is always associated with thunderstorms

215
Q

6C

FAA Questions

A

If you encounter severe turbulence during flight, set the power for turbulence penetration airspeed, maintain a level flight attitude, and accept variations in airspeed and altitude

216
Q

6C

FAA Questions

A

When sufficient moisture is present, towering cumulus clouds indicate the presence of convective turbulence

217
Q

6C

FAA Questions

A

Wingtip vortices are creted when an airplane generates lift

218
Q

6C

FAA Questions

A

The greatest vortex strength occurs when the generating aircraft is heavy, slow, and in a clean configuration

219
Q

6C

FAA Questions

A

Wingtip vortices tend to sink below the flight path of the aircraft which generated them. They are most hazardous during light, quartering tailwind conditions

220
Q

6C

FAA Questions

A

Mountain wave turbulence can be anticipated when the winds across a ridge are 40 knots or more, and the air is stable

221
Q

6C

FAA Questions

A

The crests of mountain waves may be marked by lens-shaped, or lenticular, clouds

222
Q

6C

FAA Questions

A

Although they may appear stationary, standing lenticular clouds may contain winds of 50 knots of more

223
Q

6C

FAA Questions

A

Wind shear often exists near the surface when there is a frontal system, thunderstorm, or temperature inversion with strong upper-level winds in the area. Wind shear is also associated with clear air turbulence

224
Q

6C

FAA Questions

A

Wind shear may occur during a low-level temperature inversion when cold, still surface air is covered by warmer air which contains winds of 25 knots or more at 2,000 to 4,000 feet above the surface

225
Q

6C

FAA Questions

A

Wind shear can exist at any altitude and may occur in all directions

226
Q

6C

FAA Questions

A

Visible moisture is necessary for structural icing to form. Freezing rain usually produces the highest rate of ice accumulation

227
Q

7B

FAA Questions

A

Winds are reported in reference to true north

228
Q

7B

FAA Questions

A

Wind gusts are reported using a G followed by the highest gust

229
Q

7B

FAA Questions

A

Precailing visibility is reported in statute miles, as indicated by the abbreviation SM

230
Q

7B

FAA Questions

A

A ceiling is the lowest broken or overcast layer, or vertical visibility into an obstruction

231
Q

7B

FAA Questions

A

In controlled airspace, VFR conditions exist with a visibility of at least 3 statute miles and a ceiling of 1,000 feet or more

232
Q

7B

FAA Questions

A

Cloud heights of the vertical visibility into an obscuration are reported with three digits in hundreds of feet

233
Q

7B

FAA Questions

A

The beginning of the remarks section is indicated by the code RMK. The remarks section reports weather considered significant to aircraft operations

234
Q

7B

FAA Questions

A

PIREPs use a standard format. Note that altitudes are given in hundreds of feet above mean sea level (MSL)

235
Q

7B

FAA Questions

A

TAF’s (Terminal Aerodrome Forcast) usually are valid for a 24-hour period and are similar to those used in METARs.

236
Q

7B

FAA Questions

A

Cumulonimbus (CB) is the only type of cloud included in the TAF

237
Q

7B

FAA Questions

A

You should refer to the area forcast to determine forecast weather conditions between reporting stations and over several states. The area forecast is helpful in determining weather at airports which do not have TAFs

238
Q

7B

FAA Questions

A

In a winds and temperatures aloft forecast, winds are given in true direction and speed is shown in knots

239
Q

7B

FAA Questions

A

Wind direction and speed information on an FD is shown by a four-digit code. The first two digits are the wind direction in tens of degrees. Wind speed is shown by the second two digits. The last two digits indicate the temperature in degrees Celsius. All temperatures above 24,000 feet are negative

240
Q

7B

FAA Questions

A

To decode a forecast of winds between 100 and 199 knots, subtract 50 from the two-digit direction code and multiply by 10. Then, add 100 to the two-digit wind speed code. If the code 9900 is used, it means the winds are light and variable

241
Q

7B

FAA Questions

A

AIRMETs warn of weather conditions which are particularly hazardous to small, single-engine aircraft

242
Q

7B

FAA Questions

A

SIGMETs warn of weather hazards, such as severe icing, which concern all aircraft

243
Q

7B

FAA Questions

A

Convective SIGMETs warn of weather hazards including tornadoes, embedded thunderstorms, and hail 3/4 inch or greater in diameter

244
Q

7C

FAA Questions

A

A stationary front is depicted with rounded warm front symbols on one side and triangular cold front symbols on the opposite side

245
Q

7C

FAA Questions

A

A station circle on a weather depiction chart shows the visibility, cloud height or ceiling, and weather and/or obstructions to vision

246
Q

7C

FAA Questions

A

For flight planning, the weather depiction chart is most useful for determing general weather conditions and quickly locating areas of adverse weather

247
Q

7C

FAA Questions

A

Radar summary charts depict the location of precipitation along with the type, intensity, and cell movement

248
Q

7C

FAA Questions

A

Individual thunderstorm cells as well as lines of thunderstorms are depicted on radar summary charts. Since radar only reflects precipitation, it does not detect cloud formations

249
Q

7C

FAA Questions

A

In addition to helping you avoid areas of significant turbulence, the information contained on the low-level significant weather prog chart helps you avoid areas where temperatures are conductive to aircraft icing

250
Q

7C

FAA Questions

A

Symbols used to define areas of IFR, MVFR, VFR, and moderate or greater turbulence, as well as the forcast altitude of the freezing level, are depicted in the legend between the two upper panels of the low-level significant weather prog chart

251
Q

7C

FAA Questions

A

On the low-level significant weather prog chart, solid lines enclose areas of precipitation. Shading is used to describe the precipitation conditions and coverage. Continuous precipitation covering more than half of the area is shaded. Intermittent precipitation covering half or less of the area is unshaded

252
Q

7C

FAA Questions

A

Turbulence is depicted on the low-level significant weather prog chart with a peaked symbol. Underneath the symbol, figures indicate the top and base of the turbulence

253
Q

7D

FAA Questions

A

When you contact a weather briefer, identify yourself as a pilot flying VFR and provide the briefer with your aircraft number of your name, type of aircraft, intended route, destination, and other relevant background data for the flight

254
Q

7D

FAA Quesitons

A

The standard briefing provides the most complete information concerning weather for your flight. When you request a standard briefing, the weather briefer assumes you have not received any preliminary information

255
Q

7D

FAA Questions

A

Request an abbreviated briefing to update weather information from mass dissemination sources. e.g. telephone information briefing service, or an earlier briefing

256
Q

7D

FAA Questions

A

You should request an outlook briefing when your proposed departure is six or more hours in the future

257
Q

7D

FAA Questions

A

EFAS facilities provide actual weather information, including any thunderstorm activity which might affect your route

258
Q

7D

FAA Questions

A

The frequency for EFAS (Flight Watch) below 18,000 feet MSL is 122.0 MHz

259
Q

7D

FAA Questions

A

TWEB recordings are broadcast over selected NDBs and/or VORs. The recorded messages typically provide a variety of information including specific route forecasts and winds aloft information

260
Q

8A

FAA Questions

A

Low atmospheric pressure, high temperature, and high humidity all result in decreased air density and a corresponding increase in density altitude

261
Q

8A

FAA Quesitons

A

Pressure altitude and density altitude are equal only at standard temperature

262
Q

8A

FAA Questions

A

As density altitude increases, engine power output, propeller efficiency, and aerodynamic lift all decrease

263
Q

8A

FAA Questions

A

Both density altitude and pressure altitude calculations may be solved using a density altitude chart

264
Q

8A

FAA Questions

A

High density altitude will reduce aircraft takeoff performance

265
Q

8A

FAA Questions

A

Headwind and crosswind components are computed by using a crosswind component graph

266
Q

8A

FAA Questions

A

Takeoff performance charts show the total distance required to clear a 50-foot obstacle. In addition, some provide estimates of ground roll distance prior to liftoff

267
Q

8A

FAA Questions

A

Total distance required to land and approximate ground roll distance after landing can be determined by using a landing distance graph or table

268
Q

8A

FAA Questions

A

The best angle-of-climb airspeed (Vx) provides the greatest gain in altitude in the shortest distance during climb after takeoff

269
Q

8A

FAA Questions

A

The best rate-of-climb airspeed (Vy) provides the greatest gain in altitude over a period of time

270
Q

8A

FAA Questions

A

A high density altitude decreases engine performance, aerodynamic lift, and propeller efficiency with a resulting reduction in climb performance

271
Q

8A

FAA Questions

A

Cruise performance tables are used to calculate manifold pressure, fuel flow, fuel consumption, and true airspeed.

272
Q

8B

FAA Questions

A

Basic empty weight includes the weight of the standard airplane, optional equipment, unusable fuel, and full operating fluids including full engine oil

273
Q

8B

FAA Questions

A

The standard weight of gasoline is 6 pounds per gallon. To convert gallons to pounds, multiply by 6 (20 fallons times 6 equals 120 pounds). To convert pounds to gallons, divide by 6 (30 pounds divided by 6 equals 5 gallons)

274
Q

8B

FAA Questions

A

To find the CG location, divide the total moment by the total weight

275
Q

8B

FAA Questions

A

If the total moment falls between the fore and aft moment limits given in the table for that total weight, then the aircraft is within CG limits

276
Q

8B

FAA Questions

A

The weight shift formula can be used to calculate the amount of weight that must be moved a specific distance or to determine the distance a specific weight would need to move to bring the CG within approved limits. The formula is:

Weight Moved = Distance CG Moves

Aircraft Weight = Distance Between Arm Locations

277
Q

8C

FAA Questions

A

To find an estimated time enroute (ETE), first calculate groundspeed, then compute the time to cover the remaining distance. To compute an estimated time of arrival (ETA), add the estimated time enroute to the time over the last checkpoint

278
Q

9A

FAA Questions

A

Magnetic course is true course corrected for local magnetic variation

279
Q

9A

FAA Questions

A

Magnetic heading is magnetic course corrected for the effects of wind

280
Q

9A

FAA Questions

A

Compass heading is magnetic heading corrected for compass deviation

281
Q

9A

FAA Questions

A

On magnetic courses from 00 to 1790 above 3,000 feet AGL, VFR cruising altitudes are odd thousands plus 500 feet. On magnetic courses from 1800 to 3590 above 3,000 feet AGL, VFR cruising altitudes are even thousands plus 500 feet

282
Q

9A

FAA Questions

A

Day VFR flights must carry enough fuel to fly to the first point of intended landing, and to fly after that for an additional 30 minutes. A reserve of 45 minutes is required for night VFR flights

283
Q

9A

FAA Questions

A

The initial cruising altitude should be entered on the flight plan, even if an altitude change is anticipated later in the flight

284
Q

9A

FAA Questions

A

The fuel on board is the total amount of usable fuel in hours and minutes

285
Q

9A

FAA Questions

A

If no stopover or more than one hour is expected, the name of the destination airport should be entered on the flight plan

286
Q

9A

FAA Questions

A

VFR flight plans must be closed with the nearest FSS or other FAA facility upon landing

287
Q

9B

FAA Questions

A

When the CDI needle is centered with a TO indication, the radial you are on is the reciprocal of the course set by the OBS. To determine which course takes you to a VOR from a specific location on a sectional chart, plot the course and note where it intersects the VOR compass rose

288
Q

9B

FAA Questions

A

The CDI indicates whether the aircraft is left or right of the station on the selected course

289
Q

9B

FAA Questions

A

The standard VOR indicator displays course information independent of aircraft heading

290
Q

9B

FAA Questions

A

When the VOR indicator displays an OFF flag (or similar indication), the aircraft is either directly over the station or 900 to either side of the course set in your VOR indicator. An OFF flag (or similar indication) also can mean that the tuned VOR station’s signal is unreliable

291
Q

9B

FAA Questions

A

You can determine your position on a chart by platting the intersection of LOPs from two or more VORs

292
Q

9C

FAA Questions

A

The needle on a fixed-card ADF points to the relative bearing

293
Q

9C

FAA Questions

A

Magnetic heading (MH) + relative bearing (RB) = magnetic bearing (MB) to the station

294
Q

9C

FAA Questions

A

Once you are established on an inbound course with the proper wind correction, the head of the ADF needle indicates the wind correction angle and points in the opposite direction as the correction

295
Q

9C

FAA Questions

A

When the magnetic heading is set on a movable-card ADF indicator, the head of the needle points to the magnetic bearing to the station and the tail of the needle points to the magnetic bearing from the station. To determine relative bearing, turn the knob so 00 is at the top, or subtract the magnetic heading from the magnetic bearing to the station

296
Q

10A

FAA Questions

A

During night flight, the most effective method of looking for other aircraft is to scan small sectors slowly and to use off-center viewing

297
Q

10A

FAA Questions

A

To adapt the eyes for night flying, avoid bright white lights at least 30 minutes before your flight

298
Q

10A

FAA Questions

A

Lighted position lights must be displayed on an aircraft from sunset to sunrise

299
Q

10A

FAA Questions

A

Night is the time between the the end of evening civil twilight and the beginning of morning civil twilight

300
Q

10A

FAA Questions

A

Interpreting the position lights of other aircraft can help you determine their direction of movement. For example, if you see a red position light to the right of a green light, the aircraft is flying toward you. A steady red and flashing red light indicate the aircraft is crossing to your left and a steady white light combined with a flashing red light identify an aircraft flying away from you

301
Q

10A

FAA Questions

A

Your landing approaches at night should be made the same as during the daytime to reduce the effects of landing illusions

302
Q

10A

FAA Questions

A

A state of temporary confusion resulting from misleading information being sent to the brain by various sensory organs is defined as disorientation

303
Q

10A

FAA Questions

A

Relying on the instruments and believing their indications, regardless of how your body feels, are the keys to maintaining orientation during flight at night or in marginal weather conditions

304
Q

10A

FAA Questions

A

You are more susceptible to disorientation if you use body signals to interpret flight attitudes

305
Q

10A

FAA Questions

A

Hypoxia is a state of oxygen deficiency in the body

306
Q

10A

FAA Questions

A

Large accumulations of C in the body can result in symptoms such as a loss of muscular power

307
Q

10A

FAA Questions

A

Between cabin pressure altitudes of 12,500 feet MSL and 14,000 feet MSL, the flight crew is required to use supplemental oxygen after 30 minutes. Above 14,000 feet MSL, the crew is required to use supplemental oxygen for the entire duration of the flight and above 15,000 feet MSL, each aircraft occupant must be provided with it

308
Q

10A

FAA Questions

A

Hyperventilation is rapid or deep breathing which can be caused by emotional tension, anxiety, or fear. Hyperventilation can occur while breathing supplemental oxygen

309
Q

10A

FAA Questions

A

You should be able to overcome the symptoms, or avoid the occurrence of hyperventilation by slowing the breathing rate, breathing into a bag, or talking aloud.

310
Q

10B

FAA Questions

A

The pilot in command of an aircraft is directly responsible for, and is the final authority as to, the operation of that aircraft. In an in-flight emergency requiring immediate action, the pilot in command may deviate from any rule to the extent required to meet that emergency

311
Q

10B

FAA Questions

A

The pilot in command is responsible for ensuring that the pre-takeoff breifing of passengers is completed

312
Q

11A

FAA Questions

A

An airworthiness certificate is valid when the aircraft is maintained according to FARs. A special flight permit may allow an aircraft to be relocated, tested, or demonstrated, if it is capable of safe flight within the limits of the flight permit

313
Q

11A

FAA Questions

A

The owner of operator is primarily responsible for maintaining an aircraft in an airworthy condition

314
Q

11A

FAA Questions

A

The pilot in command is responsible for determining that an aircraft is safe for flight

315
Q

11A

FAA Questions

A

Some aircraft include a minimum equipment list (MEL), which lists the equipment that may be inoperatice based on the flight conditions. A pilot may fly an airplane with inoperative instruments or equipment only if that equipment is not required by the FARs or by the MEL. The inoperative equipment must not constitute a hazard to the aircraft, and the inoperative equipment must be removed or deactivated and placarded as inoperative

316
Q

11A

FAA Questions

A

An aircraft preflight inspection for the first flight of the day, should be accomplished by a thorough and systematic means recommended by the manufacturer

317
Q

11A

FAA Questions

A

Always perform a walkaround inspection prior to every flight. During your preflight, you should use a written checklist to ensure that all necessary items are checked in a logical sequence

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