Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Sec+ > Study Test A > Flashcards

Study Test A Flashcards

1
Q

HTTPS

A

Hypertext Transfer Protocol Secure – Used for secure communication over a network. Used on internet to protect data between user’s computer and website. Uses TLS. (Ex. Online purchases are secure) Port 443 TCP

Hypertext Transfer Protocol over SSL/TLS (HTTPS) provides an encrypted web connection to the router

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Hybrid cloud model

A

Combines both private and public cloud infrastructures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Reconstitution (incident response)

A

The recovery after a breach, can be a phased approach that may take months to complete

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

CMS

A

Content Management System - Used to manage the creation and modification of digital content

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

802.1X

A

Authentication protocol, but it needs additional functionality to authenticate across multiple user databases. Centralized authentication server. Provides an authentication framework that allows a user to be authenticated by a central authority. Standard for port-based network access control (PNAC)…RADIUS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

A IPS can detect…
If an alert was generated by an embedded script and an attacker’s IP Address

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

ABAC

A

Attribute-based Access Control - combines many different parameters to determine if a user has access to a resource based on attributes

Provides the most detailed and explicit type of access control over a resource

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Active Reconnaissance

A

Used to gather info about services on network. Intruder engages with the targeted system to gather info about vulnerabilities Does not exploit vulnerabilities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Administrative Control

A

Sets a policy that is designed to control how people act

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

AES

A

Advanced Encryption Standard - Symmetric block cipher chosen by the U.S. government to protect classified information.

Specification for the encryption of electronic data

Key size can be 128/192/256 bits

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Agile development life-cycle

A

Process of developing code that is rapid and highly-collaborative.

Software development that is performed in small increments to allow more adaptivity and room to change

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

ALE

A

Annual Loss Expectancy - is the financial loss over an entire 12-month period

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

An immutable system

A

Can’t be changed once deployed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Anti-spoofing

A

Commonly used with routers to prevent communication from spoofed IP addresses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

API

A

Application Programming Interface - how 2 or more computer programs communicate with each other

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

ARO

A

Annual Rate of Occurrence - the number of times an event will occur in a 12-month period

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

ARP poisoning

A

Address Resolution Protocol poisoning - often associated with a man-in-the-middle attack. Attacker must be on the same local IP subnet as the victim, so it’s often associated with an external attack

Spoofing attack that hackers use to intercept data…attacker sends falsified ARP (Address Resolution Protocol) messages over a local area network

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Backdoor

A

Allows an attacker to access a system at any time without any user intervention. If there are inbound traffic flows that cannot be identified, it may be necessary to isolate that computer and examine it for signs of a compromised system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Business Impact Analysis

A

Usually created during the disaster recovery planning process

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

CA Key

A

Certificate Authority key - commonly used to validate the digital signature from a trusted CA. Not commonly used for user data encryption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Captive portal

A

Commonly used on web-based systems as an authentication method

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

CASB

A

Cloud Access Security Broker – can be used to apply security policies to cloud-based implementations. Management software designed to mediate access to cloud services by users across all devices. Provide visibility into how clients and other network nodes use cloud services

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

CHAP

A

Challenge-Handshake Authentication Protocol - combines a server’s challenge message with the client’s password hash during the authentication process

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Community cloud model

A

Resources and costs are shared among several different organizations who have common service needs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Compensating Control

A

Doesn’t prevent an attack, but it does restore from an attack using other means. In this example, the UPS does not stop a power outage, but it does provide alternative power if an outage occurs.

Used whenever you can’t meet the requirements for a normal control, mechanism that is put in place to satisfy the requirement for a security measure that is deemed too difficult or impractical to implement at the present time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

ACL

A

Access Control List. Can be configured with the router. Filters traffic by IP address and port number

Single entry in a firewall that dictates whether specific communication is permitted (allowed) or denied (blocked)

Network traffic filter that can control incoming or outgoing traffic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Connecting a VPN to separate networks would…?

A

Encrypt all information between the two networks, but would not provide any segmentation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Containerization

A

Mobile device containerization allows an organization to securely separate user data from company data on a mobile device

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

COPE

A

Corporately Owned and Personally Enabled – commonly purchased by the corporation and allows the use of the mobile device for both business and personal use

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Corrective Control

A

A corrective control can actively work to mitigate any damage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

DAC

A

Discretionary Access Control - allows the owner of the resource to control who has access

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Data Custodian

A

Manages access rights and sets security controls to the data

Role that handles managing the system where the data assets are stored. Responsible for enforcing access control, encryption, and backup/recovery measures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Data Owner

A

Usually a high-level executive who makes business decisions regarding the data

Rsponsible for labeling the asset and ensuring that it is protected with appropriate controls. The data owner typically selects the data steward and data custodian and has the authority to direct their actions. Ultimately they’re the main person responsible for the data

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Data sanitization

A

Commonly used to permanently delete individual files from a drive or permanently delete all data on a drive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Data Steward

A

Responsible for data accuracy, privacy, and adding sensitivity labels to the data

Primarily responsible for data quality

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Degaussing the hard drive does what?

A

Removes everything on the drive, but it will also erase any ROM or flash memory components on the drive.

If the goal is to completely destroy the drive, then degaussing would be a good choice. Uses magnets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Detective Control

A

May not prevent access, but it can identify and record any intrusion attempts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Detective Control

A

May not prevent access, but it can identify and record any intrusion attempts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Differential Backup

A

Backs up anything that has changed since the last full backup

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Digital signature

A

A certificate authority will digitally sign a certificate to add trust. If you trust the certificate authority, you can then trust the certificate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

DLL injection

A

Dynamic Link Library injection – Takes advantage of the libraries referenced by an application rather than the application itself. Injects malicious code in place of another code, forcing computer to load the malicious dynamic-link library

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

DNS

A

Domain Name System – Turns human readable “example.com” into a computer readable IP address Port 53 TCP/UDP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

DNSSEC

A

Domain Name System Security – Ensures Domain Name is legit. Used on DNS servers to validate DNS responses using public key cryptography

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Preventive Control

A

Physically limits access to a device or area

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

DoS

A

Denial of Service - an attack that overwhelms or disables a service to prevent the service from operating normally. A packet that disables a server would be an example of a DoS attack

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

DV certificate

A

Domain Validated - Shows that the owner can manage aspects of their DNS configuration. DV certificate would generally go through less validation than an EV certificate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

EAP-FAST

A

Extensible Authentication Protocol - Flexible Authentication via Secure Tunneling – an updated version of LEAP (Lightweight EAP) that was commonly used after WEP (Wired Equivalent Privacy) was replaced with WPA (Wi-Fi Protected Access)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

EAP-TLS

A

Extensible Authentication Protocol - Transport Layer Security – does not provide a mechanism for using multiple authentication types within a TLS tunnel. Requires both the client and the server to identify themselves with a certificate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

EAP-TTLS

A

Extensible Authentication Protocol - Tunneled Transport Layer Security – allows the use of multiple authentication protocols transported inside of an encrypted TLS tunnel. This allows the use of any authentication while maintaining confidentiality with TLS. Requires only server-side certificates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Elasticity

A

Scales resources as the demand increases or decreases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

EV SSL Certificate

A

Extended Validation Certificate - certificate is provided by a Certificate Authority after additional checks have been made to validate the certificate owner’s identity.

Highest level of trust a company can inspire in its website visitor

Does not provide any additional encryption features, but makes your website super legit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

False Negative

A

When malicious activity is identified as normal, no alert

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

False Positive

A

When normal activity is identified as an attack

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Faraday Cage

A

An enclosure used to block electromagnetic fields/electromatic interference

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Fault-tolerant

A

Can correct itself if a problem is identified

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

FTPS

A

File Transfer Protocol Secure – Transfers files from hosts to hosts over encrypted connection using TLS
Port 989/990 TCP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Fuzzing

A

Method of testing software that inputs random or unexpected data to examine the results

Used to test input validation by entering random, unexpected data into application fields to see how the software program reacts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Highly available

A

Environment maintains the availability of a system if a problem occurs. In a highly available environment, the corrections are implemented automatically and usually without the knowledge of the end user. An application platform that is constantly changing many not necessarily be highly available Refers to a system that needs to remain up and operational

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

HMAC

A

Hash-based Message Authentication Code - can check for data integrity and authenticity with a hash, does not provide encryption or decryption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Host-based firewall

A

Monitors traffic flows on host network. Does not commonly log hardware or USB drive access

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

HSM

A

Hardware Security Module - high-end cryptographic hardware appliance that can securely store keys and certificates for all devices. Physical device that acts as a secure cryptoprocessor during the encryption process

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

IaC

A

Infrastructure as code - describes the virtualization of infrastructure components such as firewalls, routers, and switches

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Incremental Backup

A

Starts with a full backup. It backs up anything that has changed since the last full or incremental backup

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Integrity measurement

A

Designed to check for the secure baseline of firewall settings, patch levels, operating system versions, and any other security components associated with the application. These secure baselines may vary between different application versions

65
Q

IoT

A

Internet of Things – wearable tech, home automation devices. Objects that must be connected to the internet (Ex. refrigerator, thermostat, apple watch)

66
Q

IPS logs

A

Can show attacks that may be attempting to exploit this vulnerability

67
Q

ISO

A

International Organization for Standardization - international standard development organization

68
Q

Isolation and containment (incident response)

A

During an incident, it’s useful to separate infected systems from the rest of the network

69
Q

Kerberos

A

Uses public-key cryptography to provide security during the authentication process. Uses a ticket-based system to securely provide SSO (Single Sign-On) functionality. You only need to authenticate once with Kerberos to gain access to multiple resources. Port 88

70
Q

Kernel Statistics

A

Stored in memory

71
Q

LDAPS

A

Lightweight Directory Access Protocol Secure or LDAPS over TLS - Standard for accessing a network directory. Can provide an authentication method, but it does not provide any single sign-on functionality

Port 636

72
Q

Lessons learned (incident response)

A

Once the event is over, it’s useful to revisit the process to learn and improve for next time

73
Q

MAC

A

Mandatory Access Control - allows access based on the security level assigned to an object. Only users with the object’s assigned security level or higher may access the resource.

74
Q

MAC filtering

A

Media access control filtering - Blocks traffic based on MAC addresses. This is a weak system because it’s easy to spoof MAC addresses. Device can see access point but will not be able to connect to it

75
Q

SSID Broadcast suppression

A

Service Set Identifier - Broadcast will hide the name from the list of available wireless networks. Properly configured client devices can still connect to the network wireless

76
Q

Master image

A

Used to quickly copy a server for easy deployment. This image will need to be updated and maintained to prevent the issues associated with unexpected vulnerabilities

77
Q

MD5

A

Hashing algorithm. Doesn’t provide a method of encrypting and decrypting info. Neither a symmetric nor asymmetric

78
Q

MDM

A

Mobile Device Manager – provides a centralized management system for all mobile devices

79
Q

MFD

A

Multi-function Devices – All in one printer

80
Q

Most common way a Trojan is delivered?

A

A download

81
Q

MTBF

A

Mean Time Between Failures – Prediction of how often a repairable system will fail

82
Q

MTTF

A

Mean Time to Failure – Expected lifetime of a non-repairable product or system.

83
Q

MTTR

A

Mean Time to Restore – Amount of time it takes to repair a component

84
Q

nbtstat

A

Command line tool. NetBIOS over TCP/IP statistics - used in Windows to send NetBIOS queries to other Windows devices

85
Q

netstat

A

Command Line tool. Provides a list of network statistics, and the default view shows the traffic sessions between the local device and other devices on the network

Displays network status and protocol statistics. You can display the status of TCP and UDP, routing table info, and interface info

86
Q

Nmap

A

Command line tool. Can query services and determine version numbers without any special rights or permissions, which makes it well suited for non-credentialed scans

Scans network that a computer is connected to and shows a list of ports, device names, operating systems, and several other identifiers that help the user understand the details behind their connection status.

Can be used by hackers to gain access to uncontrolled ports on a system

87
Q

Non-persistent

A

Stateless. Environment is always in motion, and application instances can be created, changed, or removed at any time. Desktop state is automatically destroyed at regular intervals. Depending on company policy, it could be at each logoff, every night, or even once a week. Nothing is saved

If you shut down computer, all your data remains as-is on your hard drive, you have persistence. If you shut down computer, all the contents of your computer’s memory are erased, that’s non-persistence. With the growth of automation and public cloud, non-persistence has become more important. With non-persistence, you can more easily automate

88
Q

Nonce

A

Random or semi-random number that is generated for a specific use. Adds additional randomization to a cryptographic function. This means that an authentication hash sent across the network will be different for each authentication request

Number used once

89
Q

Normalization

A

Used to check & correct input to an application. (Ex. A first name should not include numbers. If a first name was submitted with a number, the normalization process would correct the name or prompt for a correction)

90
Q

NTPsec

A

Network Time Protocol Secure – Used to sync the time across all devices on a network securely Port 4460 TCP

91
Q

Obfuscation

A

The process of making something normally understandable more difficult to understand

92
Q

Partition Data

A

A means of managing large amounts of data & controlling where it goes. (File System)

93
Q

PEAP

A

Protected Extensible Authentication Protocol – Extra security for EAP. Provides a method of authentication over a protected TLS tunnel for EAP

94
Q

Penetration test

A

Determines if a system can be exploited. Attempts to break system. Could cause a denial of service or loss of data, so the best practice is to perform the penetration test during non-production hours or in a test environment

95
Q

PHI

A

Protected Health Information – Healthcare data

96
Q

PII

A

Personally Identifiable Information - often associated with privacy and compliance concerns

97
Q

Polymorphic virus

A

Modifies itself each time it’s downloaded. Could potentially install a backdoor, but would not be able to activate without user intervention

Changes part of code

98
Q

Port Scan

A

Type of active reconnaissance determines, determines which ports on a network are open

99
Q

Precursors (incident response)

A

Log files and alerts can often warn you of potential problems

100
Q

Privacy Officer

A

Sets privacy policies and implements privacy processes and procedures

Responsible for oversight of any PII/SPI/PHI assets managed by the company

101
Q

Private Key

A

Asymmetric encryption, the private key is used to decrypt information that has been encrypted with the public key. To ensure continued access to the encrypted data, the company must have a copy of each private key

102
Q

Privilege Escalation

A

Attack that allows a user to exceed their normal rights and permissions…moves up

103
Q

Process Table

A

Keeps track of system process and stores info in ROM

104
Q

Protocol Analyzer

A

Can provide more detail about specific traffic flows

105
Q

Public Key

A

Asymmetric encryption, a public key is already available to everyone

106
Q

QA Testing

A

Quality Assurance testing - commonly used for finding bugs and verifying application functionality.

Checking for problems and making sure everything is going properly

107
Q

Race Conditions

A

Occurs when two processes occur at similar times, usually with unexpected results

108
Q

RADIUS Federation

A

Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service with federation - allows members of one organization to authenticate using the credentials of another organization. Federation allows you can link a user’s identity across multiple authentication systems. Uses 802.1X as the authentication method

109
Q

Rainbow Table Attack

A

Offline attack type built prior to an attack to match a specific password hashing technique…if a different hashing technique is used, a completely different rainbow table must be built. Not a useful method if passwords use salt

110
Q

RBAC

A

Role-based Access Control - assigns rights & permissions based on the role of a user. Administrators define the access that a particular role will have

111
Q

RC4

A

Encryption cipher, symmetric

112
Q

Redundant

A

Environment maintains the availability of the system if a problem occurs. This redundancy may need to be manually enabled if an issue is identified. Duplicating critical systems to provide fault tolerance

113
Q

Replay Attack

A

Captures information and then replays that information as the method of attack

114
Q

ROM data

A

Memory storage

115
Q

RTO

A

Recovery Time Objectives – Define a set of objectives needed to restore a particular service level

116
Q

RTOS

A

Real Time Operating System – Used in manufacturing and cars

117
Q

Running a virus scan does what?

A

A virus scan may identify and attempt to remove the malware, but there’s no guarantee that the anti-virus software can completely remove all of the malware

118
Q

S/MIME

A

Secure/Multipurpose Internet Mail Extensions - provides a way to integrate public key encryption and digital signatures into most modern email clients. This would encrypt all email information from client to client, regardless of the communication used between email servers

119
Q

SaaS

A

Software as a Service - Provides all the hardware, operating system, software, and applications needed for a complete service to be delivered

120
Q

Sandbox

A

Commonly used as a development environment. Used for testing

121
Q

Secure IMAP

A

Internet Message Access Protocol - encrypts communication downloaded from an email server, but it would not provide any security for outgoing email messages

Port 993

122
Q

Session keys

A

Commonly used temporarily to provide confidentiality during a single session. Once the session is complete, the keys are discarded. Not used to provide long-term data encryption

123
Q

SHA-2

A

Secure Hash Algorithm 2 - Hashing algorithm. Does not provide any encryption or decryption functionality. Neither a symmetric nor asymmetric

124
Q

SIEM

A

Security Information & Event Manager – Saves logs from devices and creates audit reports. Software provides real-time security analysis of systems, applications, and network hardware. Can generate alerts when issues arise

125
Q

SLE

A

Single Loss Expectancy - describes the financial impact of a single event.

126
Q

SNMPv3

A

Simple Management Network Protocol – Used to remotely monitor network devices. Provides secure access to devices by encrypting data packets over network. Uses encrypted communication to manage devices

Protocol for managing/monitoring devices over a network. Commonly used in monitoring tools to obtain device info such as model number, firmware and software versions, & configuration info. Version 3 adds cryptographic capabilities

127
Q

SoC

A

System/Software on a Chip – Multiple components that run on a single chip (Ex. robot vacuum)…used within embedded systems

128
Q

Spoofing

A

When a device pretends to be a different device or pretends to be something they aren’t

129
Q

SRTP

A

Secure Real-Time Transport Protocol/Secure RTP – Uses AES to encrypt the voice/video. Uses VoIP to make sure calls and videos are secure

130
Q

SSH

A

Secure Shell – Encrypted Terminal Communication, replaces Telnet. Uses symmetric and asymmetric encryption. Access switches using CLI terminal screen. Useful for encrypted terminal sessions. Port 22 TCP

131
Q

SSL/TLS certificate

A

Digital certificate that authenticates a website’s identity and enables an encrypted connection

132
Q

Tabletop Exercise

A

Allows a disaster recovery team to evaluate and plan disaster recovery processes without performing a full-scale drill

133
Q

TACACS+

A

Terminal Access Controller Access-Control System Plus - Cisco-proprietary remote authentication system. Common authentication method, but it does not provide any single sign-on functionality Port 49 Introduced as an alternative to RADIUS

134
Q

Temporary File System

A

Holds info temporarily while file is being created/modified. Stores, moves, and recovers lost data

135
Q

TLS

A

Transport Layer Security - commonly used for HTTPS (Hypertext Transfer Protocol Secure) and FTPS (File Transfer Protocol Secure), but it’s not used for SRTP traffic

Port 443

136
Q

TLS

A

Transport Layer Security - encryption mechanism that’s associated with web server communication. Uses public-key cryptography

137
Q

TOTP

A

Time-based One-Time Passwords

138
Q

TPM

A

Trusted Platform Module - used on individual devices to provide cryptographic functions and securely store encryption keys on motherboard.

139
Q

traceroute

A

Command line tool. Lists the route between devices and shows the IP address information of the routers at each hop.

Maps each hop by slowly incrementing the TTL (Time to Live) value during each request. When the TTL reaches zero, the receiving router drops the packet and sends an ICMP (Internet Control Message Protocol) TTL Exceeded message back to the original station

140
Q

dig

A

Commang line tool. Domain Information Groper - queries DNS servers for the fully qualified domain name and IP address information of other devices

141
Q

True Negative

A

Normal activity is identified as normal activity

142
Q

True Positive

A

Malicious activity is identified as an attack

143
Q

UEFI/BIOS

A

Unified Extensible Firmware Interface/Basic Input/Output System - Firmware that provides the computer instructions for how to accept input and send output

144
Q

UPS

A

Uninterruptible Power Supply - Combines the functionality of a surge protector with that of a battery backup

145
Q

UTM

A

Unified Threat Manager – watches traffic flows across the network. A single device that combines many other network security devices. Does not commonly manage the storage options on individual computers

146
Q

VDI

A

Virtual Desktop Infrastructure – refers to the use of virtual machines to provide and manage virtual desktops. Allows a cloud provider to offer a full desktop operating system to an end user from a centralized server

147
Q

VMI

A

Virtual Mobile Infrastructure - allows access to applications from many different types of devices without the requirement of a mobile device management or concern about corporate data on the devices

Allows organizations to host their mobile apps on servers and provide personalized, remote access to their apps from any device

148
Q

VPN Full Tunneling

A

ALL traffic is sent through encrypted tunnel

149
Q

VPN Split tunneling

A

VPN configuration that only sends a portion of the traffic through the encrypted tunnel. A split tunnel would allow work-related traffic to securely traverse the VPN, and all other traffic would use the non-tunneled option

150
Q

Vulnerability Scan

A

Scans for vulnerability, does not try to exploit vulnerability. Will minimize potential for any downtime or data loss.
Vulnerability scanner can check the status of a vulnerability on a device and create a report of which devices may be susceptible to a particular vulnerability

151
Q

WAF

A

Web Application Firewall - commonly used to monitor the input to web-based applications

152
Q

Web server issues relating to trust are generally associated with the status of?

A

The web server certificate

153
Q

What does it mean to reimage a computer?

A

Completely wiping the drive with a new image is an effective way to completely remove any malware from a computer

154
Q

What will segment a network without requiring additional switches?

A

VLANs (Virtual Local Area Networks)

155
Q

Wiping

A

Process that deletes information off of a hard drive

156
Q

WPA2

A

Wi-Fi Protected Access 2 - encryption with AES, common encryption method for wireless networks

157
Q

WPA2-PSK

A

Wi-Fi Protected Access -Preshared Key - shared password

AES-based encryption protocol

158
Q

WPS

A

Wi-Fi Protected Setup - connects users to a wireless network using a shared PIN

Sec+ (7 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions