Study Questions Part 1 Flashcards
What are the four basic tissues of the human body?
epithelial, muscle, neural & connective tissue
What is the function of each type of bone cells?
osteoblast- form bone; osteocyte- maintain or nurture bone; osteoclast- remodel bone
What is the primary constituent of the ground substance?
glycosaminoglycans
What is the principle type of protein in bone?
collagen type 1
What is the most frequently described deposit in bone?
hydroxyapatite
What is wolff’s Law as it pertains to bone?
living tissue will respond to stressors; bone is formed or absorbed in response to stress
What are the three responses of bone that allow it to be described as “living”?
it has the ability to heal, to remodel under stressors and to age
What is bone the embryological derivative of?
mesenchyme or cartilage
What is the name given to the pattern of ossification in mesenchyme?
intramembranous ossification
What is the timing for the appearance of intramembranous ossification?
from the second to third month in utero
What is the timing for the appearance of ossification in cartilage?
from the second to fifth month in utero
What part of the skull is derived from endochondral ossification?
chondrocranium
Which bone of the appendicular skeleton is formed by both endochondral and intramembranous ossification?
the clavicle
What are the primary sources of variation observed in bone?
sexual dimorphism (gender variation), ontogenetic variation (growth or age variation), geographic or population-based variation (ethnic variation) and idiosyncratic variation (individual variation)
What are the six more commonly used classifications of normal bone?
long bones, short bones, flat bones, irregular bones, paranasal sinus or pneumatic bones and sesamoid bones
What are the classifications given to abnormal bone stressed in Spinal II?
heterotopic and accessory bone
What is the name given to bone formed in a non-bone location?
heterotopic bone
What is the name given to bone formed from existing bone?
Accessory bone
What is the characteristic feature of a long bone?
it is longer than it is across (length greater than breadth)
What are the names given to the parts of the a long bone?
the diaphysis (shaft) and typically two epiphyses (extremities)
What is the primary characteristic of short bones?
they are essentially cuboidal
What are the examples of short bones?
most of the bones of the carpus and tarsus
What are examples of flat bones?
the parietal bone and sternum
What are examples of pneumatic bone?
frontal, ethmoid, maxilla, sphenoid, & temporal
What is the characteristic of sesamoid bones?
the bone develops within a tendon
what are consistent examples of sesamoid bones?
patella and pisiform
What are examples of heterotopic bone?
calcific deposits in the pineal gland, heart, and ligaments
What are examples of accessory bones?
para-articular processes and bony spurs of vertebrae
What are the four basic surfaces feature categories?
elevations, depressions, tunnels or passageways & facets
When do the surface features of bone become prominent?
during and after puberty
What are the types of osseous linear elevation?
the line, ridge and crest
What are the types of rounded osseous elevations?
tubercle, protuberance, trochanter, tuber, or tuberosity and malleolus
What are the categories of sharp osseous elevations?
spine and process
What are the categories of osseous depressions?
linear and rounded depressions
What are the categories of osseous linear depressions?
notch or incisure, groove, and sulcus
What are the categories of rounded osseous depressions?
the fovea and fossa
What are the names given to openings on the surface of bone?
ostium or orifice and hiatus
What are the names given to osseous ostia which completely penetrate bone?
foramen or canal
What is the definition of an osseous foramen?
an ostium passing completely through a thin region of bone
What is the definition of an osseous canal?
an ostium passing completely through a thick region of bone
What is the name given to an ostium which does not completely penetrate through a region of bone but appears as a blind ended passageway?
meatus
What is the definition of an osseous fissure
an irregular slit-like or crack-like appearance between the surfaces of adjacent bones
What are the categories of osseous facets?
flat facets and rounded facets
What are the categories of rounded osseous facets?
articular heads and articular condyles
What bones form the axial skeleton?
the skull, hyoid, vertebral column, sternum and ribs
What is the name given to the adult skull minus the mandible?
the cranium
What are the names given to the top of the adult skull?
the calvaria or calva
What are the categories of bone forming the typical adult skull?
the neurocranium, the facial skeleton (splanchnocranium or visceral skeleton) and the auditory ossicles
What is the total number of bones forming the typical adult skull?
28 bones
What bones form the neurocranium of a typical adult skull?
the frontal, parietal, temporal, occipital, sphenoid and ethmoid
How many bones form the typical adult neurocranium?
8 bones
How many bones form the facial skeleton (splanchnocranium or visceral skeleton?
14 bones
What is the name given to the presacral region of the typical adult vertebral column or spinal column?
the spine
What is the total number of bones forming the typical adult spine?
24 bones
How many bones are present in the typical adult sternum?
1 bone
What regions are present along the typical adult sternum?
the manubrim sterni, the corpus sterni and the xiphoid process
How many ribs are present in the typical adult skeleton?
12 pair or 24 ribs
What term is used to identify the study of ligaments?
syndesmology
What are the three histological classifications of joints?
fibrous, cartilaginous and synovial fluid
The ligamentous sacra-iliac joints (or most of the ligamentous joints of the vertebral column) are examples of which joint classification?
syndesmosis
What are the characteristics of the (amphiarthrosis) synchondrosis?
they are primary cartilage joints, temporary in longevity, composed of hyaline cartilage and form between ossification centers within a cartilage template
What are examples of a permanent (amphiarthrosis) synchondrosis?
costochondral joints or the first sternochondral joint
What are the characteristics of a (amphiarthrosis) symphysis?
limited motion, median plane location, support ligaments both anterior and posterior to the join, more permanent in longevity than synchondrosis and they occur between bones developing by endochondral ossification
Which example of a (amphiarthrosis) symphysis is temporary?
symphysis menti
What are the four consistent features of synovial (diarthrosis) joints?
articular or fibrous capsule, synovial membrane, articular cartilage and synovial fluid
What are the characteristics of the type 1 articular receptors?
located in the superficial layer of the fibrous capsule, resemble Ruffini endings, most numerous in cervical zygapophyses and they monitor the joint “at rest”
What are the characteristics of type II articular receptors?
located in deeper strata of the fibrous capsule, resemble Pacinian corpuscles, most numerous in the cervical spine and monitor the joint during normal range of motion
What are the characteristics of type III articular receptors?
Present in collateral and intrinsic ligaments, resembles Golgi tendon organs, not initially observed along the vertebral column and monitor extreme joint motion
What is the function of type IV articular receptors?
nociceptive, they monitor pain
Type IVb articular receptors would be present in what locations?
accessory ligaments in general, dense in the posterior longitudinal ligament of the spine
What are the three modifications of the articular synovial membrane?
1) synovial villi, 2) articular fat pads or Haversian glands, 3) synovial menisci and intra-articular discs
Articular fat pads are most numerous in what location along the vertebral column?
lumbar zygapophyses
Intra-articular discs are a feature of what joint examples?
temporomandibular, sternoclavicular, acromioclavicular, and radio-ulnar joints
Synovial menisci are a feature of what joint examples
femur-tibia articulation, cervical zygapophyses and lumbar zygapophyses
What are the layers of the synovial membrane
outer fibrous layer and an inner (lumenal) cellular AKA synovial lamina intima
What are the specific functions of type A synovial cells?
are phagocytic
What is the specific function of type B synovial cells?
secrete proteinaceous substances and hyaluronic acid
Which collagen fiber typer predominates in articular cartilage?
type II
What is the primary function of bound glycosaminoglycans in articular cartilage?
form a network for water retention
What is implied when cartilage is said to have elastic properties?
Cartilage can deform and return to original volume rapidly, a time independent property
What is implied when cartilage is said to have viscoelastic properties?
cartilage can deform but returns to original volume slowly, a time dependent property
What theory of joint lubrication implies a loss of fluid from cartilage into the joint space during compression results in increased viscosity of the synovial fluid?
weeping theory
Which theory of joint lubrication implies water loss from synovial fluid increases viscosity of the remaining synovial fluid?
boosted theory
Which theory of joint lubrication implies an adsorption of lubricant onto cartilage surfaces is responsible for the low-friction observed during movement?
boundary theory
What are the properties of synovial fluid?
it is yellow-white, viscous, slightly alkaline and tastes salty
Which substance in synovial fluid was first thought to be responsible for its viscosity and lubricating behavior?
hyaluronate
What substance in synovial fluid has been proposed to be responsible for its viscosity and lubricating behavior?
lubricin
What is a complex synovial joint (diarthrosis)
within the simple joint or compound joint, the articulating surfaces are separated by an articular disc (intra-articular disc) or meniscus
What morphological classification of synovial joints is classified as uniaxial?
hinge (diarthrosis ginglymus) and pivot (diarthrosis trochoid)
What morphological classification of synovial joints is classified as non axial?
plane (diarthrosis arthrodial)
What morphological classification of synovial joints is classified as biaxial?
(diarthrosis) bicondylar, (diarthrosis) condylar, (diarthrosis) ellipsoidal and saddle (diarthrosis sellar)
What morphological classification of synovial joints is classified as multiaxial?
ball and socket (diarthrosis enarthrosis), (diarthrosis spheroidal), (diarthrosis cotyloid) are all classifications given to the same type of joint
What are the examples of synovial pivot (diarthrosis trochoid) joints?
median atlanto-axial joint and osteo-ligamentous ring
What are examples of diarthrosis condylar or diarthrosis bicondylar joints?
tempromandibular joint and femur-tibia joint of the knee
What are examples of diarthrosis ellipsoidal joints?
radiocarpal joint of the wrist, metacarpi-phalangeal joints of the hand, metatarsal-phalangeal joints of the foot and the atlanto-occipital joint of the vertebral column
What are examples of synovial saddle (diarthrosis sellar) joints?
carpometacarpal joint of the thumb, talocrural joint of the ankle and the calcaneocuboid joint of the foot
What are examples of diarthrosis cotyloid joints?
femur-acetabulum of the innominate articulation at the hip and humerus- glenoid cavity of the scapula articulation at the shoulder
What is the number of vertebrae in a typical adolescent
33 segments
What is the number of vertebrae in a typical adult
26 segments
What constitutes the spine?
the 24 pre sacral segments; the cervical, thoracic and lumbar vertebrae
Which mammals have more than seven cervical vertebrae?
the ant bear and three toed sloth
Which mammals have less than seven cervical vertebrae?
the manatee and two-toed sloth
What does the term “cervical” refer to?
the region of the neck
What does the term “thoracic” refer to?
breast plate or chest; it referred to the armor bearing region of the torso
What other term is often used to identify the vertebral segments of the chest?
the dorsal segments; the dorsals
What does the term “lumbar” refer to?
the loin; the region between the rib and hip
What does the term “sacrum” refer to?
the holy bone, or the holy region
What does the term “coccyx” refer to?
a cuckoo birds’ bill or cuckoo birds’ beak
What is the length of a typical male spinal column?
about 70 centimeters or 28 inches
What is the length of a typical female spinal column?
about 60 centimeters or 25 inches
What is the length difference between a typical male and typical female spinal column?
about 3 inches
What is the length of the male cervical region?
about 12 centimeters or 5 inches
What is the length of the male thoracic region?
about 28 centimeters or 11 inches
What is the length of the male lumbar region?
about 18 centimeters or 7 inches
What is the length of the male sacrum?
about 12 centimeters or 5 inches
Based on the numbers for individual regions of the vertebral column, what is the length of the male spine?
about 58 centimeter or 23 inches
How does the vertebral column participate in skeletal formation?
ribs are formed from the costal process of the embryonic vertebral template
What levels of the vertebral column specifically accommodate weight-bearing transfer?
S1-S3 at the auricular surface
What is specifically responsible for the shape and position of the human frame?
comparative anterior vs posterior height of the vertebral body and comparative anterior vs. posterior height of the intervertebral disc
What organ(s) is (are) specifically associated with the horizontal axis of the skull?
the eye and the vestibular apparatus of the inner ear
Invagination of ectoderm along the primitive streak gives rise to what embryonic structure?
notochord
What is the name given to the mesoderm that will give rise to the vertebral column?
paraxial mesoderm?
Name the areas of the cellular differentiation formed within the somite?
sclerotome, myotome and dermatome
What are the names of the successive vertebral columns formed during development?
membranous, cartilaginous, skeletal or osseous
Migration of a somite pair to surround the notochord forms what developmental feature?
the perichordal blastema
The perichordal blastema gives rise to what processes?
neural processes and costal processes
What is the name of the artery located between adjacent perichordal blastemae?
intersegmental artery
What forms between the sclerotomites of a perichordal blastema?
the intrasclerotomal fissure (fissure of von Ebner)
The intrasclerotomal fissure (fissure of von Ebner) gives rise to what developmental feature?
the perichordal disc
The union of a dense caudal sclerotomite and a loose sclerotomite from adjacent perichordal blastema gives rise to what feature?
the vertebral blastema
What vessel will be identified adjacent to the vertebral blastema?
the segmental artery
When will cartilage first form in the membranous vertebral blastema?
beginning in the 6th embryonic week
What is the name given to the replacement of mesoderm by cartilage?
chondrification
How many centers of chondrification typically appear in the vertebral blastema?
six… 2 for the cetrum, 2 for the neural arches, 2 for each transverse process
What is the ear lies time that centers of ossification appear in cartilaginous vertebra?
during the 7th embryonic week
What is the name given to centers of ossification based on time of appearance?
primary centers appear in utero, and secondary centers appear after birth
What is the ratio of primary to secondary centers of ossification for a typical vertebrae?
3 primary centers: 5 secondary centers
What are the names of the primary centers of ossification for a typical vertebra?
centrum centers and neural arch centers
What are the names/locations of the five secondary centers of ossification for a typical vertebra?
tip of transverse process, tip of the spinous process, epiphyseal plate centers
What is the range of appearance for secondary centers of ossification of a typical vertebra?
during puberty, typically ages 11-16 years old
What is the general shape of the vertebral body at each region of the spine?
cervicle- rectangular; thoracic- triangular; lumbar- reniform
What is the name given to the compact bone at the superior and inferior surfaces of the vertebral body?
superior epiphyseal rim, inferior epiphyseal rim
What is the name given to the intermediate part of the vertebral arch where the transverse process and the articular processes attach?
the lamina- pedicle junction
What is the generic orientation of the pedicle at each region of the spine?
cervical- posterolateral
thoracic- posterior, slight lateral
lumbar- posterior
What ligament will attach to the lamina?
the ligamentum flavum
What is the name given to abnormal bone at the attachment site of the ligamentum flavum?
para-articular process
What classification of bone will para- articular process represent?
accessory bone
What is the name given to the overlap of lamina on X-ray?
shingling
What is the name given to the junction of the vertebral arch- spinous process on lateral X-ray?
the spinolaminar junction
What is the name given to the lamina- pedicle junction at each region of the spine?
cervical- articular pillar; thoracic and lumbar- pars interarticularis
What is the generic orientation of the transverse process or transverse apophysis at each region of the spine?
cervical- anterolateral; thoracic- posterolateral; lumbar- lateral
All non- rib-bearing vertebra of the spine train what equivalent feature?
the costal element
What will cause the transverse process/ transverse apophysis to alter its initial direction in the cervical region?
cervical spinal nerves are pulled forward to form the cervical and brachial nerve plexuses thus remodeling the transverse process to accommodate their new position
What will cause the transverse process/ transverse apophysis to alter its initial direction in the thoraces region?
the growth of the lungs remodel the shape of the ribs which in turn push the transverse processes backward
What is the name given to the joint formed between articular facets of a vertebral couple?
the zygapophysis
What will form the posterior boundary of a typical intervertebral foramen?
the inferior articular process/ post-zygapophysis, the superior articular process/ pre-zygapophysis, the capsular ligament, and the ligamentum flavum
What will form the superior boundary of a typical intervertebral foramen?
the inferior vertebral notch or inferior vertebral incisure
What will form the inferior boundary of a typical intervertebral foramen?
the superior vertebral notch or superior vertebral incisure
What will form the anterior boundary of a typical intervertebral foramen?
the vertebral body of the segment above, the vertebral body of the segment below, the intervertebral disc, and the posterior longitudinal ligament
What is the method of calculating the angle of the spinous process/spinous apophysis?
calculate the angle formed between the undersurface of the spinous process/ spinous apophysis and the horizontal plate
What is the name given to the normal overlap of the spinous process or spinous apophyses as seen on an X-ray?
imbrication
What is the orientation of the spinous processes/spinous apophysis ate each region of the spine?
cervical- slight angle inferiorly
thoracic- noticeably angle inferiorly
lumbar- no inferior angle
What is the typical shape/ outline of the vertebral foramen at each region of the spinal column/ vertebral column?
cervical- triangular; thoracic- oval; lumbar- triangular; sacrum- triangular
At what vertebral level with the spinal cord typically terminate?
L1
At what vertebral level will the dural sac typically terminate?
S2
What are the segmental arteries of the cervical spine?
the vertebral artery, ascending cervical artery and deep cervical artery
What are the segmental arteries of thoracic spine?
the deep cervical artery, superior (highest) intercostal artery, posterior intercostal artery and subcostal artery
What are the segmental arteries of the lumbar spine?
the lumbar arteries, iliolumbar artery, lateral sacral artery and median (middle) sacral artery
What are the segmental arteries of the fifth lumbar vertebra?
the iliolumbar artery, lateral sacral artery, and median (middle) sacral artery
What are the segmental arteries of the sacrum?
the iliolumbar artery, lateral sacral artery, and median (middle) sacral artery
what segmental levels are supplied by the vertebral artery?
C1-C6
What segmental levels are supplied by the ascending cervical artery?
C1-C6
What segmental a levels are supplied by the deep cervical artery?
C7-T1
What segmental levels are supplied by the superior (highest) intercostal artery?
T1, T2
What segmental levels are supplied by the posterior intercostal artery?
T3-T11
What segmental level(s) is/are supplied by the subcostal artery?
T12
What segmental levels are supplied by the lumbar arteries?
L1-L4
What segmental levels are supplied by the median (middle) sacral artery?
L5, S1-S5 and coccyx
What segmental levels are supplied by the iliolumbar artery?
L5, S1-S5 and coccyx
Which vertebra has the greatest number of segmental arteries associated with it?
L5
What are the segmental arteries for L5?
iliolumbar artery, median (middle) sacral artery, and lateral sacral artery
Identify the meninges of the spinal cord (spinal medulla or medulla spinals)
dura mater, arachnoid mater, pia mater
What is the name given to the fluid within the epidural space?
interstitial fluid
Which meningeal space is now thought to be a potential space, not an actual space?
subdural space- between the dura mater and the arachnoid mater
What is the name given to the fluid within the subdural space?
serous fluid
What is the name given to the fluid within the subarachnoid space?
cerebrospinal fluid
What branch of the segmental artery supplies the vertebra and the paravertebral region?
dorsospinal artery
Which artery is primarily observed in the distal part of the intervertebral foramen?
spinal artery
Which branch of the dorsospinal arteries will penetrate the meninges to enter the subarachnoid space?
spinal artery
What are the branches of the spinal artery?
osseous arteries, anterior spinal canal artery, posterior spinal canal artery, anterior medullary feeder artery, posterior medullary feeder artery, anterior radicular artery, and posterior radicular
What branches of the spinal artery supply the contents of the epidural space?
osseous arteries, anterior spinal canal artery, and posterior spinal canal artery
What arteries are observed in the epidural space near the posterior longitudinal ligament?
anterior spinal canal artery & plexus
What arteries are observed in the epidural space near the ligamentum flavum?
posterior spinal canal artery & plexus
Which branches of the spinal artery supply the contents of the subarachnoid space?
anterior medullary feeder artery, posterior medullary feeder artery, anterior radicular artery, and posterior radicular
Which vessel will supply the ventral/ anterior nerve rootlet and nerve root?
anterior radicular artery
Which vessel will supply the dorsal/ posterior nerve rootlets, nerve root and nerve root ganglion?
posterior radicular artery
What forms the arterial vasa corona below C6?
a median anterior spinal artery, right and left posterior spinal arteries, and 3 communicating arteries
What is the generic name oven to the arteries that penetrate the spinal cord?
intramedullary arteries
What are the intramedullary branches of the arterial vasa corona?
pial perforating arteries, central/ventral/sulcal perforating arteries
What arterial vasa corona branches supply gray matter and most of the spinal cord?
central/ventral/sulcal perforating arteries
What intramedullary branches supply about one third of the spinal cord?
pial perforating arteries
What is the source for the pial perorating arteries?
pial plexus
What is the primary artery supplementing the arterial vasa corona?
anterior medullary feeders and posterior medullary feeders
