Study Questions Flashcards

1
Q

At what stage of development are weeds easiest to control?

A

Small (seedlings)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are 4 types of pathogens that cause plant disease?

A

Fungi, bacteria, viruses, and nematodes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Why are established perennial weeds difficult to control?

A

Perennials spread extensively underground. They produce structures that help them survive unfavorable conditions, and are unaffected by most control methods.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

True or False: Pathogens can spread from diseased to healthy plants.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are 3 examples of ways pathogens can spread to different plants?

A

Wind, water, animals, people, equipment, soil, plant materials

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are two examples of animals that have both positive and negative impacts on plants?

A

Bats, Moles, Deer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

True or False: Federal and state laws protect many vertebrate animals.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Why is it important to correctly identify pests?

A

It insures that the plant or animal is indeed a pest, and what pest control methods will work best.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

True of False: The term pesticide only refers to insecticides?

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Why is it useful to know about the mode of action of the insecticides you are working with?

A

It helps you anticipate the results of an application, and the health effects of exposure.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

True or False: A residual pesticide may provide control of a pest for a period after application.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

True or False: All insecticides are cholinesterase inhibitors.

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is a disadvantage of broad spectrum insecticides?

A

They can kill non-target insects and animals.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What type of herbicide kills weeds after being absorbed and translocated within the plant?

A

Systemic Herbicide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What type of herbicide kills only the parts of the plant it comes into contact with?

A

Contact Herbicide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are three times describing the “timing” of herbicide application?

A

Pre-plant, pre-emergence, and post-emergence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

The pesticide formulation that contains the active ingredient, one petroleum solvent and an additive that helps it mix with water.

A

Emulsifiable Concentrate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

The pesticide that is a finely ground, dry formulation that is usually mixed with water, with agitation required.

A

Wettable Powder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

The pesticide that is a dry, ready to use formulation of very fine particles, usually with a low percentage of active ingredients.

A

Dust

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

The pesticide formulation that is a ready to use liquid, that contains solvents and active ingredients under pressure.

A

Ready to use aerosol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

The pesticide formulation that is dry with relatively large particles.

A

Granule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

The pesticide formulation that is active as a poisonous gas.

A

Fumigant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

The pesticide formulation that mixes food or another attractive substance with the active ingredients.

A

Bait

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Why does the Emulsifiable Concentrate formulation present greater skin absorption hazard than a Wettable Powder?

A

The petroleum solvent in the Emulsifiable Concentrate formulation facilitates the movement of chemical through the skin.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Why do granules sometimes present a hazard for birds?

A

Birds may mistake the granular particles for food.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Emulsifiable Concentrate or Wettable Powder:

You want to spray but are concerned about plant injury.

A

Wettable Powder because Emulsifiable Concentrates have a higher risk of phototoxicity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Emulsifiable Concentrate or Wettable Powder:

Your spray equipment has limited agitation.

A

Emulsifiable Concentrate because Wettable Powders require strong agitation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What are 4 routes of pesticide entry into the body?

A

Dermal, inhalation, eye and oral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Why is it important to cover cuts or skin rashes before handling pesticides?

A

Because broken or damaged skin can enhance the absorption of the pesticide through the skin.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

A Wettable Powder is likely to absorb into he skin (faster or slower) than an emulsifiable concentrate?

A

Slower

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

An example of a local effect that can result from pesticide exposure is?

A

Burns, rashes or blisters

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What type of pesticide poisoning occurs when a pesticide enters the body and causes symptoms away from the area of contact?

A

Systemic Poisoning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

How do acute and chronic exposure differ?

A

Acute is a single exposure, and Chronic is repeated exposure, usually with smaller amounts.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

How can an applicator reduce the risks associated with a pesticide procedure?

A

Reduce Exposure to the Pesticide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

The degree to which a pesticide is harmful or poisonous is known as what?

A

Toxicity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Which pesticide is the most acutely toxic based on it’s LD50 value?

a. 4,000
b. 15
c. 650
d. 150

A

b. 15, is the most toxic because it has the lowest LD50 value.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Which signal word indicates the product has the lowest levels of acute toxicity to people?

a. Warning
b. Danger-Poison
c. Caution
d. Danger
e. Skull & Crossbones

A

c. Caution

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

True or False: Poisoning by all types of pesticides cause the same symptoms.

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Why are pesticide poisonings hard to recognize?

A

Because the symptoms may resemble those cause by other problems. Also symptoms may not appear until hours after exposure.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What can you do to prepare yourself for any eye or skin exposure on the road?

A

Have a source of water readily available at all times.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What factors should you consider when deciding what protective clothing and equipment you need when handling a particular pesticide?

A

The pesticide label, SDS, the procedure, the site and your experience

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Cholinesterase tests are done to monitor exposure to which classes of insecticides?

A

Organophosphates and carbamates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Why are respirator fit tests needed?

A

They are done to ensure the respirator fits properly.

44
Q

Why is a respirator fit test done?

A

If it doesn’t fit well, the respirator will allow pesticide contaminated air to bypass the respirator.

45
Q

What material is NOT good for boots and gloves when working with pesticides?

A

Leather or Canvas

46
Q

Why should you wash your gloves before taking them off?

A

To avoid getting pesticides on your hands when you remove them.

47
Q

True or False: Respirator cartridges are specific as to the chemicals they prevent.

A

True

48
Q

You should never store clothing and protective equipment where?

A

Pesticide Storage Area

49
Q

List 4 criteria for the safe transportation of pesticides.

A

Pesticide containers should be:

  1. Kept Secured
  2. Kept in locked compartments
  3. Kept separate from passenger compartments
  4. Protected from extreme temperatures or the elements
50
Q

How do you know if a particular pesticide formulation has specific storage requirements?

A

Read the label and SDS, ask the manufacturer

51
Q

Why is it important to prevent pesticides from getting wet during transportation?

A

Moisture can corrode containers, destroy labels and make the pesticide unusable.

52
Q

What are some emergency items you need in case of an accident in mixing and storage?

A
  1. Source of clean water
  2. First aid kit
  3. Labels and SDS’s
  4. Protective Equipment
  5. Fire Extinguisher
53
Q

Why is metal shelving better for storage of pesticides than wooden shelving?

A

In case of a spill, chemicals are more easily removed from metal shelving

54
Q

You should never store pesticides in what?

A

In the applicator equipment, or in areas exposed to the elements.

55
Q

When mixing pesticides, always add what to the container before you add the concentrate or chemical?

A

Water

56
Q

What are 3 reasons for rinsing pesticide containers?

A
  1. Less pesticide is thrown away
  2. Less pesticide ends up in landfills
  3. Rinsing is required by the labels
57
Q

Under what regulatory act is it stated that properly rinsed containers are not considered hazardous waste?

A

RCRA (Resourse Conservation and Recovery Act)

58
Q

How can you avoid the disposal problem of excess spray mix?

A
  1. Measure the area
    2, Calculate the proper amount of spray mix needed
  2. Calibrate equipment
  3. Operate equipment properly
59
Q

What are 3 processes that can cause particles to move in the environment before or after application?

A

Particle Drift, Run Off, Leaching

60
Q

What environmental problems can be caused by pesticides?

A

Injury to non-target animals and plants, damage to surfaces, contamination of water, soil or air

61
Q

What is a step you can take to prevent environmental problems with pesticides?

A
  1. Diagnose pest problems correctly
  2. Use lowest rate to control pests
  3. select pesticides carefully
  4. transport, store and mix properly
  5. read labels for environmental hazards
62
Q

The best protection for groundwater pollution is what?

A

Prevention

63
Q

The type of pest control that uses numerous tactics is called what?

A

Integrated Pest Management

64
Q

Type of pesticide that includes naturally occurring and genetically altered microorganisms is called what?

A

Biological Pesticides

65
Q

Type of pesticides that are chemical rather than microbial, viral or other types of pest killers are called what?

A

Chemical Pesticide

66
Q

What term is used for chemical pesticides that are classified by the EPA as exempt materials?

A

Minimum Risk Pesticides

67
Q

The term for predators and parasites existing in the environment that attack pest species is called?

A

Natural Enemies

68
Q

What is one drawback from continued use of pesticides?

A

Pests becoming pesticide resistant

69
Q

What is the term used for the tolerances allowed for pests, in hospitals, food production and warehouses?

A

Zero Tolerance

70
Q

Management is the process of making decisions in a systematic way to keep pests from reaching what levels?

A

Unacceptable or Intolerable levels

71
Q

When a pesticide is ineffective on a pest this may be a sign that the pest has become what?

A

Resistant to the Pesticides

72
Q

Why can an IPM plan save money?

A

It can avoid unnecessary pesticide expense

73
Q

What is a positive effect of pesticides manufacturers raising applicator awareness about the level of risk involved with pesticides?

A

Maintaining a Good Public Image

74
Q

Why is pest identification so important to handling problems effectively?

A

Because certain management practices may effect one pest species and not another.

75
Q

What is the process of determining the potential of pest populations to reach action thresholds?

A

Assessment

76
Q

What is the process that can help you determine if weather conditions may be a factor in the development of diseases or insect pests?

A

Assessment

77
Q

Plowing, crop rotation, and removal of infected plant materials are exampled of what type of pest control method?

A

Cultural Controls

78
Q

The act that was passed in 2000 that reduces exposure to children to pesticides and limits pesticide use around schools, daycare centers and school age childcare facilities?

A

Children and Families protection Act

79
Q

How long should IPM’s be kept on the premises of a school and how often should it be reviewed?

A

IPM’s should be kept for 5 years and reviewed every year

80
Q

What is an exemption to the standard written notification rule?

A

Notification is not required if the facility will be empty for 5 consecutive days after the pesticide application

81
Q

What are the 4 types of licenses?

A

Dealers License
Commercial Certification
Private Certification
Applicators License

82
Q

Type of license that allows you to purchase and apply restricted use pesticides (RUP’s) for hire.

A

Commercial Certification

83
Q

Type of license that allows you to purchase and apply restricted use pesticides (RUP’s) only to your own property or to your employers.

A

Private Certification

84
Q

Type of license that allows you to apply general use pesticides for hire.

A

Applicator License

85
Q

Zone 2 Regulations stand for what?

A

Regulations set up to protect public drinking water wells from non point source contamination.

86
Q

What does the term RUP stand for?

A

Restricted Use Pesticide

87
Q

Right of way management puts what restriction on handling, mixing or loading of pesticides near sensitive areas?

A

You may not do it within 100 feet of sensitive areas

88
Q

a pesticide used to control mites and ticks.

A

Acaricide

89
Q

A finely ground charcoal that adsorbs chemicals is called what?

A

Activated Charcoal

90
Q

What is chemical or chemicals in a product responsible for pesticidal effects called?

A

Active Ingredient

91
Q

What is it called to have a predetermined level of pest infestation or damage in which some form of management must take place?

A

Action Threshold

92
Q

A liquid formulation that produces a mist or fog when applied from a container in which it is held under pressure or from a fog generation machine.

A

Aerosol

93
Q

The process of stirring or mixing the contents of a spray tank is called?

A

Agitation

94
Q

Type of equipment that uses a large volume of air moving at high speed to break up and disperse spray droplets from a nozzle.

A

Air Blast Sprayer

95
Q

A pesticide used to kill algae.

A

Algaecide

96
Q

A paint containing a pesticide that prevents aquatic organisms is called what?

A

Antifouling Paint

97
Q

What is a hypersensitivity to a specific substance, that is not due to a substances toxicity, called?

A

Allergic Effects

98
Q

A plant that completes its life cycle in one year is called what?

A

Annual

99
Q

A substance added to a pesticide to improve its effectiveness or safety is called ?

A

Adjuvant (additive)

100
Q

What is a pesticide that does not conform to a specified standard or quality as documented on it’s label called?

A

Adulterated Pesticide

101
Q

The amount of a pesticide that is applied to a known area, volume or animal is called?

A

Application Rate

102
Q

An antidote used to treat organophosphate or carbamate poisoning is called what?

A

Atropine

103
Q

What is the name for the unique, simplified name given to an active ingredient by a recognized committee?

A

Common Name

104
Q

Injury at the point in which exposure to a pesticide or chemicals occurred is called?

A

Contact Effect

105
Q

The technical name for an active ingredient derived from it’s chemical structure is called?

A

Chemical Name

106
Q

The application of small amounts of pesticide into cracks and crevices in a building such as along baseboards is called what?

A

Crack and Crevice Application