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Spinal Anatomy > Study Questions Part 1 > Flashcards

Study Questions Part 1 Flashcards

1
Q

What are the four basic tissues of the human body?

A

epithelial, muscle, neural & connective tissue

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2
Q

What is the function of each type of bone cells?

A

osteoblast- form bone; osteocyte- maintain or nurture bone; osteoclast- remodel bone

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3
Q

What is the primary constituent of the ground substance?

A

glycosaminoglycans

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4
Q

What is the principle type of protein in bone?

A

collagen type 1

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5
Q

What is the most frequently described deposit in bone?

A

hydroxyapatite

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6
Q

What is wolff’s Law as it pertains to bone?

A

living tissue will respond to stressors; bone is formed or absorbed in response to stress

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7
Q

What are the three responses of bone that allow it to be described as “living”?

A

it has the ability to heal, to remodel under stressors and to age

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8
Q

What is bone the embryological derivative of?

A

mesenchyme or cartilage

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9
Q

What is the name given to the pattern of ossification in mesenchyme?

A

intramembranous ossification

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10
Q

What is the timing for the appearance of intramembranous ossification?

A

from the second to third month in utero

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11
Q

What is the timing for the appearance of ossification in cartilage?

A

from the second to fifth month in utero

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12
Q

What part of the skull is derived from endochondral ossification?

A

chondrocranium

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13
Q

Which bone of the appendicular skeleton is formed by both endochondral and intramembranous ossification?

A

the clavicle

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14
Q

What are the primary sources of variation observed in bone?

A

sexual dimorphism (gender variation), ontogenetic variation (growth or age variation), geographic or population-based variation (ethnic variation) and idiosyncratic variation (individual variation)

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15
Q

What are the six more commonly used classifications of normal bone?

A

long bones, short bones, flat bones, irregular bones, paranasal sinus or pneumatic bones and sesamoid bones

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16
Q

What are the classifications given to abnormal bone stressed in Spinal II?

A

heterotopic and accessory bone

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17
Q

What is the name given to bone formed in a non-bone location?

A

heterotopic bone

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18
Q

What is the name given to bone formed from existing bone?

A

Accessory bone

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19
Q

What is the characteristic feature of a long bone?

A

it is longer than it is across (length greater than breadth)

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20
Q

What are the names given to the parts of the a long bone?

A

the diaphysis (shaft) and typically two epiphyses (extremities)

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21
Q

What is the primary characteristic of short bones?

A

they are essentially cuboidal

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22
Q

What are the examples of short bones?

A

most of the bones of the carpus and tarsus

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23
Q

What are examples of flat bones?

A

the parietal bone and sternum

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24
Q

What are examples of pneumatic bone?

A

frontal, ethmoid, maxilla, sphenoid, & temporal

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25
Q

What is the characteristic of sesamoid bones?

A

the bone develops within a tendon

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26
Q

what are consistent examples of sesamoid bones?

A

patella and pisiform

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27
Q

What are examples of heterotopic bone?

A

calcific deposits in the pineal gland, heart, and ligaments

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28
Q

What are examples of accessory bones?

A

para-articular processes and bony spurs of vertebrae

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29
Q

What are the four basic surfaces feature categories?

A

elevations, depressions, tunnels or passageways & facets

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30
Q

When do the surface features of bone become prominent?

A

during and after puberty

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31
Q

What are the types of osseous linear elevation?

A

the line, ridge and crest

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32
Q

What are the types of rounded osseous elevations?

A

tubercle, protuberance, trochanter, tuber, or tuberosity and malleolus

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33
Q

What are the categories of sharp osseous elevations?

A

spine and process

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34
Q

What are the categories of osseous depressions?

A

linear and rounded depressions

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35
Q

What are the categories of osseous linear depressions?

A

notch or incisure, groove, and sulcus

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36
Q

What are the categories of rounded osseous depressions?

A

the fovea and fossa

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37
Q

What are the names given to openings on the surface of bone?

A

ostium or orifice and hiatus

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38
Q

What are the names given to osseous ostia which completely penetrate bone?

A

foramen or canal

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39
Q

What is the definition of an osseous foramen?

A

an ostium passing completely through a thin region of bone

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40
Q

What is the definition of an osseous canal?

A

an ostium passing completely through a thick region of bone

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41
Q

What is the name given to an ostium which does not completely penetrate through a region of bone but appears as a blind ended passageway?

A

meatus

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42
Q

What is the definition of an osseous fissure

A

an irregular slit-like or crack-like appearance between the surfaces of adjacent bones

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43
Q

What are the categories of osseous facets?

A

flat facets and rounded facets

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44
Q

What are the categories of rounded osseous facets?

A

articular heads and articular condyles

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45
Q

What bones form the axial skeleton?

A

the skull, hyoid, vertebral column, sternum and ribs

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46
Q

What is the name given to the adult skull minus the mandible?

A

the cranium

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47
Q

What are the names given to the top of the adult skull?

A

the calvaria or calva

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48
Q

What are the categories of bone forming the typical adult skull?

A

the neurocranium, the facial skeleton (splanchnocranium or visceral skeleton) and the auditory ossicles

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49
Q

What is the total number of bones forming the typical adult skull?

A

28 bones

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50
Q

What bones form the neurocranium of a typical adult skull?

A

the frontal, parietal, temporal, occipital, sphenoid and ethmoid

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51
Q

How many bones form the typical adult neurocranium?

A

8 bones

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52
Q

How many bones form the facial skeleton (splanchnocranium or visceral skeleton?

A

14 bones

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53
Q

What is the name given to the presacral region of the typical adult vertebral column or spinal column?

A

the spine

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54
Q

What is the total number of bones forming the typical adult spine?

A

24 bones

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55
Q

How many bones are present in the typical adult sternum?

A

1 bone

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56
Q

What regions are present along the typical adult sternum?

A

the manubrim sterni, the corpus sterni and the xiphoid process

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57
Q

How many ribs are present in the typical adult skeleton?

A

12 pair or 24 ribs

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58
Q

What term is used to identify the study of ligaments?

A

syndesmology

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59
Q

What are the three histological classifications of joints?

A

fibrous, cartilaginous and synovial fluid

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60
Q

The ligamentous sacra-iliac joints (or most of the ligamentous joints of the vertebral column) are examples of which joint classification?

A

syndesmosis

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61
Q

What are the characteristics of the (amphiarthrosis) synchondrosis?

A

they are primary cartilage joints, temporary in longevity, composed of hyaline cartilage and form between ossification centers within a cartilage template

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62
Q

What are examples of a permanent (amphiarthrosis) synchondrosis?

A

costochondral joints or the first sternochondral joint

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63
Q

What are the characteristics of a (amphiarthrosis) symphysis?

A

limited motion, median plane location, support ligaments both anterior and posterior to the join, more permanent in longevity than synchondrosis and they occur between bones developing by endochondral ossification

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64
Q

Which example of a (amphiarthrosis) symphysis is temporary?

A

symphysis menti

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65
Q

What are the four consistent features of synovial (diarthrosis) joints?

A

articular or fibrous capsule, synovial membrane, articular cartilage and synovial fluid

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66
Q

What are the characteristics of the type 1 articular receptors?

A

located in the superficial layer of the fibrous capsule, resemble Ruffini endings, most numerous in cervical zygapophyses and they monitor the joint “at rest”

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67
Q

What are the characteristics of type II articular receptors?

A

located in deeper strata of the fibrous capsule, resemble Pacinian corpuscles, most numerous in the cervical spine and monitor the joint during normal range of motion

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68
Q

What are the characteristics of type III articular receptors?

A

Present in collateral and intrinsic ligaments, resembles Golgi tendon organs, not initially observed along the vertebral column and monitor extreme joint motion

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69
Q

What is the function of type IV articular receptors?

A

nociceptive, they monitor pain

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70
Q

Type IVb articular receptors would be present in what locations?

A

accessory ligaments in general, dense in the posterior longitudinal ligament of the spine

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71
Q

What are the three modifications of the articular synovial membrane?

A

1) synovial villi, 2) articular fat pads or Haversian glands, 3) synovial menisci and intra-articular discs

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72
Q

Articular fat pads are most numerous in what location along the vertebral column?

A

lumbar zygapophyses

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73
Q

Intra-articular discs are a feature of what joint examples?

A

temporomandibular, sternoclavicular, acromioclavicular, and radio-ulnar joints

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74
Q

Synovial menisci are a feature of what joint examples

A

femur-tibia articulation, cervical zygapophyses and lumbar zygapophyses

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75
Q

What are the layers of the synovial membrane

A

outer fibrous layer and an inner (lumenal) cellular AKA synovial lamina intima

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76
Q

What are the specific functions of type A synovial cells?

A

are phagocytic

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77
Q

What is the specific function of type B synovial cells?

A

secrete proteinaceous substances and hyaluronic acid

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78
Q

Which collagen fiber typer predominates in articular cartilage?

A

type II

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79
Q

What is the primary function of bound glycosaminoglycans in articular cartilage?

A

form a network for water retention

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80
Q

What is implied when cartilage is said to have elastic properties?

A

Cartilage can deform and return to original volume rapidly, a time independent property

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81
Q

What is implied when cartilage is said to have viscoelastic properties?

A

cartilage can deform but returns to original volume slowly, a time dependent property

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82
Q

What theory of joint lubrication implies a loss of fluid from cartilage into the joint space during compression results in increased viscosity of the synovial fluid?

A

weeping theory

83
Q

Which theory of joint lubrication implies water loss from synovial fluid increases viscosity of the remaining synovial fluid?

A

boosted theory

84
Q

Which theory of joint lubrication implies an adsorption of lubricant onto cartilage surfaces is responsible for the low-friction observed during movement?

A

boundary theory

85
Q

What are the properties of synovial fluid?

A

it is yellow-white, viscous, slightly alkaline and tastes salty

86
Q

Which substance in synovial fluid was first thought to be responsible for its viscosity and lubricating behavior?

A

hyaluronate

87
Q

What substance in synovial fluid has been proposed to be responsible for its viscosity and lubricating behavior?

A

lubricin

88
Q

What is a complex synovial joint (diarthrosis)

A

within the simple joint or compound joint, the articulating surfaces are separated by an articular disc (intra-articular disc) or meniscus

89
Q

What morphological classification of synovial joints is classified as uniaxial?

A

hinge (diarthrosis ginglymus) and pivot (diarthrosis trochoid)

90
Q

What morphological classification of synovial joints is classified as non axial?

A

plane (diarthrosis arthrodial)

91
Q

What morphological classification of synovial joints is classified as biaxial?

A

(diarthrosis) bicondylar, (diarthrosis) condylar, (diarthrosis) ellipsoidal and saddle (diarthrosis sellar)

92
Q

What morphological classification of synovial joints is classified as multiaxial?

A

ball and socket (diarthrosis enarthrosis), (diarthrosis spheroidal), (diarthrosis cotyloid) are all classifications given to the same type of joint

93
Q

What are the examples of synovial pivot (diarthrosis trochoid) joints?

A

median atlanto-axial joint and osteo-ligamentous ring

94
Q

What are examples of diarthrosis condylar or diarthrosis bicondylar joints?

A

tempromandibular joint and femur-tibia joint of the knee

95
Q

What are examples of diarthrosis ellipsoidal joints?

A

radiocarpal joint of the wrist, metacarpi-phalangeal joints of the hand, metatarsal-phalangeal joints of the foot and the atlanto-occipital joint of the vertebral column

96
Q

What are examples of synovial saddle (diarthrosis sellar) joints?

A

carpometacarpal joint of the thumb, talocrural joint of the ankle and the calcaneocuboid joint of the foot

97
Q

What are examples of diarthrosis cotyloid joints?

A

femur-acetabulum of the innominate articulation at the hip and humerus- glenoid cavity of the scapula articulation at the shoulder

98
Q

What is the number of vertebrae in a typical adolescent

A

33 segments

99
Q

What is the number of vertebrae in a typical adult

A

26 segments

100
Q

What constitutes the spine?

A

the 24 pre sacral segments; the cervical, thoracic and lumbar vertebrae

101
Q

Which mammals have more than seven cervical vertebrae?

A

the ant bear and three toed sloth

102
Q

Which mammals have less than seven cervical vertebrae?

A

the manatee and two-toed sloth

103
Q

What does the term “cervical” refer to?

A

the region of the neck

104
Q

What does the term “thoracic” refer to?

A

breast plate or chest; it referred to the armor bearing region of the torso

105
Q

What other term is often used to identify the vertebral segments of the chest?

A

the dorsal segments; the dorsals

106
Q

What does the term “lumbar” refer to?

A

the loin; the region between the rib and hip

107
Q

What does the term “sacrum” refer to?

A

the holy bone, or the holy region

108
Q

What does the term “coccyx” refer to?

A

a cuckoo birds’ bill or cuckoo birds’ beak

109
Q

What is the length of a typical male spinal column?

A

about 70 centimeters or 28 inches

110
Q

What is the length of a typical female spinal column?

A

about 60 centimeters or 25 inches

111
Q

What is the length difference between a typical male and typical female spinal column?

A

about 3 inches

112
Q

What is the length of the male cervical region?

A

about 12 centimeters or 5 inches

113
Q

What is the length of the male thoracic region?

A

about 28 centimeters or 11 inches

114
Q

What is the length of the male lumbar region?

A

about 18 centimeters or 7 inches

115
Q

What is the length of the male sacrum?

A

about 12 centimeters or 5 inches

116
Q

Based on the numbers for individual regions of the vertebral column, what is the length of the male spine?

A

about 58 centimeter or 23 inches

117
Q

How does the vertebral column participate in skeletal formation?

A

ribs are formed from the costal process of the embryonic vertebral template

118
Q

What levels of the vertebral column specifically accommodate weight-bearing transfer?

A

S1-S3 at the auricular surface

119
Q

What is specifically responsible for the shape and position of the human frame?

A

comparative anterior vs posterior height of the vertebral body and comparative anterior vs. posterior height of the intervertebral disc

120
Q

What organ(s) is (are) specifically associated with the horizontal axis of the skull?

A

the eye and the vestibular apparatus of the inner ear

121
Q

Invagination of ectoderm along the primitive streak gives rise to what embryonic structure?

A

notochord

122
Q

What is the name given to the mesoderm that will give rise to the vertebral column?

A

paraxial mesoderm?

123
Q

Name the areas of the cellular differentiation formed within the somite?

A

sclerotome, myotome and dermatome

124
Q

What are the names of the successive vertebral columns formed during development?

A

membranous, cartilaginous, skeletal or osseous

125
Q

Migration of a somite pair to surround the notochord forms what developmental feature?

A

the perichordal blastema

126
Q

The perichordal blastema gives rise to what processes?

A

neural processes and costal processes

127
Q

What is the name of the artery located between adjacent perichordal blastemae?

A

intersegmental artery

128
Q

What forms between the sclerotomites of a perichordal blastema?

A

the intrasclerotomal fissure (fissure of von Ebner)

129
Q

The intrasclerotomal fissure (fissure of von Ebner) gives rise to what developmental feature?

A

the perichordal disc

130
Q

The union of a dense caudal sclerotomite and a loose sclerotomite from adjacent perichordal blastema gives rise to what feature?

A

the vertebral blastema

131
Q

What vessel will be identified adjacent to the vertebral blastema?

A

the segmental artery

132
Q

When will cartilage first form in the membranous vertebral blastema?

A

beginning in the 6th embryonic week

133
Q

What is the name given to the replacement of mesoderm by cartilage?

A

chondrification

134
Q

How many centers of chondrification typically appear in the vertebral blastema?

A

six… 2 for the cetrum, 2 for the neural arches, 2 for each transverse process

135
Q

What is the ear lies time that centers of ossification appear in cartilaginous vertebra?

A

during the 7th embryonic week

136
Q

What is the name given to centers of ossification based on time of appearance?

A

primary centers appear in utero, and secondary centers appear after birth

137
Q

What is the ratio of primary to secondary centers of ossification for a typical vertebrae?

A

3 primary centers: 5 secondary centers

138
Q

What are the names of the primary centers of ossification for a typical vertebra?

A

centrum centers and neural arch centers

139
Q

What are the names/locations of the five secondary centers of ossification for a typical vertebra?

A

tip of transverse process, tip of the spinous process, epiphyseal plate centers

140
Q

What is the range of appearance for secondary centers of ossification of a typical vertebra?

A

during puberty, typically ages 11-16 years old

141
Q

What is the general shape of the vertebral body at each region of the spine?

A

cervicle- rectangular; thoracic- triangular; lumbar- reniform

142
Q

What is the name given to the compact bone at the superior and inferior surfaces of the vertebral body?

A

superior epiphyseal rim, inferior epiphyseal rim

143
Q

What is the name given to the intermediate part of the vertebral arch where the transverse process and the articular processes attach?

A

the lamina- pedicle junction

144
Q

What is the generic orientation of the pedicle at each region of the spine?

A

cervical- posterolateral
thoracic- posterior, slight lateral
lumbar- posterior

145
Q

What ligament will attach to the lamina?

A

the ligamentum flavum

146
Q

What is the name given to abnormal bone at the attachment site of the ligamentum flavum?

A

para-articular process

147
Q

What classification of bone will para- articular process represent?

A

accessory bone

148
Q

What is the name given to the overlap of lamina on X-ray?

A

shingling

149
Q

What is the name given to the junction of the vertebral arch- spinous process on lateral X-ray?

A

the spinolaminar junction

150
Q

What is the name given to the lamina- pedicle junction at each region of the spine?

A

cervical- articular pillar; thoracic and lumbar- pars interarticularis

151
Q

What is the generic orientation of the transverse process or transverse apophysis at each region of the spine?

A

cervical- anterolateral; thoracic- posterolateral; lumbar- lateral

152
Q

All non- rib-bearing vertebra of the spine train what equivalent feature?

A

the costal element

153
Q

What will cause the transverse process/ transverse apophysis to alter its initial direction in the cervical region?

A

cervical spinal nerves are pulled forward to form the cervical and brachial nerve plexuses thus remodeling the transverse process to accommodate their new position

154
Q

What will cause the transverse process/ transverse apophysis to alter its initial direction in the thoraces region?

A

the growth of the lungs remodel the shape of the ribs which in turn push the transverse processes backward

155
Q

What is the name given to the joint formed between articular facets of a vertebral couple?

A

the zygapophysis

156
Q

What will form the posterior boundary of a typical intervertebral foramen?

A

the inferior articular process/ post-zygapophysis, the superior articular process/ pre-zygapophysis, the capsular ligament, and the ligamentum flavum

157
Q

What will form the superior boundary of a typical intervertebral foramen?

A

the inferior vertebral notch or inferior vertebral incisure

158
Q

What will form the inferior boundary of a typical intervertebral foramen?

A

the superior vertebral notch or superior vertebral incisure

159
Q

What will form the anterior boundary of a typical intervertebral foramen?

A

the vertebral body of the segment above, the vertebral body of the segment below, the intervertebral disc, and the posterior longitudinal ligament

160
Q

What is the method of calculating the angle of the spinous process/spinous apophysis?

A

calculate the angle formed between the undersurface of the spinous process/ spinous apophysis and the horizontal plate

161
Q

What is the name given to the normal overlap of the spinous process or spinous apophyses as seen on an X-ray?

A

imbrication

162
Q

What is the orientation of the spinous processes/spinous apophysis ate each region of the spine?

A

cervical- slight angle inferiorly
thoracic- noticeably angle inferiorly
lumbar- no inferior angle

163
Q

What is the typical shape/ outline of the vertebral foramen at each region of the spinal column/ vertebral column?

A

cervical- triangular; thoracic- oval; lumbar- triangular; sacrum- triangular

164
Q

At what vertebral level with the spinal cord typically terminate?

A

L1

165
Q

At what vertebral level will the dural sac typically terminate?

A

S2

166
Q

What are the segmental arteries of the cervical spine?

A

the vertebral artery, ascending cervical artery and deep cervical artery

167
Q

What are the segmental arteries of thoracic spine?

A

the deep cervical artery, superior (highest) intercostal artery, posterior intercostal artery and subcostal artery

168
Q

What are the segmental arteries of the lumbar spine?

A

the lumbar arteries, iliolumbar artery, lateral sacral artery and median (middle) sacral artery

169
Q

What are the segmental arteries of the fifth lumbar vertebra?

A

the iliolumbar artery, lateral sacral artery, and median (middle) sacral artery

170
Q

What are the segmental arteries of the sacrum?

A

the iliolumbar artery, lateral sacral artery, and median (middle) sacral artery

171
Q

what segmental levels are supplied by the vertebral artery?

A

C1-C6

172
Q

What segmental levels are supplied by the ascending cervical artery?

A

C1-C6

173
Q

What segmental a levels are supplied by the deep cervical artery?

A

C7-T1

174
Q

What segmental levels are supplied by the superior (highest) intercostal artery?

A

T1, T2

175
Q

What segmental levels are supplied by the posterior intercostal artery?

A

T3-T11

176
Q

What segmental level(s) is/are supplied by the subcostal artery?

A

T12

177
Q

What segmental levels are supplied by the lumbar arteries?

A

L1-L4

178
Q

What segmental levels are supplied by the median (middle) sacral artery?

A

L5, S1-S5 and coccyx

179
Q

What segmental levels are supplied by the iliolumbar artery?

A

L5, S1-S5 and coccyx

180
Q

Which vertebra has the greatest number of segmental arteries associated with it?

A

L5

181
Q

What are the segmental arteries for L5?

A

iliolumbar artery, median (middle) sacral artery, and lateral sacral artery

182
Q

Identify the meninges of the spinal cord (spinal medulla or medulla spinals)

A

dura mater, arachnoid mater, pia mater

183
Q

What is the name given to the fluid within the epidural space?

A

interstitial fluid

184
Q

Which meningeal space is now thought to be a potential space, not an actual space?

A

subdural space- between the dura mater and the arachnoid mater

185
Q

What is the name given to the fluid within the subdural space?

A

serous fluid

186
Q

What is the name given to the fluid within the subarachnoid space?

A

cerebrospinal fluid

187
Q

What branch of the segmental artery supplies the vertebra and the paravertebral region?

A

dorsospinal artery

188
Q

Which artery is primarily observed in the distal part of the intervertebral foramen?

A

spinal artery

189
Q

Which branch of the dorsospinal arteries will penetrate the meninges to enter the subarachnoid space?

A

spinal artery

190
Q

What are the branches of the spinal artery?

A

osseous arteries, anterior spinal canal artery, posterior spinal canal artery, anterior medullary feeder artery, posterior medullary feeder artery, anterior radicular artery, and posterior radicular

191
Q

What branches of the spinal artery supply the contents of the epidural space?

A

osseous arteries, anterior spinal canal artery, and posterior spinal canal artery

192
Q

What arteries are observed in the epidural space near the posterior longitudinal ligament?

A

anterior spinal canal artery & plexus

193
Q

What arteries are observed in the epidural space near the ligamentum flavum?

A

posterior spinal canal artery & plexus

194
Q

Which branches of the spinal artery supply the contents of the subarachnoid space?

A

anterior medullary feeder artery, posterior medullary feeder artery, anterior radicular artery, and posterior radicular

195
Q

Which vessel will supply the ventral/ anterior nerve rootlet and nerve root?

A

anterior radicular artery

196
Q

Which vessel will supply the dorsal/ posterior nerve rootlets, nerve root and nerve root ganglion?

A

posterior radicular artery

197
Q

What forms the arterial vasa corona below C6?

A

a median anterior spinal artery, right and left posterior spinal arteries, and 3 communicating arteries

198
Q

What is the generic name oven to the arteries that penetrate the spinal cord?

A

intramedullary arteries

199
Q

What are the intramedullary branches of the arterial vasa corona?

A

pial perforating arteries, central/ventral/sulcal perforating arteries

200
Q

What arterial vasa corona branches supply gray matter and most of the spinal cord?

A

central/ventral/sulcal perforating arteries

201
Q

What intramedullary branches supply about one third of the spinal cord?

A

pial perforating arteries

202
Q

What is the source for the pial perorating arteries?

A

pial plexus

203
Q

What is the primary artery supplementing the arterial vasa corona?

A

anterior medullary feeders and posterior medullary feeders

Spinal Anatomy (2 decks)

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