Study Material

Question 1

What course is afforded to medical department officers that are clinical providers before reporting to MARFOR in support of combat operations?

Answer 1

Advance Combat Life Support

Question 2

What entity manages the course quota and management control for the successful development, training, and effectiveness for all HSS personnel?

Answer 2

NETC

Question 3

Who is responsible for implementing a formal Sick Call Screeners Program?

Answer 3

CO

Question 4

What minimum percentage of all electrical/electronic associated ratings aboard a ship are required to be certified in Basic Life Support?

Answer 4

50%

Question 5

By what specific time each day should the commanding officer receive NAMED Form 6320/19?

Answer 5

0830-930

Question 6

Commander, Navy Medicine East, Portsmouth, VA falls under which echelon?

Answer 6

3

Question 7

What instruction provides specific guidelines to ensure that the professional conduct of a healthcare provider is not called into question?

Answer 7

BUMEDINST 6320.83

Question 8

Which instruction provides policy regarding medical and dental treatment facilities customer relations program?

Answer 8

BUMEDINST 6300.10

Question 9

In a joint operational environment, who is responsible for the management, validation, and coordination of patient movement?

Answer 9

PMRC

Question 10

What database is normally used to submit patient movement requests in a joint operational environment?

Answer 10

TMIP

Question 11

Guidance for the preparation and submission of dental special and periodic reports to MTEs can be found in what reference?

Answer 11

NAVMED P-117

Question 12

Extension requests for directives should be submitted via action memorandum at what minimum number of days prior to the 5-year anniversary date?

Answer 12

90

Question 13

When Army, Navy, and Air Force procedures differ regarding medical records, Navy custodians should comply with which services’ instructions?

Answer 13

Navy

Question 14

Guidelines for examining a child with suspected abuse are contained in which instruction?

Answer 14

BUMEDINST 6320.70

Question 15

For correspondence, how many lines below the signature block should you type the ‘Copy to’ block?

Answer 15

Two

Question 16

Periodic health assessments will be considered overdue when not conducted within what maximum number of days following the annual due date?

Answer 16

90

Question 17

When are reserve component personnel tested for HIV as part of a readiness laboratory study?

Answer 17

When called to active duty for more than 30 days, and if they have had no HIV test within the last 2 years

Question 18

What term describes a deployable unit’s overall readiness status based on their training and platform billet assignment/fill rate?

Answer 18

R-status

Question 19

What vaccination should direct and indirect care providers that come within three feet of patients receive and maintain?

Answer 19

Influenza

Question 20

If the primary IA candidate is unable to fulfill their obligation, Echelon 3 has what maximum number of business days to activate an alternate?

Answer 20

1 Day

Question 21

What readiness status measures the percentage of operational billets filled in EMPARTS?

Answer 21

P

Question 22

The total AMAL/ADAL allocated to a marine expeditionary force is designed to provide support for what maximum number of days of combat?

Answer 22

60

Question 23

If a BSO-18 Sailor chooses not to extend their PRD to match the redeployment date, what action should be taken?

Answer 23

Request inbound replacement to arrive early

Question 24

Which platform has the highest manning priority?

Answer 24

MARFOR

Question 25

Commanding officers for the Expeditionary Medical Facilities are recommended by what authority?

Answer 25

BUMED

Question 26

What system does the Navy Medical Department use for filing health records?

Answer 26

TDFS

Question 27

After a patient is deceased, where should the Autopsy be placed in the HREC?

Answer 27

Part II

Question 28

Who is the responsible official for administering and supervising the execution of the Navy's Privacy Act Program regarding the Health Care Treatment Record?

Answer 28

Surgeon General of the Navy

Question 29

What SECNAV instruction governs the release of medical records to federal, state, or administrative bodies during litigation?

Answer 29

SECNAVINST 5820.8

Question 30

An active duty health record is closed for which of the following reasons, and documented on what form?

Answer 30

(a) Prolonged inpatient care (b) SF 539

Question 31

When a member is officially declared a deserter, where should a chronological history of ships and stations they were assigned to be documented?

Answer 31

NAVMED 6150/4

Question 32

When a member is placed on the binnacle list, where should the entry be recorded?

Answer 32

SF 600

Question 33

To document a patient's signed consent for sedation, general anesthesia, and surgical treatment, which SF should be completed?

Answer 33

SF 522

Question 34

Which medical records are maintained by specialty clinics or service departments?

Answer 34

Secondary

Question 35

When documenting immunizations on the PHS-731, which entry requires an authentication stamp?

Answer 35

Yellow Fever

Question 36

What type of TRICARE eligibility does DD Form 2876 pertain to?

Answer 36

Prime

Question 37

When does TRICARE For Life coverage begin?

Answer 37

When Medicare Part A & B are effective

Question 38

What is the annual maximum benefit coverage for non-orthodontic services under the TRICARE Dental Program, per enrollee?

Answer 38

$1,500

Question 39

What option allows TRICARE Prime beneficiaries to pay additional out-of-pocket costs to receive non-emergency care from any TRICARE-authorized provider without requesting a referral?

Answer 39

POS

Question 40

Authorized providers that are not part of the TRICARE network can charge beneficiaries up to what maximum percentage above the TRICARE-allowable charge for services?

Answer 40

15%

Question 41

Under what TRICARE option is the beneficiary authorized to use a non-network provider?

Answer 41

Select

Question 42

Patients requesting non-emergency treatment without a valid ID card must provide one within what maximum amount of time before being referred for billing?

Answer 42

30 days

Question 43

Eligibility for care at MTEs is contained in which NAVMEDCOM instruction?

Answer 43

NAVMEDCOMINST 6320.3

Question 44

Newborns should be registered in DEERS within what specific number of days CONUS and OCONUS?

Answer 44

(a) 90 (b) 120

Question 45

Which personnel are authorized care with no prior military service under the DEERS eligibility exceptions list?

Answer 45

Secret service agents

Question 46

Who is responsible for ensuring that target performance goals resulting from strategic planning processes and patient satisfaction surveys are met?

Answer 46

Navy Medicine Regions

Question 47

Personnel should be subjected to disciplinary and administrative action when they violate which lawful general order?

Answer 47

Navy's policy on drug abuse

Question 48

After a service member from a special community returns to duty from TLD, when should a Medical Assessment Screening (MAS) report be submitted?

Answer 48

Within 15 days

Question 49

All malpractice claims are subject to review under which program?

Answer 49

Customer Relations Program

Question 50

After a Judge Advocate General investigation, how many years should inquiries records be retained?

Answer 50

2 Years

Question 51

What references should be consulted for principles and standards set by the Joint Commission for starting up a QA Program?

Answer 51

OPNAVINST 6320.7 and BUMEDINST 6010.13

Question 52

The annual assessment report is required to be submitted to BUMED by what date?

Answer 52

15 January

Question 53

After an unprofessional customer interaction, which BUMED instruction should HM2 Brush refer to for detailed information about patient rights and responsibilities?

Answer 53

BUMEDINST 6300.10

Question 54

Which authority conducts inspections on behalf of BUMED?

Answer 54

The Joint Commission

Question 55

Which entities regulate medical ethics and patient confidentiality in laboratory practices?

Answer 55

Department of Health and Human Services

Question 56

What instruction guides the HIPAA Privacy Rule?

Answer 56

DODINST 6025.18

Question 57

Civilians requiring a medical examination for respirator use should complete which form?

Answer 57

OPNAV 5100/35

Question 58

What color should High Efficiency Particulate Air (HEPA) filters used on a particulate air-purifying respirator be?

Answer 58

Magenta

Question 59

What minimum oxygen percentage, by volume, should be present when using an air-purifying respirator?

Answer 59

19.5%

Question 60

How frequently should the industrial hygiene survey be updated?

Answer 60

Every 3 years

Question 61

How often should an individual enrolled in the Hearing Conservation Program have a hearing test performed?

Answer 61

Every year

Question 62

Guidelines for the management of infectious waste are contained in which reference?

Answer 62

BUMEDINST 6280.1

Question 63

A medical clinic providing occupational health exams has what maximum number of days to complete a pre-placement or formal fitness for duty exam?

Answer 63

7 Days

Question 64

An area is considered at risk for potentially hazardous noise when there is continuous or intermittent noise greater than what specific dB?

Answer 64

84

Question 65

Heat stress surveys that result in reduced stay times should be reviewed and initialed daily by whom?

Answer 65

CO

Question 66

To determine the correct stay time using the PHEL curve, which OPNAV instruction should be used?

Answer 66

OPNAVINST 5100.19

Question 67

All occupational injuries and illnesses are required to be reported through which system?

Answer 67

NDRSI

Question 68

Hazard severity is divided into how many categories?

Answer 68

Four

Question 69

Which disease is a major infectious occupational health hazard for all healthcare professions?

Answer 69

HBV

Question 70

Hanging dry bulb thermometers should be placed how far from any supply ventilation terminal/opening?

Answer 70

2ft