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1
Q
  1. Which of the following mushrooms is least likely to cause life threatening clinical signs?
    A. Amanita bisporigera
    B. Amanita pantherina
    C. Amanita phalloides
    D. Conocybe filaris
    E. Gallerina autumnalis
A

B. Amanita pantherina

The others are all amanitin-containing species.

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2
Q
  1. Which of the following animals is MOST sensitive to the skeletal effects of tetracycline?
    A. A Labrador retriever fetus at 45 days of gestation
    B. A seven year old Berkshire sow
    C. A six month old chihuahua
    D. A twelve year old Haflinger stallion
    E. A two year old Holstein steer
A

A. A labrador retriever fetus at 45 days of gestation

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3
Q
  1. Lucibufagins are cardiotoxic compounds found in which of the following insects?
    A. Apis mellifera
    B. Latrodectus mactans
    C. Photinus sp.
    D. Vespula maculifrons
A

C. Photinus sp.

These are fireflies!

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4
Q
  1. Which of the following blood products would not help correct Vitamin K1 dependent coagulopathy in a dog?
    A. Cryopoor plasma
    B. Fresh frozen plasma
    C. Fresh whole blood
    D. Packed red blood cells
A

D. Packed red blood cells

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5
Q
  1. Which of the following is true regarding hops intoxication in dogs?
    A. Body temperature elevation greater than 106 degrees F is not associated with increased mortality rates
    B. Hops intoxication is associate with high mortality
    C. Tachypnea, hyperthermia, and vomiting are common clinical signs associated with hops intoxication in dogs
    D. The majority of dogs did not develop signs until 12 hours post exposure and remained symptomatic for 48-72 hours.
A

C. Tachypnea, hyperthermia, and vomiting are common clinical signs associated with hops intoxication in dogs.

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6
Q
  1. Which of the following compounds is recommended for the induction of emesis in cats?
    A. Dexmedetomidine
    B. Enrofloxacin
    C. Sodium chloride
    D. Syrup of Ipecac
A

A. Dexmedetomidine

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7
Q
  1. A 55 pound dog ingested the contents of a 2 ounce tube of 5% 5-fluorourcil. What is the pet’s dosage?
    A. 0.4 mg/kg
    B. 11.3 mg/kg
    C. 51.5 mg/kg
    D. 113.6 mg/kg
    E. 400.8 mg/kg
A

D. 113.6 mg/kg

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8
Q
  1. Which of the following is true regarding albuterol toxicosis in dogs?
    A. Diazepam is contraindicated for seizures
    B. Hypokalemia is due to total body depletion and aggressive potassium supplementation is required
    C. Propranolol is considered antidotal, given that is has beta-2 antagonist properties.
    D. Tachycardia is often seen quickly post exposure and is accompanied by hypertension
A

C. Propranolol is considered antidotal, given that it has beta-2 antagonist properties.

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9
Q
  1. In which of the following can methanol ingestion result in blindness?
    A. Cat
    B. Dog
    C. Gibbon
    D. Guinea pig
    E. Horse
A

C. Gibbon

Methanol causes severe acidosis and blindness in humans, other primates, and a few laboratory animals.

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10
Q
  1. Which of the following is the antidote for oxymetazoline?
    a. Acepromazine
    b. Acetylcysteine
    c. Ammonium chloride
    d. CaEDTA
    e. Yohimbine
A

E. Yohimbine

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11
Q
  1. Which of the following conditions is not expected in dogs secondary to joint supplement toxicosis?
    A. Azotemia
    B. Blindness
    C. Coagulopathy
    D. Hepatotoxicity
    E. Hypernatremia
A

B. Blindness

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12
Q
  1. According to recent research, which of the following is true about diethylene glycol toxicosis in rats?
    A. Diethylene glycol does not cause acute kidney injury in rats
    B. Female rats are more affected than male rats
    C. Male rats develop neurotoxicity but not acute kidney injury
    D. Neurologic signs were present only when diethylene glycol accumulated in tissues and acute kidney injury occurred
A

D. Neurologic signs were present only when diethylene glycol accumulated in tissues and acute kidney injury occurred.

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13
Q
  1. Which of the following is incorrect regarding the use of intravenous fluids versus the use of therapeutic plasma exchange with NSAID toxicosis in dogs?
    A. Dogs that were showing neurologic signs were more likely to receive treatment with therapeutic plasma exchange
    B. Dogs that were treated with intravenous fluids had a higher maximal creatinine concentration
    C. Dogs that were treated with therapeutic plasma exchange had better outcomes than those that were treated with intravenous fluids
    D. Ibuprofen was associated with more severe clinical signs than carprofen
    E. The survival rate was high for all dogs in the study, regardless of intervention
A

C. Dogs that were treated with therapeutic plasma exchange had better outcomes than those that were treated with intravenous fluids.

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14
Q
  1. A 3 year old male Labrador was presented to a veterinary clinic after vomiting and acutely developing muscle tremors. On physical exam, the dog has a body temperature of 105 F, tachycardia, hypersalivation and moderate full body muscle tremors. All of the following toxicants should be on your differential list EXCEPT:
    A. Amphetamines
    B. Disulfoton
    C. Heroin
    D. Metaldehyde
    E. Strychnine
A

C. Heroin

Note: Disulfoton is an OP whereas heroin is an opioid.

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15
Q
  1. Which of the following general statements regarding the toxicity of different states metals is CORRECT?
    A. Arsenite (3+) is more toxic than arsenate (5+).
    B. Iron salts are more toxic than iron oxide.
    C. Organic arsenic is more toxic than inorganic arsenic.
    D. Organic mercury is more toxic than inorganic mercury.
A

C. Organic arsenic is more toxic than inorganic arsenic.

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16
Q
  1. A 1 yr old spayed female mixed breed dog was presented to a veterinary clinic for anorexia and lethargy. On physical exam she is mentally dull, has mild ataxia and intermittent tremors. Her vital signs, radiographs, and bloodwork are normal. The owners mentioned they have been doing some remodeling in their home recently. Which of the following differentials and treatment should be considered in this case?
    A. Iron toxicosis, chelation with BAL
    B. Iron toxicosis, chelation with deferoxamine
    C. Lead toxicosis, chelation with deferoxamine
    D. Lead toxicosis, chelation with succimer
    E. Zinc toxicosis, chelation with calcium disodium EDTA
A

D. Lead toxicosis, chelation with succimer

Note: read Plumlee p 204-210

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17
Q
  1. Chronic selenium toxicity can manifest as all of the following EXCEPT:
    A. Alkali disease in ruminants
    B. Bobtail disease in horses
    C. Hemolysis in dogs
    D. Nephritis, hepatic cirrhosis and myocardial necrosis in pigs
A

C. Hemolysis in dogs

Explanation is in Gupta 3rd ed.

18
Q
  1. A 4 yr old American quarter horse was evaluated for acute onset of anorexia, weakness and stumbling. On physical exam, the horse was ataxic, hesitant to move, sweating, and tachycardic. Exposure to which of the following should be on your differential list?
    A. Cadmium
    B. Monensin
    C. Prunus sp
    D. Senecio sp
A

B. Monensin

19
Q
  1. A 90 kg ewe ingested 1 kg of a feed supplement containing feed grade biuret (37% nitrogen) as the nonprotein nitrogen source. The tag on the feed lists 32% crude protein from the biuret. What percentage of the supplement is biuret? Note: biuret is a product that is produced by condensing two urea molecules.
    A. 1.38%
    B. 6.9%
    C. 13.8%
    D. 27.6%
    E. There is not enough information to answer the question.
A

C. 13.8%

Protein equivalent = N x 100/16, or N x 6.25.
Biuret is 37% nitrogen, so PE = 37*6.25 = 231%
NPN of feed is 32%/231% = 0.138 or 13.8%.

In Plumlee p131-132.

20
Q
  1. All of the following can cause renal tubular damage EXCEPT:
    A. Amaranthus sp.
    B. Arsenic
    C. Citrinin
    D. Oxalic Acid
    E. Quercus sp
A

B. Arsenic.

21
Q
  1. The most common diagnosis for cats with ionized hypercalcemia was?
    A. Acute kidney injury
    B. Malignancy-associated
    C. Idiopathic
    D. Primary hyperparathyroidism
    E. Vitamin D toxicosis
A

A. Acute kidney injury

22
Q
  1. An outbreak of pancytopenia in cats in the UK was linked to:
    A. Trimethoprim sulfa contamination of cat food
    B. Estrogen contamination of cat food
    C. Trichothecene contamination of cat food
    D. Lead contamination of cat food
    E. Cisplatin contamination of cat food
A

C. Trichothecene contamination of cat food.

23
Q
  1. Zonisamide is an anticonvulsant. While the adverse event rate is low, which of the following organ systems should be monitored, especially in the first three weeks?
    A. Renal (tubular necrosis)
    B. Dermal (TENS)
    C. Bone marrow (anemia)
    D. Muscular (rhabdomyolysis)
    E. Hepatic (hepatopathy)
A

E. Hepatic (hepatopathy)

24
Q
  1. Which of the following adverse effects were seen in horses after 7 daily IV doses of gentamicin?
    A. Renal failure
    B. Deafness
    C. Anemia
    D. Hepatopathy
    E. Seizures
A

B. Deafness

25
Q
  1. Plants from the Sapindaceae family cause which of the following when ingested by horses?
    A. Hepatopathy
    B. Seizures
    C. Renal failure
    D. Myopathy
    E. Teratogenicity
A

D. Myopathy

26
Q
  1. IM sodium tetrathionate can improve survival rates in which type of poisoning?
    A. Lead
    B. VX
    C. Cyanide
    D. Mercury
    E. Paraquat
A

C. Cyanide

27
Q
  1. IM cobinamide can improve survival rates in which type of poisoning?
    A. Cyanide
    B. Mercury
    C. VX
    D. Cadmium
    E. Hydrogen sulfide
A

E. Hydrogen sulfide

28
Q
  1. In a rodent model of amlodipine toxicosis, which of the following is TRUE?
    A. Survival was greatest in rats treated with ILE
    B. Survival was greatest in rats treated with methylene blue
    C. Survival was greatest in rats treated with normal saline
    D. None of the treatments increased survival rates above control
A

A. Survival was greatest in rats treated with ILE.

29
Q
  1. The European hoopoe (Upupa epops) derives its toxicity from?
    A. Toxic alkaloid production in its skin (homobatrachotoxin)
    B. Diet derived from melrid beetles
    C. Diet derived from plants
    D. Diet derived from blister beetles (cantharidin)
    E. Bacteria found in the uropygial glands
A

E. Bacteria found in the uropygial glands

30
Q
  1. Which are the most common clinical signs seen in salbutamol toxcosis in dogs?
    A. Tremors and seizures
    B. Hypokalemia and arrhythmias
    C. Vomiting and tremors
    D. Muscle weakness
    E. Diarrhea
A

B. Hypokalemia and arrhythmias

31
Q
  1. Lewisite is an oily vesicant. Which of the following can be used as an antidote for Lewisite poisoning?
    A. CaEDTA
    B. BAL
    C. Deferoxamine
    D. Magnesium hydroxide
    E. Fomepizole
A

B. BAL

32
Q
  1. Which of the following neurotoxins is NOT mediated by glycine?
    A. Calycanthus
    B. Strychnine
    C. Tetanus
    D. Penitrem A
    E. Cocaine
A

E. Cocaine

33
Q
  1. Gold salts in dogs cause which of the following renal lesions?
    A. Membranous glomerulonephritis
    B. Acute tubular degeneration
    C. Mesangiolysis
    D. Tubular mineralization
    E. Perirenal edema
A

A. Membranous glomerulonephritis

34
Q
  1. Which of the following is safe to use during pregnancy?
    A. Streptomycin
    B. Enrofloxacin
    C. Fenbendazole
    D. Griseofulvin
    E. Misoprostol
A

C. Fenbendazole

Gupta pg 306-9

35
Q
  1. This toxin interferes with normal osteogenesis and bone remodeling, leading to production of abnormal bone on the periosteal surfaces of the long bone cortices.
    A. Lead
    B. Calcium
    C. Vitamin D
    D. Fluoride
    E. Cadmium
A

D. Fluoride

36
Q
  1. In the 1980s there was an increased rate of deaths of neonatal foals. On necropsy these foal has prominent bile ductule proliferation, hepatic cell necrosis and periportal fibrosis. All died within 1-5 days after receiving an oral nutritional supplement. What did this supplement contain?
    A. Lead sulfate
    B. Ferrous fumarate
    C. Cyanobacteria
    D. Paracetamol
    E. Copper sulfate
A

C. Cyanobacteria

Gupta pg 435

37
Q
  1. Which toxin discolors egg yolks olive green?
    A. Lead
    B. Gossypol
    C. Iron
    D. Aflatoxin
    E. Carbaryl
A

B. Gossypol

38
Q
  1. Which of the following inhibits sphinganine and sphingosine N-acyltransferase?
    A. Aflatoxin
    B. Cisplatin
    C. Ampicillin
    D. Methylmercury
    E. Fumonisin
A

E. Fumonisin

39
Q
  1. Which of the following species has the highest water intake on a L/kg basis?
    A. Dairy cattle
    B. Chickens
    C. Turkeys
    D. Horses
    E. Swine
A

A. Dairy cattle

40
Q
  1. Flumazenil is a reversal agent for which class of medications?
    A. Opioids
    B. Barbiturates
    C. MAOIs
    D. Benzodiazepines
    E. Beta blockers
A

D. Benzodiazepines

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