JAN 2025 Flashcards

1
Q

What form is for personnel working with nuclear weapons?

A

NAVMED 6470/13, Ionizing Radiation Medical Examination

This form is used to assess the medical suitability of personnel exposed to ionizing radiation.

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2
Q

What is the maximum interval for cervical cancer screening (pap smear)?

A

3 years

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3
Q

What instruction/program governs medical requirements for physician special duty?

A

MANMED

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4
Q

At what minimum interval must command safety stand downs be conducted?

A

Every 12 months

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5
Q

Periodic Industrial Hygiene surveys are completed at what interval?

A

Every 3 years

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6
Q

What form is used to report unsafe/unhealthful conditions?

A

OPNAV 5100/11

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7
Q

Hazards/Injuries/Mishaps are reported into what system?

A

WESS

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8
Q

The NAVMED 6320/19 is submitted to the CO by what time daily?

A

1000

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9
Q

What is the minimum distance a WGBT must be hung from a supply ventilation opening?

A

3 feet

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10
Q

How are eye hazards and PPE evaluated?

A

Baseline Industrial Hygiene Survey

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11
Q

How often is respirator training given?

A

Every year

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12
Q

What is the maximum level of oxygen volume for a respirator?

A

(19.5 to 22 percent by volume)

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13
Q

What program seeks to prevent work-related musculoskeletal disorders and injuries?

A

Ergonomics

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14
Q

What is the Medical Surveillance and Reporting Instruction?

A

NMCPHC-TM 6220.12

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15
Q

Reportable Medical Events are submitted to what system?

A

DRSi

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16
Q

What has acute swelling of the parotid or other salivary glands lasting 2 days?

A

Mumps

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17
Q

What medical condition can be associated with the Pertussis vaccine?

A

Whooping Cough

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18
Q

What medical condition must be reported as a medical event within 24 hours?

A

Measles/Rubeola

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19
Q

What program provides search and recovery of remains?

A

Graves Registration

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20
Q

What is considered a secondary expense?

A

Opening and closing the grave site

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21
Q

If the PNOK does not utilize the armed forces for funeral expenses, what form is filled out?

A

DD 1375

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22
Q

If a dependent residing with an active duty service member dies overseas, what is not covered?

A

Escort

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23
Q

What is put on a gravestone/inscribed in an urn?

A

Name, Grade/Rate, Date of Birth, Date of Death, and Branch of Service

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24
Q

If a death occurs in Guam, what must be filled out?

A

DD 2064

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25
Q

If a retiree is eligible and appointed as an escort, what status do they get?

A

Civilian escort/Special escort

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26
Q

What happens to the flag that drapes the casket during the funeral?

A

Give back to the activity arranging transportation of remains NOT to PNOK

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27
Q

What instruction/manual is for radiation health?

A

NAVMED P-5055

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28
Q

What is the unit for absorbed dose?

A

Rad

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29
Q

NDC uses what system for reporting ionizing radiation?

A

NARER

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30
Q

What is the deadline for submitting the annual report for ionizing radiation?

A

April 1st

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31
Q

MSD valve handles and operating levers must be color coded what?

A

Gold

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32
Q

Berthing aboard ships must be inspected at a minimum how often?

A

Quarterly

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33
Q

How often is the FAC/Bromine/Halogen for shipboard water tested?

A

Daily

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34
Q

EPRC should meet how often?

A

Quarterly/Semi annually

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35
Q

What form is used for equipment costing $100K to less than $250K?

A

NAVMED 6700/13

36
Q

What form is used to report any medical equipment that is suspected defective or unsatisfactory?

A

SF 364

37
Q

What form is used for equipment requested under $100K by the USNS Comfort?

A

NAVMED 6700/18

38
Q

What form is used for equipment requested over $100K by the USNS Comfort?

A

NAVMED 6700/19

39
Q

CSIB how often for schedule I and II drugs?

A

Quarterly

40
Q

Who authorizes the destruction of medications?

A

CO

41
Q

Light duty cannot exceed how many days without a PEB?

A

90 days

42
Q

What is the Medical Board Report Form?

A

NAVMED 6100/5

43
Q

How many officers and HMs are assigned to a BAS?

A

2 medical officers and 65 HMs

44
Q

What class is AMAL/ADALS?

A

Class VIII

45
Q

Where can guidance for Class VIII Blood Products be found?

A

In the MCTP 3-40A and DODI 6480.4

46
Q

If Class VIII is depleted/used, who provides logistical support?

A

SIMLM, LCE/MEDLOGCO

47
Q

What course is offered to a medical officer deploying with Marine Forces (MARFOR)?

A

Advanced Cardiac Life Support

48
Q

What is the AMAL triage equipment number?

A

631

49
Q

Who manages the Armed Services Blood Program (ASBPO)?

A

Army

50
Q

What is the first thing that must be done during the En Route Care?

A

???

51
Q

If emergent blood collection is required, who is utilized?

A

Donors pre-screened within the past 90 days with an approved FDA screening

52
Q

What agent has a ‘feeling of oily rain’?

A

Blister agent

53
Q

When decontaminating a patient, what should be done after each cut on a garment?

A

The cutting tools and gloves must be decontaminated

54
Q

What detector automatically detects and alarms at the presence of nerve, blister, and blood agents?

A

JCAD

55
Q

How do you decontaminate a military working dog (MWD) if they were exposed but asymptomatic?

A

Wash with warm soapy water and RSDL if suspected exposure to mustard gas

56
Q

Who implements a formal sick call screener program?

A

CO

57
Q

What does BUMEDINST 6440.5D Augmentation Program apply to?

A

BSO-18 personnel

58
Q

What system is used to monitor training and readiness status for deployments?

A

EMPARTS

59
Q

If a member does not wish to extend their PRD to meet deployment requirements, what is done next?

A

Request inbound permanent replacement to come early

60
Q

For extensions on taskers, Echelon 3 commands have how many business days to submit an extension?

A

3 business days

61
Q

What is the Customer Relations Instruction?

A

BUMEDINST 6300.10C

62
Q

How often do Customer Relations Representatives submit reports to the Customer Relations Officer?

A

Quarterly

63
Q

Who assigns a project officer for Medical Home Port for facilities and equipment assessments/expertise?

A

BUMED M4 Logistics

64
Q

If a Medical Home Port team has 3 providers, how many must be a physician?

A

One

65
Q

In a Medical Home Port, who is responsible for the career progression and Sailorization of enlisted personnel?

A

Senior Enlisted Leader (SEL)

66
Q

Acute appointment types (ACUT) must be seen within?

A

24 hours

67
Q

What is the instruction for infectious wastes?

A

BUMEDINST 6280.1C

68
Q

Training records for medical waste are retained for how long?

A

Retained for 3 years

69
Q

Who counsels members on possible immunization exemption effects on the member’s career?

A

Commander/Commanding Officer

70
Q

Vaccines must be entered into the ITS within?

A

Within 24 hours

71
Q

What is the instruction for Tuberculosis?

A

BUMEDINST 6224.8C

72
Q

Who can change infection control guidelines for the command?

A

CO and Infection Control Officer

73
Q

What is the Command Inspection Program Instruction?

A

BUMEDINST 5040.2D

74
Q

Follow-up/RFI’s for MEDIG are reported on what form and must be submitted within?

A

OPNAV form 5040/2 and 90 days

75
Q

What triage category requires attention within minutes to 2 hours?

A

Immediate

76
Q

A patient with an uncomplicated closed wrist fracture falls under what triage category?

A

Minimal

77
Q

What patient falls under the immediate category?

A

Retrobulbar hematoma

78
Q

A patient with an uncomplicated closed femur fracture falls under what triage category?

A

Delayed

79
Q

Who should be the triage officer?

A

Surgeon with experience in dealing with combat trauma

80
Q

What is an Anti-Malaria drug?

A

Primaquine / Doxycycline

81
Q

What is the Correspondence Manual Instruction?

A

SECNAV p5216.5

82
Q

Pre-Deployment Health Assessment can be completed NET?

A

120 days

83
Q

What is the Navy Records Management Instruction?

A

SECNAVINST 5210.8

84
Q

An oral condition that has the potential but is not expected to become an emergency is what dental class?

A

Class 2

85
Q

If a patient arrives with no ID card but is in DEERS, how many days until billed as Civilian Humanitarian?

A

30 days