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Question

Installing Motherboards and Connectors: A support technician opened the case to a PC and saw a square socket component. What component has the support tech located? a. RAM b. Adapter c. CPU d. Drive

Answer 1

**b. Through the side panel** *When installing or accessing internal components like an optical disk drive in a desktop tower, the side panel of the case is typically the one that needs to be removed. Removing the side panel provides easy access to the internal hardware where the optical drive is located, allowing the technician to connect the necessary cables and securely install the drive. Explanation of the other options: a. Through the top panel: The top panel is typically not removed for installing internal components. It is usually fixed in place and doesn't provide convenient access to the internal parts of the case. c. Through the rear panel: The rear panel is mainly used for connecting external cables (such as power, USB, HDMI, etc.) and doesn’t provide direct access to the internal drives. d. Through the bottom of the rear panel: The bottom rear panel is not commonly used for accessing internal hardware like the optical drive.*

Answer 2

c. The PCI card can fit into the PCIe slot.

Answer 3

c. The rear panel

Answer 4

**b. They use internal connection points.** *a. They use edge contacts: This statement is true. Modern connectors, such as PCIe and DIMM memory slots, typically use edge contacts, where the connector's edge contacts the corresponding pins or pads on the motherboard or device. b. They use internal connection points: This statement is untrue. Modern connectors generally do not rely on internal connection points but instead make contact via external contacts (like pins, pads, or edges) to establish a connection. Internal connection points would refer to things like soldering directly to the board, which is not how most connectors work in terms of modern peripheral devices. c. They sometimes use keying: This statement is true. Many modern connectors, like USB-C or PCIe, use keying to ensure the connector can only be inserted one way, preventing incorrect connections. d. Some are reversible: This statement is true. Some modern connectors, like USB-C, are reversible, meaning they can be plugged in either way, making them more convenient to use.*

Answer 5

**A. The DDR generation B. If it is compatible with the slot C. How to insert it properly** *A. The DDR generation: The notches on the DIMM edge connectors help identify the DDR generation (DDR, DDR2, DDR3, DDR4, etc.). Each generation of DDR memory has a different notch placement to ensure only compatible memory types fit into the corresponding slots on the motherboard. B. If it is compatible with the slot: The position and number of notches also help the technician ensure that the DIMM is compatible with the motherboard's memory slot. Different generations of DDR memory (e.g., DDR3 vs DDR4) have different notch positions, preventing a mismatch. C. How to insert it properly: The notches help guide the technician in inserting the DIMM properly into the slot. The notches are placed so that the DIMM can only be inserted in one correct orientation, avoiding incorrect installations. D. If it has a heat sink: This statement is not true. The notches on the edge connector are not related to whether the DIMM has a heat sink. The presence of a heat sink on the memory module is typically independent of the notch design.*

Answer 6

**C. Motherboards that are designed to support UDIMMs will typically not support RDIMMs, and vice versa. D. Mixing non-ECC UDIMMs and ECC UDIMMs in the same system is generally not recommended.** *Motherboards are generally designed for one type of DIMM (UDIMM or RDIMM) and do not support both. Mixing non-ECC UDIMMs and ECC UDIMMs in the same system can lead to compatibility issues and is not recommended. Most motherboards are designed to either support UDIMMs or RDIMMs, but typically not both. Both the motherboard and CPU must be designed to support ECC operation for ECC RAM to function.*

Answer 7

**B. Traditional heat sinks** *Traditional heat sinks are not a part of a liquid-based cooling system. A heat sink is a block of copper or aluminum with fins which expose a larger surface area around the component to the air.* *Fans are a part of a liquid-based cooling system and engineers position them at air vents to dispel the excess heat. Water blocks and brackets attach to each device to remove heat by convection. These attach in a similar way to heat sink/fan assemblies and then connect to the water loop. A water loop is a part of a liquid-based cooling system and the water loop/tubing and pump push the coolant added via the reservoir around the system.*

Answer 8

**A. ECC - Capable Motherboard B. 72-bit data bus** *A. ECC - Capable Motherboard: True. In order to use ECC RAM, the motherboard must support ECC functionality. Without an ECC-capable motherboard, the system won't be able to utilize the error detection and correction features provided by ECC RAM. This is essential for applications that require high data integrity, such as real-time financial processing. B. 72-bit data bus: True. ECC RAM typically uses a 72-bit data bus, which consists of 64 bits of data and 8 bits for error correction. The additional 8 bits are used to detect and correct single-bit errors, which is the core functionality of ECC RAM. C. Single-Channel memory: Not required. While single-channel memory can be used with ECC RAM, it is not necessary for ECC support. ECC RAM can be used in dual-channel or quad-channel configurations, which would improve performance by utilizing multiple memory channels. D. Two 64-bit data buses: Not required. While ECC RAM may work with multiple data buses, the typical 72-bit system uses one 72-bit bus (64 bits for data and 8 bits for error correction). The idea of two 64-bit data buses is not the specific requirement for ECC functionality.*

Answer 9

**D. RAID 10** *RAID 10 (also known as RAID 1+0) is a combination of RAID 1 (mirroring) and RAID 0 (striping). In this configuration: RAID 0 (striping) provides performance by splitting data into stripes across multiple drives. RAID 1 (mirroring) provides redundancy by duplicating the data on two or more drives. In RAID 10, the system uses two mirrored arrays (RAID 1) and stripes data across those mirrored pairs (RAID 0). This provides both fault tolerance (because of the mirroring) and improved performance (because of the striping). Explanation of the other options: A. RAID 0: RAID 0 is simply striping without any redundancy. It improves performance but does not provide fault tolerance. B. RAID 1: RAID 1 is mirroring only, which provides redundancy but not improved performance (as there is no striping). C. RAID 5: RAID 5 uses striping with parity to provide fault tolerance, but it does not involve mirroring. It is more efficient in terms of storage than RAID 10 but has different fault tolerance characteristics.*

Answer 10

A. RAID 0 *RAID 0 is a striped drive configuration that requires at least two disks and provides no redundancy at all. If any physical disk in the array fails, the whole logical volume will fail.*

Answer 11

B. RAID 1 *RAID 1 is a mirrored drive configuration using two disks. Each write operation duplicates on the second disk in the set, introducing a small performance overhead.*

Answer 12

**C. DDR SDRAM** *DDR SDRAM is a type of memory that syncs its speed with the motherboard's system clock, meaning it transfers data quickly. It can transfer data twice per clock cycle, which makes it faster. A 1600MBps transfer rate is common for DDR3 SDRAM. Why not the other options? A. SDRAM: This is a slower type of memory than DDR SDRAM, so it doesn't have the same transfer rate. B. Dynamic RAM: This is a general term for memory that needs refreshing. It doesn't tell us the type of memory in the question. D. ECC RAM: This type of memory fixes errors, but it could still be DDR or other types. The speed (1600MBps) points to DDR SDRAM rather than ECC.*

Answer 13

**D. ARM** *Advanced RISC Machine (ARM) designs implement an SoC which means that all the controllers, including video, sound, networking, and storage, are part of the CPU.*

Answer 14

**D. Server** *The technician is upgrading a server-class computer. Server motherboards are often multi-socket, meaning that the technician can install multiple, identical CPU packages.*

Answer 15

**B. SSD (Solid State Drive)** *Solid-state drives (SSDs) use flash chips that are susceptible to a type of degradation over the course of many write operations which would cause the laptop to be sluggish and freeze.*

Answer 16

**A. Hard disk drives B. Solid-state drives D. Mass storage devices** *A. Hard disk drives (HDDs): These are non-volatile storage devices where data is stored even when the power is off. HDDs should be scanned for errors and infections. B. Solid-state drives (SSDs): Like HDDs, SSDs are non-volatile storage devices, meaning they also store data permanently. These should also be scanned for issues. D. Mass storage devices: This is a general term that includes both HDDs and SSDs, as well as other large capacity storage devices. Why not C. Random access memory (RAM)? C. Random access memory (RAM) is volatile memory, meaning it doesn't retain data once the power is off. While it's important for system performance, it's not part of non-volatile storage and therefore not included in scanning for storage errors or infections.*

Answer 17

**B. Dual channel** *A. Single channel: A single channel only sends 64 bits of data per transfer. C. Triple channel: Triple channel would send 192 bits per transfer. D. Quadruple channel: Quadruple channel would send 256 bits per transfer.*

Answer 18

C. Triple channel

Answer 19

D. Quadruple channel

Answer 20

**A. ATX** *ATX (Advanced Technology eXtended) is the most common form factor for power supply units (PSUs) in desktop PCs. It's widely used in most modern desktop computer builds due to its size, power capacity, and compatibility with a variety of cases and motherboards.* *Explanation of the other options: B. SFF: SFF (Small Form Factor) is a smaller design used for compact PCs, but it's not as common for regular desktop computers. C. PCIe: PCIe (Peripheral Component Interconnect Express) refers to expansion slots on motherboards, not a PSU form factor. D. Mini-ITX: Mini-ITX is a small motherboard form factor, but it doesn't directly relate to the form factor of PSUs.*

Answer 21

**A. CPU** *The CPU in a computing device executes the program instruction code.* *B. Random access memory (RAM) is a space where the computing device loads applications and files so that users can perform operations on that data. C. Cache is a small block of memory that works at the speed of the CPU or close to it, depending on the cache level. D. A hard disk drive (HDD) stores data on metal or glass platters coated with a magnetic substance. The top and bottom of each platter has its own read/write head, moved by an actuator mechanism.*

Answer 22

**D. Wattage rating** *The wattage rating is the measurement of the power supply unit’s output capability. Servers have units rated over 300 W to meet the demands of multiple CPUs, additional memory modules, etc.*

Answer 23

**A. Modular** *The hardware technician is installing a modular PSU which has detachable power connector cables that allow the technician to reduce the number of cables to the minimum required.*

Answer 24

B. Redundant

Answer 25

**B. USB flash drive C. SD card** *B. USB flash drive: USB flash drives are portable, removable storage devices commonly used to store and transfer data. Employees often use these devices for storing work-related files, and they would be expected to return them when leaving the company. C. SD card: SD cards (Secure Digital cards) are also removable storage devices, often used in cameras, laptops, and other devices to store data. Similar to USB flash drives, employees would likely need to return SD cards containing company data. Explanation of the other options: A. Wireless card: A wireless card is a hardware component used to connect a computer to a wireless network. It is typically not a storage device and is installed inside the computer. It is unlikely to be returned as part of removable storage. D. RAM: RAM (Random Access Memory) is a type of volatile memory that is installed inside the computer. It is not removable like a USB flash drive or SD card, and employees would not need to return it when leaving the company.*

Answer 26

**B. SSD** *B. SSD (Solid-State Drive): SSD devices use flash memory technology to store data. Unlike traditional hard drives (HDD), SSDs have no moving parts and are much faster, making them a popular choice for modern computers and other devices. Explanation of the other options: A. HDD (Hard Disk Drive): HDDs do not use flash memory. They rely on spinning magnetic disks to read and write data. While they are mass storage devices, they don't use flash memory technology. C. RAM (Random Access Memory): RAM is a type of volatile memory used by the computer for temporary data storage. While it is made from flash memory in some devices, it is not typically considered a "mass storage" device for long-term storage of data. D. CDs: CDs (Compact Discs) are optical storage devices and do not use flash memory technology. They store data on a physical disc surface and are not based on flash memory.*

Answer 27

**B. Fans** *B. Fans: Fans are actively used to improve airflow within a computer system, helping to dissipate heat from components like the CPU, GPU, and power supply. Active cooling involves moving air around the components to help cool them down, which is exactly what fans are designed to do. A. Heat sinks: Heat sinks are passive cooling devices that dissipate heat from components by increasing the surface area for heat transfer. While they help cool components, they do not actively move air like fans.*

Answer 28

A. Clean it. B. Apply thermal paste. D. Wear an ESD wrist strap. *For a PGA (older legacy CPU, you would pop up the CPU at a 45º angle.*

Answer 29

**C. GPT** *“boot device not found” error indicates problem with boot process (mbr/bios vs. gpt/uefi)*

Answer 30

**C. Controller failure** *RAID configurations rely on a RAID controller to manage the data across multiple drives. If the technician is unable to access the RAID configuration utility, this typically means that the RAID controller itself is not functioning properly. The controller is what allows access to and management of the RAID array, so if it's failed, you won't be able to interact with or configure the RAID array. The other options: A. Disk failure: If a disk fails, you would still likely be able to access the RAID utility, but you'd receive warnings about the failed disk or degraded array. A disk failure wouldn't prevent access to the RAID utility itself. B. Boot process failure: If the boot process fails, you'd typically encounter boot errors during system startup. However, it wouldn't necessarily stop you from accessing the RAID utility unless the boot process is completely blocked due to a more severe issue. D. Multiple disk failure: While a RAID array with multiple disk failures could result in data loss or an inaccessible array, it wouldn't directly prevent you from accessing the RAID configuration utility. You may see warnings about degraded arrays or failure, but you'd still be able to open the utility.*

Answer 31

B. Drive issue

Answer 32

C. Overheating

Answer 33

**C. Normal POST** *When POST runs and issues one short beep, this indicates a normal POST, and the system is OK. However, manufacturers configure most modern PCs to boot silently. POST will indicate a motherboard problem with either no beep, repeating short beeps, or one long beep followed by a short beep. When there is a faulty speaker, the power-on self-test will indicate this with no beeps because the speaker is not working. If the power-on self-test runs but detects a problem, it generates two short beeps and shows an error message on the screen.*

Answer 34

B. Motherboard C. Power supply unit

Answer 35

**D. Secure boot** *secure boot is the best choice for protecting against malware hijacking at the startup phase, which is crucial for safeguarding sensitive data.*

Answer 36

**B. Accessing the system setup program** *On many HP computers, pressing F10 during the startup (when the vendor's logo appears) typically allows the user to access the system setup program, which is the BIOS or UEFI settings. This program allows the technician to configure various hardware settings such as boot order, system performance, and security options. Why not the other options? A. Restarting the PC: Pressing F10 does not restart the PC; it opens the BIOS/UEFI settings instead. Restarting the PC is typically done by selecting "Restart" from the operating system or holding down the power button for a forced restart. C. Setting a boot password: While setting a boot password could be done in the BIOS/UEFI settings, pressing F10 itself doesn't specifically set a boot password. It only takes the user into the system setup where the password can be configured. D. Enabling secure boot: Secure boot is a setting found within the BIOS/UEFI setup, but pressing F10 doesn't directly enable it. It simply brings the user to the system setup where they can enable or disable secure boot among other settings.*

Answer 37

**B. Overheating** *Overheating typically causes intermittent projector shutdown. Check that the projector’s fan is working, that the vents are free from dust*