Study Material Flashcards
What course is afforded to medical department officers that are clinical providers before reporting to MARFOR in support of combat operations?
Advance Combat Life Support
What entity manages the course quota and management control for the successful development, training, and effectiveness for all HSS personnel?
NETC
Who is responsible for implementing a formal Sick Call Screeners Program?
CO
What minimum percentage of all electrical/electronic associated ratings aboard a ship are required to be certified in Basic Life Support?
50%
By what specific time each day should the commanding officer receive NAMED Form 6320/19?
0830-930
Commander, Navy Medicine East, Portsmouth, VA falls under which echelon?
3
What instruction provides specific guidelines to ensure that the professional conduct of a healthcare provider is not called into question?
BUMEDINST 6320.83
Which instruction provides policy regarding medical and dental treatment facilities customer relations program?
BUMEDINST 6300.10
In a joint operational environment, who is responsible for the management, validation, and coordination of patient movement?
PMRC
What database is normally used to submit patient movement requests in a joint operational environment?
TMIP
Guidance for the preparation and submission of dental special and periodic reports to MTEs can be found in what reference?
NAVMED P-117
Extension requests for directives should be submitted via action memorandum at what minimum number of days prior to the 5-year anniversary date?
90
When Army, Navy, and Air Force procedures differ regarding medical records, Navy custodians should comply with which services’ instructions?
Navy
Guidelines for examining a child with suspected abuse are contained in which instruction?
BUMEDINST 6320.70
For correspondence, how many lines below the signature block should you type the ‘Copy to’ block?
Two
Periodic health assessments will be considered overdue when not conducted within what maximum number of days following the annual due date?
90
When are reserve component personnel tested for HIV as part of a readiness laboratory study?
When called to active duty for more than 30 days, and if they have had no HIV test within the last 2 years
What term describes a deployable unit’s overall readiness status based on their training and platform billet assignment/fill rate?
R-status
What vaccination should direct and indirect care providers that come within three feet of patients receive and maintain?
Influenza
If the primary IA candidate is unable to fulfill their obligation, Echelon 3 has what maximum number of business days to activate an alternate?
1 Day
What readiness status measures the percentage of operational billets filled in EMPARTS?
P
The total AMAL/ADAL allocated to a marine expeditionary force is designed to provide support for what maximum number of days of combat?
60
If a BSO-18 Sailor chooses not to extend their PRD to match the redeployment date, what action should be taken?
Request inbound replacement to arrive early
Which platform has the highest manning priority?
MARFOR
Commanding officers for the Expeditionary Medical Facilities are recommended by what authority?
BUMED
What system does the Navy Medical Department use for filing health records?
TDFS
After a patient is deceased, where should the Autopsy be placed in the HREC?
Part II
Who is the responsible official for administering and supervising the execution of the Navy’s Privacy Act Program regarding the Health Care Treatment Record?
Surgeon General of the Navy
What SECNAV instruction governs the release of medical records to federal, state, or administrative bodies during litigation?
SECNAVINST 5820.8
An active duty health record is closed for which of the following reasons, and documented on what form?
(a) Prolonged inpatient care (b) SF 539
When a member is officially declared a deserter, where should a chronological history of ships and stations they were assigned to be documented?
NAVMED 6150/4
When a member is placed on the binnacle list, where should the entry be recorded?
SF 600
To document a patient’s signed consent for sedation, general anesthesia, and surgical treatment, which SF should be completed?
SF 522
Which medical records are maintained by specialty clinics or service departments?
Secondary
When documenting immunizations on the PHS-731, which entry requires an authentication stamp?
Yellow Fever
What type of TRICARE eligibility does DD Form 2876 pertain to?
Prime
When does TRICARE For Life coverage begin?
When Medicare Part A & B are effective
What is the annual maximum benefit coverage for non-orthodontic services under the TRICARE Dental Program, per enrollee?
$1,500
What option allows TRICARE Prime beneficiaries to pay additional out-of-pocket costs to receive non-emergency care from any TRICARE-authorized provider without requesting a referral?
POS
Authorized providers that are not part of the TRICARE network can charge beneficiaries up to what maximum percentage above the TRICARE-allowable charge for services?
15%
Under what TRICARE option is the beneficiary authorized to use a non-network provider?
Select
Patients requesting non-emergency treatment without a valid ID card must provide one within what maximum amount of time before being referred for billing?
30 days
Eligibility for care at MTEs is contained in which NAVMEDCOM instruction?
NAVMEDCOMINST 6320.3
Newborns should be registered in DEERS within what specific number of days CONUS and OCONUS?
(a) 90 (b) 120
Which personnel are authorized care with no prior military service under the DEERS eligibility exceptions list?
Secret service agents
Who is responsible for ensuring that target performance goals resulting from strategic planning processes and patient satisfaction surveys are met?
Navy Medicine Regions
Personnel should be subjected to disciplinary and administrative action when they violate which lawful general order?
Navy’s policy on drug abuse
After a service member from a special community returns to duty from TLD, when should a Medical Assessment Screening (MAS) report be submitted?
Within 15 days
All malpractice claims are subject to review under which program?
Customer Relations Program
After a Judge Advocate General investigation, how many years should inquiries records be retained?
2 Years
What references should be consulted for principles and standards set by the Joint Commission for starting up a QA Program?
OPNAVINST 6320.7 and BUMEDINST 6010.13
The annual assessment report is required to be submitted to BUMED by what date?
15 January
After an unprofessional customer interaction, which BUMED instruction should HM2 Brush refer to for detailed information about patient rights and responsibilities?
BUMEDINST 6300.10
Which authority conducts inspections on behalf of BUMED?
The Joint Commission
Which entities regulate medical ethics and patient confidentiality in laboratory practices?
Department of Health and Human Services
What instruction guides the HIPAA Privacy Rule?
DODINST 6025.18
Civilians requiring a medical examination for respirator use should complete which form?
OPNAV 5100/35
What color should High Efficiency Particulate Air (HEPA) filters used on a particulate air-purifying respirator be?
Magenta
What minimum oxygen percentage, by volume, should be present when using an air-purifying respirator?
19.5%
How frequently should the industrial hygiene survey be updated?
Every 3 years
How often should an individual enrolled in the Hearing Conservation Program have a hearing test performed?
Every year
Guidelines for the management of infectious waste are contained in which reference?
BUMEDINST 6280.1
A medical clinic providing occupational health exams has what maximum number of days to complete a pre-placement or formal fitness for duty exam?
7 Days
An area is considered at risk for potentially hazardous noise when there is continuous or intermittent noise greater than what specific dB?
84
Heat stress surveys that result in reduced stay times should be reviewed and initialed daily by whom?
CO
To determine the correct stay time using the PHEL curve, which OPNAV instruction should be used?
OPNAVINST 5100.19
All occupational injuries and illnesses are required to be reported through which system?
NDRSI
Hazard severity is divided into how many categories?
Four
Which disease is a major infectious occupational health hazard for all healthcare professions?
HBV
Hanging dry bulb thermometers should be placed how far from any supply ventilation terminal/opening?
2ft