Study Material Flashcards

1
Q

What course is afforded to medical department officers that are clinical providers before reporting to MARFOR in support of combat operations?

A

Advance Combat Life Support

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2
Q

What entity manages the course quota and management control for the successful development, training, and effectiveness for all HSS personnel?

A

NETC

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3
Q

Who is responsible for implementing a formal Sick Call Screeners Program?

A

CO

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4
Q

What minimum percentage of all electrical/electronic associated ratings aboard a ship are required to be certified in Basic Life Support?

A

50%

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5
Q

By what specific time each day should the commanding officer receive NAMED Form 6320/19?

A

0830-930

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6
Q

Commander, Navy Medicine East, Portsmouth, VA falls under which echelon?

A

3

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7
Q

What instruction provides specific guidelines to ensure that the professional conduct of a healthcare provider is not called into question?

A

BUMEDINST 6320.83

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8
Q

Which instruction provides policy regarding medical and dental treatment facilities customer relations program?

A

BUMEDINST 6300.10

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9
Q

In a joint operational environment, who is responsible for the management, validation, and coordination of patient movement?

A

PMRC

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10
Q

What database is normally used to submit patient movement requests in a joint operational environment?

A

TMIP

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11
Q

Guidance for the preparation and submission of dental special and periodic reports to MTEs can be found in what reference?

A

NAVMED P-117

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12
Q

Extension requests for directives should be submitted via action memorandum at what minimum number of days prior to the 5-year anniversary date?

A

90

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13
Q

When Army, Navy, and Air Force procedures differ regarding medical records, Navy custodians should comply with which services’ instructions?

A

Navy

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14
Q

Guidelines for examining a child with suspected abuse are contained in which instruction?

A

BUMEDINST 6320.70

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15
Q

For correspondence, how many lines below the signature block should you type the ‘Copy to’ block?

A

Two

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16
Q

Periodic health assessments will be considered overdue when not conducted within what maximum number of days following the annual due date?

A

90

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17
Q

When are reserve component personnel tested for HIV as part of a readiness laboratory study?

A

When called to active duty for more than 30 days, and if they have had no HIV test within the last 2 years

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18
Q

What term describes a deployable unit’s overall readiness status based on their training and platform billet assignment/fill rate?

A

R-status

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19
Q

What vaccination should direct and indirect care providers that come within three feet of patients receive and maintain?

A

Influenza

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20
Q

If the primary IA candidate is unable to fulfill their obligation, Echelon 3 has what maximum number of business days to activate an alternate?

A

1 Day

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21
Q

What readiness status measures the percentage of operational billets filled in EMPARTS?

A

P

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22
Q

The total AMAL/ADAL allocated to a marine expeditionary force is designed to provide support for what maximum number of days of combat?

A

60

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23
Q

If a BSO-18 Sailor chooses not to extend their PRD to match the redeployment date, what action should be taken?

A

Request inbound replacement to arrive early

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24
Q

Which platform has the highest manning priority?

A

MARFOR

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25
Q

Commanding officers for the Expeditionary Medical Facilities are recommended by what authority?

A

BUMED

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26
Q

What system does the Navy Medical Department use for filing health records?

A

TDFS

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27
Q

After a patient is deceased, where should the Autopsy be placed in the HREC?

A

Part II

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28
Q

Who is the responsible official for administering and supervising the execution of the Navy’s Privacy Act Program regarding the Health Care Treatment Record?

A

Surgeon General of the Navy

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29
Q

What SECNAV instruction governs the release of medical records to federal, state, or administrative bodies during litigation?

A

SECNAVINST 5820.8

30
Q

An active duty health record is closed for which of the following reasons, and documented on what form?

A

(a) Prolonged inpatient care (b) SF 539

31
Q

When a member is officially declared a deserter, where should a chronological history of ships and stations they were assigned to be documented?

A

NAVMED 6150/4

32
Q

When a member is placed on the binnacle list, where should the entry be recorded?

33
Q

To document a patient’s signed consent for sedation, general anesthesia, and surgical treatment, which SF should be completed?

34
Q

Which medical records are maintained by specialty clinics or service departments?

35
Q

When documenting immunizations on the PHS-731, which entry requires an authentication stamp?

A

Yellow Fever

36
Q

What type of TRICARE eligibility does DD Form 2876 pertain to?

37
Q

When does TRICARE For Life coverage begin?

A

When Medicare Part A & B are effective

38
Q

What is the annual maximum benefit coverage for non-orthodontic services under the TRICARE Dental Program, per enrollee?

39
Q

What option allows TRICARE Prime beneficiaries to pay additional out-of-pocket costs to receive non-emergency care from any TRICARE-authorized provider without requesting a referral?

40
Q

Authorized providers that are not part of the TRICARE network can charge beneficiaries up to what maximum percentage above the TRICARE-allowable charge for services?

41
Q

Under what TRICARE option is the beneficiary authorized to use a non-network provider?

42
Q

Patients requesting non-emergency treatment without a valid ID card must provide one within what maximum amount of time before being referred for billing?

43
Q

Eligibility for care at MTEs is contained in which NAVMEDCOM instruction?

A

NAVMEDCOMINST 6320.3

44
Q

Newborns should be registered in DEERS within what specific number of days CONUS and OCONUS?

A

(a) 90 (b) 120

45
Q

Which personnel are authorized care with no prior military service under the DEERS eligibility exceptions list?

A

Secret service agents

46
Q

Who is responsible for ensuring that target performance goals resulting from strategic planning processes and patient satisfaction surveys are met?

A

Navy Medicine Regions

47
Q

Personnel should be subjected to disciplinary and administrative action when they violate which lawful general order?

A

Navy’s policy on drug abuse

48
Q

After a service member from a special community returns to duty from TLD, when should a Medical Assessment Screening (MAS) report be submitted?

A

Within 15 days

49
Q

All malpractice claims are subject to review under which program?

A

Customer Relations Program

50
Q

After a Judge Advocate General investigation, how many years should inquiries records be retained?

51
Q

What references should be consulted for principles and standards set by the Joint Commission for starting up a QA Program?

A

OPNAVINST 6320.7 and BUMEDINST 6010.13

52
Q

The annual assessment report is required to be submitted to BUMED by what date?

A

15 January

53
Q

After an unprofessional customer interaction, which BUMED instruction should HM2 Brush refer to for detailed information about patient rights and responsibilities?

A

BUMEDINST 6300.10

54
Q

Which authority conducts inspections on behalf of BUMED?

A

The Joint Commission

55
Q

Which entities regulate medical ethics and patient confidentiality in laboratory practices?

A

Department of Health and Human Services

56
Q

What instruction guides the HIPAA Privacy Rule?

A

DODINST 6025.18

57
Q

Civilians requiring a medical examination for respirator use should complete which form?

A

OPNAV 5100/35

58
Q

What color should High Efficiency Particulate Air (HEPA) filters used on a particulate air-purifying respirator be?

59
Q

What minimum oxygen percentage, by volume, should be present when using an air-purifying respirator?

60
Q

How frequently should the industrial hygiene survey be updated?

A

Every 3 years

61
Q

How often should an individual enrolled in the Hearing Conservation Program have a hearing test performed?

A

Every year

62
Q

Guidelines for the management of infectious waste are contained in which reference?

A

BUMEDINST 6280.1

63
Q

A medical clinic providing occupational health exams has what maximum number of days to complete a pre-placement or formal fitness for duty exam?

64
Q

An area is considered at risk for potentially hazardous noise when there is continuous or intermittent noise greater than what specific dB?

65
Q

Heat stress surveys that result in reduced stay times should be reviewed and initialed daily by whom?

66
Q

To determine the correct stay time using the PHEL curve, which OPNAV instruction should be used?

A

OPNAVINST 5100.19

67
Q

All occupational injuries and illnesses are required to be reported through which system?

68
Q

Hazard severity is divided into how many categories?

69
Q

Which disease is a major infectious occupational health hazard for all healthcare professions?

70
Q

Hanging dry bulb thermometers should be placed how far from any supply ventilation terminal/opening?