Study questions Flashcards

1
Q

When it comes to Individual Development Plans, what are the 3 main details that should be addressed?

A. Coaching, training, accountability
B. Coaching, training, career development
C. Development, training, career management

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What factors are considered in determining accrued sick time policies?

A. If employees are covered by FMLA & the number of hours worked per week

B. The length of service before accrual begins & accrual rate

C. If unused sick time is paid out after termination or resignation & accrual rate

D. The number of sick days taken per year by employees & if sick time rolls over to the next year

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

The Source-Oriented Medical Record (SOMR) consists of data that is entered on the patient medical record in what format?

A. Alphabetically, by medical problem

B. Chronologically, by each identified health problem

C. Chronologically, by office visit or period of hospitalization

D. Alphanumerically, by diagnosis code

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are the main two ways that periodic medical record audits and peer reviews benefit a veterinary practice?

A. Employee review and vaccine reminder compliance

B. Survey client/patient data and discover service gaps

C. Legal compliance and increase profitability

D. Verify association standards are upheld and staff compliance

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Although laws may vary by state/province, generally speaking, who has legal ownership of pet medical records?

A. They are public record, not subject to ownership laws

B. Jointly owned between the veterinarian and pet owner

C. Pet owner

D. Veterinary practice

A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

In the US court system which choice represents the type of court that isn’t found under special courts title?

A. Traffic court
B. Juvenile court
C. Small claims court
D. Probate court

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

The SDCVMA was scrutinized for publishing fee survey results, adopting minimum fee schedules, and prohibiting members from accepting low cost spay/neuter patients. It was charged that this practice is a violation of section 1 of which federal act?

A. Grand Act
B. Pharmaceutical trade act
C. Sherman act
D. Free trade act

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

In consideration of veterinary lawsuits, there are three types of damages that can be awarded. In addition to nominal and compensatory, which of the following choices is the third type of damages that can be awarded?

A. Punitive
B. Veterinary
C. Compensatory
D. Altruistic

A

A. Punitive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Under which law do most cases that involve veterinary professional liability originate from?

A. Criminal law
B. Law of malpractice
C. Law of civil negligence
D. Probate law

A

B. Law of malpractice

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

In the US, which court is the lowest in the land, in terms of authority?

A. Appellate court
B. Court of appeals
C. Magistrates court
D. Special court

A

C. Magistrates court

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

In the event of a lawsuit at the trial court level, which name in a lawsuit is listed first, at the top of legal case heading?

A. Judge
B. Plaintiff 
C. Defendant
D. Both parties to the lawsuit

A

B. Plaintiff

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

When considering paperwork required for court proceedings, what two things generally define case titles?

A. Names of parties to the lawsuit
B. Names of attorneys
C. Two upper case V’s
D. Names of the parties to the lawsuit & small v

A

D. Names of the parties to the lawsuit & small v

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

State veterinary associations each adopt individual ethic codes of conduct for use in bylaws. Which is the code most commonly adopted into bylaws for purpose of regulating the practice of veterinary medicine in individual state practice acts?

A. US Supreme Court’s code
B. Ethical and legal jurisdiction code
C. AVMA code
D. Moral and ethical constraints code

A

C. AVMA code

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Section 201-105 of The Code of Federal Regulations requires that a drug must meet which of the following conditions in order to qualify as a veterinary prescription drug?

A. Completed NADA & submitted all required biochemical assays and trial info

B. Formulated for specific use on a species of animal other than human

C. In possession of a licensed veterinarian for use in course of professional practice

D. Complies with all FDA testing and labeling directives for use and practice of veterinary medicine

A

C. In possession of a licensed veterinarian for use and course of professional practice

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Which federal regulatory agency has jurisdiction over manufacturing, distribution, and labeling of rodenticides, pesticides, and germicides?

A. FDA
B. EPA
C. DEA
D. US Dept of Agriculture

A

B. EPA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

There are four basic groups for tracking expenses including personnel, variable/cogs, and fixed/administrative. What is the fourth group?

A. Occupancy/facility
B. Short-term/long-term liabilities
C. DVM commission
D. Interest expense

A

A. Occupancy/facility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the maximum number of mass text messages that a practice should send to clients per month to avoid the messages being considered spam?

A. 2 per month
B. 4  per month
C. 5 per month
D. 10 per month

A

A. 2 per month

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

The key to business continuity for veterinary practices is having a well-conceived, fully communicated business contingency plan that addresses which four areas?

A. Insurance processing, disaster relief accommodations, staff preparedness, financing options

B. Mitigation, preparation, execution, documentation

C. Mitigation, preparation, response, recovery

D. Insurance reporting, claims, replacement, documentation

A

C. Mitigation, preparation, response, recovery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Which formula represents the number of lost clients per year?

A. Active clients last year + new clients this year - active clients this year

B. Clients who cancel + clients requesting transfer of records + clients who no-show

C. Active clients last year - active clients this year

D. Clients requesting transfer of records + inactive client records

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Which act was passed by Congress regarding extra-label drug use that was aimed to alleviate some of the barriers veterinarians faced when they must prescribe human drugs for patients, and when they must use a drug that was not approved for a particular species of patient?

A. Animal Medical Drug Clarification Act
B. Medical & Therapeutic Dispensing Act
C. Animal Medicinal Dispensation Act
D. Pharmaceutical Adaptation Act

A

A. Animal Medical Drug Clarification Act

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Maslows hierarchy is a philosophy that states that people seek to satisfy basic needs and that satisfying lower level needs results in the next level being a motivating factor. Maslow details the five common needs from most basic to the most fulfilling in this order: physiological needs, safety needs, relationship needs, and esteem needs. What is the fifth and highest level of the hierarchy?

A. Personal realization
B. Independent achievement
C. Self governing autonomy
D. Self actualization

A

D. Self actualization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

How frequently should staff meetings be held?

A. Once a month for general interest meetings

B. On a regular basis

C. Whenever there is a problem to address

D. Weekly as time permits

A

B. On a regular basis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is another name for the Hazard Chemical Standard (HCS)?

A. Material safety data sheets
B. Right To Know law
C. Chemical Safety Standard
D. Hazardous Chemical Safety Plan

A

B. Right To Know law

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Which of the following documents should be included in the employee personnel file?

A. I-9 form
B. FMLA documentation
C. Pay period time records
D. W-4 form

A

D. W-4 form

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

The law of negligence requires proof of four essential elements: 1. establishing the DVM how to duty to prevent the injury, 2. establishing that the duty was violated, 3. there’s reasonable causation between the DVMs conduct and resulting injury. What is the fourth element?

A. Proof that the conduct was willful and purposeful

B. Proof that actual damages occurred

C. Proof that the injury could have been prevented by reasonable action

D. Proof that culpability lies specifically and only with the accused DVM

A

B. Proof that actual damages occurred

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Which of the statements about the Sherman Antitrust Act is NOT true?

A. The Act restrains interstate commerce with routine inspections of both cargo and the documentation of the shipment’s source 

B. The act preserves the underlying principal that our nation shall function under a competitive business economy

C. The Department of Justice has a wide degree of interpretation and application of the law

D. Labor unions are legislatively exempt from the Act

A

A. The Act restrains interstate commerce with routine inspections of both cargo and the documentation of the shipment’s source

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is an internal control system?

A. The system designed to oversee the expenses paid out of the business

B. The system designed to oversee the income and accounts receivable of the business

C. A system designed to keep track of all equipment within the business

D. A system designed for safeguarding assets within the business

A

D. A system designed for safeguarding assets within the business

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

When is conducting a background check on an applicant permissible?

A. When an applicant has submitted an application

B. When an applicant has given explicit permission

C. When an applicant has been hired

D. When an applicant has signed an application for employment

A

B. When an applicant has given explicit permission

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Radiography, dentistry, and laboratory diagnostics are all examples of:

A. Active income
B. Passive income

A

B. Passive income

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Which focus areas should be included in the written standards of care for the internal hospital image?

A. Waiting room, reception area, public restroom, hallways

B. Reception area, waiting room, exam room, surgery room

C. Merchandising, public restrooms, hallways, exam rooms

D. Merchandising, sterility, cleanliness, function

A

D. Merchandising, sterility, cleanliness, function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

The pregnancy discrimination act makes it clear that discrimination on the basis of pregnancy, childbirth, or related medical conditions constitutes unlawful sex discrimination under the Civil Rights Act. However, an employer may take the welfare of a fetus into account when deciding to permit a pregnant employee to remain on the job or perform specific job functions.

True
False

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

If a concerned citizen brings in a pet with a medical emergency and your practice stabilizes that pet prior to the owner being located, when the owner is located, under this theory the owner would be required to pay the practice for services rendered even though owner consent was never given. What is the legal theory that supports this statement?

A. The law of professional reparation
B. The law of prejudiced benefaction
C. The law of professional provision
D. The law of unjust enrichment

A

D. The law of unjust enrichment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is customer experience management (CEM)?

A. A planned survey process for client satisfaction

B. A plan for reputation management in the marketing strategy

C. A process of creating an experience that is positive and memorable

D. A process of gathering data about client preferences

A

C. A process of creating an experience that is positive and memorable

34
Q

In which situation would it be beneficial to apply the Economic Order Quantity (EOQ) formula?

A. When ordering regularly used products

B. When ordering new equipment

C. When ordering manufacturer or seasonal specials

D. When ordering new products for the first time

A

A. When ordering regularly used products

35
Q

Which of the elements below are not one of the six steps in budgeting?

A. Combining budgeted revenue and expenses, and making adjustments

B. Comparison of the last three years expenses as a percentage of gross revenue

C. Determining the desired results

D. Normalizing revenue and expense

A

B. Comparison of the last three years expenses as a percentage of gross revenue

36
Q

Individual Development Plans are documents created by

A. The employee with input of their managers

B. The employees direct supervisor and practice manager

C. The employee, for use as a goalsetting agreement with management

D. The employee’s direct supervisor or practice manager when the employees performance is unacceptable and performance goals must be clarified and timeliness for improvement must be agreed upon

A

A. The employee with input of their managers

37
Q

When it comes to the decision to offer retail goods as a revenue center, the decision will depend entirely on three characteristics of the practice. Those characteristics are image, space, and what else?

A. Budget
B. Vision
C. Brand
D. Market segmentation

A

B. Vision

38
Q

When expenses are stated as a percentage of gross revenue, it is called what?

A. Relative expense
B. Common sizing
C. Normative sizing
D. Normative expense

A

B. Common sizing

39
Q

The practice has a DVM out on temporary leave and to meet client needs, the practice hired a temporary full-time DVM for the length of the leave. The new DVM is paid a daily rate and has the right to pursue other jobs providing it doesn’t interfere with their full-time work schedule with the practice. Is the new DVM an independent contractor or an employee?

A

Employee

40
Q

What system of the FDA has inadvertently promoted the off-label use of drugs, by making the cost of producing a drug so high that it is impractical for drug companies to introduce new drugs for species of animals with small numbers?

A. DEA
B. FD&C
C. CSA
D. NADA

A

D. NADA

41
Q

A doctor is using two exam rooms simultaneously for appointments, what type of scheduling is this considered?

A. 10-minutes flex
B. High density
C. Concurrent

A

B. High density

42
Q

On boarding with EASE stands for encouragement, align, solve, and…..?

A. Elevate
B. End
C. Endorse
D. Embrace

A

B. End

43
Q

When it comes to enhancing employee productivity, which of the below answers is NOT one of the suggestions?

A. Engage and empower
B. Personal focus
C. Accountability and acceptance
D. Performance standards

A

C. Accountability and acceptance

44
Q

A pre-adverse action letter should be used when?

A. When considering not hiring a candidate due to details revealed in a pre-employment background check

B. To advise a candidate they will not be hired due to details revealed in the pre-employment background check

C. To request further detail/clarification on the candidate from the background investigation company when considering not hiring a candidate due to details on the initial background check

A

A. When considering not hiring a candidate due to details revealed in a pre-employment background check

45
Q

_________ refers to the degree to which the test actually measures what it claims to measure.

A. Validity
B. Tenability
C. Reliability

A

A. Validity

46
Q

Veterinary staff ratios, veterinary production, team member production, and staff payroll percentages are four of the key factors involved in considering when to hire. What is the fifth key factor?

A. Percentage of gross profit increase per quarter

B. Liabilities as a percentage of gross

C. Square footage of building per DVM

D. Hospital workflow

A

D. Hospital workflow

47
Q

Which is the correct term for a method of pricing that adjusts sales price of an item as contemporaneously as possible to the sale, based on its most current replacement acquisition cost regardless of how much was paid for the item?

A. Cost plus pricing
B. Market oriented pricing
C. Just in time pricing
D. Premium pricing

A

C. Just in time pricing

48
Q

Breakeven analysis is performed in order to adequately price a product. What is the formula for determining breakeven analysis?

A. Breakeven sales price = fixed costs + variable costs

B. Breakeven sales price = vendor costs + sales tax

C. Breakeven sales price = cost + 20%

D. Breakeven sales price = vendor costs + fixed costs

A

A. Fixed costs + variable costs

49
Q

If a shipping document enclosed with an inventory delivery states “FOB shipping point,” when would title/ownership of the inventory pass to the veterinary practice?

A. When the merchandise is shipped

B. When the merchandise is delivered to the practice

C. Upon receipt of payment

D. When the merchandise is delivered to the shipper

A

D. When the merchandise is delivered to the shipper

50
Q

What document is a legal agreement describing/defining events causing a partner/shareholder to sell his/her interest in the veterinary hospital, and the terms for resolving other interests and ownerships?

A. Shareholder buyout agreement
B. Buy-Sell agreement
C. Stock liquidation agreement
D. Partner dissolution agreement

A

B. Buy–Sell agreement

51
Q

Marketing focusing on existing clientele, aiming to strengthen their bond with the practice and increase their demand for veterinary services is known as what?

A.  marketing communication
B. Internal marketing
C. Patient focus marketing
D. External marketing

A

B. Internal marketing

52
Q

An insurance or prepaid service plan that pays for veterinary care provided to an animal for the purpose of preventing disease or promoting health is known as?

A. Prepaid veterinary care plan
B. Proactive for life plan
C. Wellness plan
D. Preventative health plan

A

C. Wellness plan

53
Q

What are the terms for employment called, whereby employees may quit and employers may terminate as a matter of their own preference unless a specific provision in an employment agreement states an agreed upon duration of employment?

A. At-will
B. Right to work
C. Termination clause
D. Employment termination settlement

A

A. At-will

54
Q

If the Human–Companion Animal Bond is extended to the veterinary healthcare team, what is the likely result of this bi-directional relationship?

A. Communication is improved and recommendations are more likely followed

B.  owners are likely to inappropriately emotionally attach themselves to their pets

C. Communication is weakened and recommendations are more likely rejected

D. Owners are likely to over-request unnecessary services in effort to gain attention

A

A. Communication is improved and recommendations are more likely followed

55
Q

Which veterinary regulatory agency addresses the issue of advertising and requires compliance with the “principles of veterinary medical ethics?”

A. Animal Advertising Ethics Committee AAEC

B. AAHA

C. American Veterinary Regulatory Authority AVRA

D. AVMA

A

D. AVMA

56
Q

Marketing that occurs through any unpaid communication conveyed through the media, like newspaper, radio, or TV, is known as what type of marketing?

A. Targeted letters
B. Personal selling
C. Publicity marketing
D. Special events

A

C. Publicity marketing

57
Q

The income statement reports the revenues and expenses for a period of time, based on what concept?

A. Alternating
B. Corresponding
C. Matching
D. Rotating

A

C. Matching

58
Q

Evergreen Animal Hospital issued a $5000 60-day note to the supplier, who discounted the note by 12%. What are the proceeds from this note?

A. $4900
B. $4400
C. $5000
D. $5100

A

A. $4900

Add face amount of note ($5000) + interest (5000x12%x60)/360 = 100

5000-100 = $4900

59
Q

What type of payroll tax is deducted from an employees gross wages, but doesn’t require matching employer contribution?

A. Social Security
B. Federal income
C. Medicare
D. Worker’s Comp.

A

B. Federal income

60
Q

When considering the activity of veterinary marketing, communicating and delivering value that both clients and potential clients will desire is a major goal. For the purpose of accomplishing this, what does “value” mean?

A. Creating excitement in the consumer to try a service

B. The service is worth something, a monetary amount

C. The benefit a consumer receives from buying your service

D. Practicing quality medicine

A

C. The benefit a consumer receives from buying your service

61
Q

Which of the following is an example of technical competency?

A. Completing requisite reports to state and federal agencies

B. Solving employee problems quickly

C. Knowledge of medical terminology used for auditing

D. Organizing employee files and maintaining confidentiality

A

C. Knowledge of medical term analogy used for auditing

62
Q

The process of establishing a cost-effective pay structure within an organization is called what?

A. Elective salary structure
B. Wage and salary charting
C. Pay scale
D. Compensation administration

A

D. Compensation administration

63
Q

A physiological deficiency that makes a certain outcome seem more favorable than others is called?

A. A need
B. A perception
C. A disorder
D. A preference

A

A. A need

64
Q

Assuming you are a practice manager whose hospital has a published handbook that describes the employee performance appraisal policy, what legal fact would you have to keep in mind?

A. A practice manager is able to apply performance appraisals as they see fit

B. An employee has legal rights under FSLA that limits performance feedback

C. Courts construe these published policies as binding contracts

D. A third-party must be present during an evaluation process to serve as witness in the event of a disagreement

A

C. Courts construe these publish policies as binding contracts

65
Q

Which division of the US Department of Labor is responsible for enforcing the Fair Labor and Standards Act?

A. Occupational Licensing Division
B. Code Enforcement Division
C. Wage and Hour Division
D. Labor Standards Division

A

C. Wage and Hour Division

66
Q

Under the ADA, an employer can NOT do which of the following?

A. Ask about an applicants ability to perform a job

B. Request an exam that is non-medical, in any situation

C. Request a physicians exam after a conditional offer of employment has been made

D. Ask about the nature of a disability

A

D. Ask about the nature of a disability

67
Q

What leadership theory attempts to explain the distinctive characteristics that account for leadership effectiveness?

A. Effective leadership theory
B. Leadership trait theory
C. Characteristic leadership theory
D. Group trait theory

A

B. Leadership trait theory

68
Q

A type of employee performance appraisal that is comprised of an employees strengths, weaknesses, past performances, and suggestions for improvement is known as what?

A. Written essay
B. Behaviorally anchored rating scale (BARS)
C. Intrinsic feedback
D. Group-order ranking

A

A. Written essay

69
Q

It is unethical to place which of the following at the disposal of any non-professional organization, group, or individual to promote or lend credibility to the illegal practice of veterinary medicine?

A. Serums or vaccines
B. Surgical equipment or medical supplies
C. Professional knowledge, credentials, or services
D. Veterinary medication, drugs

A

C. Professional knowledge, credentials, or services

70
Q

All of the following are minimum published standards, as established by AAHA, in regards to animal housing EXCEPT?

A. Patients are walked frequently enough to avoid accidents

B. Bedding is provided and is appropriate for the condition of the patient and relative to their size and weight

C. Patients should have adequate food/water at all times

D. Patients in the practice for medical care are segregated from those requiring other services like boarding, grooming, or socialization

A

C. Patients should have adequate food/water at all times

71
Q

The ability of a leader to influence their followers is based on which?

A. Ethics
B. Reinforcement techniques
C. Integrity
D. Control

A

C. Integrity

72
Q

Which of the following is NOT one of the norms for assessing ethical behavior?

A. Caring
B.  Rights
C. Compassion
D. Justice

A

C. Compassion

73
Q

According to the VHMA, what is the primary difference between an office manager and a practice manager?

A. An Office Manager primarily deals with the front desk, while the scope of a Practice Manager is hospital wide

B. An office manager is responsible for seeing that administrative policies are met and the practice manager is charged with the responsibility of managing business activities

C. Office managers are supervisors, practice managers are managers

D. Office managers don’t have a degree practice managers do

A

B.

74
Q

The ancillary services expense account (from AAHA chart of accounts) details expenses that occur from which of the activities?

A. Office visits
B. Surgery
C. Vaccinations
D. Boarding

A

D. Boarding

75
Q

Which of the following items poses the greatest challenge for maintaining an accurate perpetual inventory system?

A. Inventory shortage items
B. Items held for resale
C. Hospital consumables
D. Retail items

A

C. Hospital consumables

76
Q

Personal property taxes that are paid by the veterinary hospital for the value of inventory, insurance premiums, and pharmacy fees are an example of what type of inventory expense?

A. Ordering expense
B. Operational expense
C. Unit cost
D. Holding expense

A

D. Holding expense

77
Q

Inventory holding cost normally account for what percentage of inventory expense in the veterinary hospital?

A. 6 to 8%
B. 8 to 15%
C. 2 to 4%
D. 15 to 20%

A

B. 8 to 15%

78
Q

Which of the following choices represents the two greatest operational costs of veterinary hospitals?

A. Veterinarian salary and payroll
B. Staffing and inventory
C. Malpractice insurance and unemployment compensation insurance
D. Drugs and supplies

A

B. Staffing and inventory

79
Q

When recording info onto a patient’s medical records, which is the correct way to indicate (in abbreviated form) that a patient is to be given as much water as desired?

A. H2O free choice
B. Water NPO
C. Water BID q 4h
D. H2O ad lib

A

D. H2O ad lib

80
Q

Which of the following choices would be information that is included in the “subjective” section of the progress notes?

A. Info based on fact, not opinion

B. Sum of all info, whether based on opinion or fact

C. Info related to the owner’s observations, more opinion than fact

D. Info relating to differential diagnoses and tentative prognosis

A

C. Info related to the owner’s observations, more opinion than fact