Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Spinal Anatomy 2 PCC > Study Guide Questions- Exam 4 > Flashcards

Study Guide Questions- Exam 4 Flashcards

1
Q

What are the generic parts of a spinal nerve?

A

ventral and dorsal nerve rootlets, ventral and dorsal nerve roots, dorsal nerve root ganglion, mixed spinal nerve, and ventral and dorsal primary nerve rami or divisions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What specific types of nerve fibers may be associated with spinal nerves?

A

a) somatic efferent fibers b) preganglionic visceral, involuntary or autonomic efferent fibers c) postganglionic visceral, involuntary or autonomic efferent fibers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What parts of the peripheral nerve system will contain peripheral sensory processes?

A

mixed spinal nerve, ventral primary ramus/division, dorsal primary ramus/division

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What parts of the peripheral nerve system will contain central sensory processes?

A

dorsal nerve root and dorsal nerve rootlets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are the ultimate target cells of the somatic efferent pathways?

A

skeletal muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are the ultimate target cells of the visceral efferent pathways?

A

smooth muscle, cardiac muscle, glandular tissue, and some unique specialized cell types

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What cord levels will contain somatic efferent neurons?

A

cord levels C1 - Co1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What skeletal muscles are specifically innervated via dorsal primary rami/division?

A

splenius, erector spinae, transversospinalis, suboccipital, interspinalis, intertransversarii, & levator costarum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What skeletal muscle is innervated via both ventral primary rami/divisions and dorsal primary rami/divisions?

A

the intertransversarii

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Skeletal muscle located on the dorsal side of the extremities will be innervated by which spinal ramus or division branches?

A

ventral primary ramus/division branches

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are the subdivisions of the visceral division of the peripheral nerve system?

A

sympathetic, parasympathetic and enteric

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the location for the enteric nerve system?

A

along the gastrointestinal tract and organ system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the location of the myenteric plexus of Auerbach?

A

between the longitudinal and circular muscle layers along the entire gut

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What function is primarily emphasized for the myenteric plexus of Auerbach?

A

peristaltic activity along the gastrointestinal tract

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the location of the submucosal plexus of Meissner?

A

between the circular muscle layer and the muscularis mucosa layer of the gut

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Which enteric plexus lies between the circular muscle layer and the muscularis mucosa layer of the gut?

A

submucosal plexus of Meissner

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What function is primarily emphasized for the submucosal plexus of Meissner?

A

influence on the process of secretion/absorption of the gut

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What locations of the gastrointestinal tract are most influenced by parasympathetics?

A

the most proximal and distal parts of the gastrointestinal tract

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

The superior cervical ganglion is the result of fusion of which paravertebral ganglia?

A

C1-C4 paravertebral ganglia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

The middle cervical ganglion is the result of fusion of which paravertebral ganglia?

A

C5, C6 paravertebral ganglia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

The inferior cervical ganglion is the result of fusion of which paravertebral ganglia?

A

C7-C8 paravertebral ganglia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

The stellate ganglion is the result of fusion of which paravertebral ganglia?

A

C7, C8, T1 paravertebral ganglia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

The stellate ganglion will communicate with which spinal nerves?

A

ventral primary rami of C7, C8 and T1 spinal nerves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Which sympathetic ganglia are located in front of the vertebral body?

A

prevertebral sympathetic ganglia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What are the names of the most consistent prevertebral ganglia?

A

celiac ganglion, superior mesenteric ganglion, and inferior mesenteric ganglion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Which of the prevertebral nerve plexuses are more likely to contain secondary sympathetic neurons cell bodies?

A

cardiac plexus, pulmonary plexus, celiac plexus, and inferior hypogastric (pelvic) plexus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

How are the remaining nerve plexuses named?

A

according to the name of the blood vessel they accompany

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Based on the target cell innervated, what are the classifications given to postganglionic sympathetic efferent fibers?

A

vasomotor fiber, pilomotor fiber, sudomotor fiber, and secretomotor fiber

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is the target of postganglionic sympathetic pilomotor fibers?

A

smooth muscle of hair follicles; the erector pili muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is the target of postganglionic sympathetic sudomotor fibers?

A

specialized cells of sudorific glands or sweat glands

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

How are white fibers classified and to what is their color due?

A

preganglionic sympathetic efferent fibers which are myelinated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Preganglionic sympathetic efferent fibers will bundle together to form what structure which attaches to the paravertebral sympathetic ganglion?

A

white ramus communicans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Postganglionic sympathetic efferent fibers will bundle together to form what structure which attachesto the paravertebral sympathetic ganglion?

A

gray ramus communicans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What forms the sympathetic trunk or sympathetic chain?

A

the interganglionic rami communicans and paravertebral sympathetic ganglia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What does the splanchnic nerve unite?

A

paravertebral sympathetic ganglia to the prevertebral sympathetic ganglion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What rami will communicate with the paravertebral ganglia?

A

white rami communicans, gray rami communicans, interganglionic rami communicans, and splanchnic nerves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What rami or nerves will communicate with prevertebral ganglia?

A

splanchnic nerves and nerves to the target organs (gastric nerve)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Pelvic splanchnic nerves will connect to what structures?

A

sacral ventral rami or the sacral nerve plexus and the target organ

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Preganglionic sympathetic efferent fibers will pass through what neuronal structures to enter a paravertebral ganglion?

A

lateral horn, ventral horn, white matter of the cord, ventral nerve rootlet, ventral nerve root, mixed spinal nerve, ventral primary ramus, white ramus communicans, paravertebral ganglion of origin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What is the termination of the horizontal sympathetic neuronal pathway?

A

smooth muscle or glandular tissue in the parietal wall of the thorax and upper abdomen;
territory roughly corresponding to the T1-T12, L1-L2 dermatomes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What is the termination of the ascending sympathetic neuronal pathway?

A

smooth muscle or glandular tissue in the head, neck and upper extremity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

In the ascending pathway, what is the location of synapse of the preganglionic sympathetic efferent fiber?

A

In a paravertebral ganglion higher than the paravertebral ganglion of origin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

List, in order, the pathway of the postganglionic sympathetic efferent fiber of the ascending pathway which synapses on an erector pili muscle on the back of the upper extremity.

A

paravertebral ganglion of synpase, gray ramus communicans, ventral primary ramus, synapse on erector pili muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What is the termination of the descending sympathetic neuronal pathway?

A

smooth muscle or glandular tissue in the parietal wall of the lower abdomen, pelvis and lower extremity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

In the descending pathway, what is the location of synapse of the preganglionic sympathetic efferent fiber?

A

in a paravertebral ganglion lower than the paravertebral ganglion of origin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Upper and lower extremities are innervated with sympathetics exclusively derived from which ramus or division?

A

ventral primary ramus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

In the splanchnic pathway, what is the location of synapse of the preganglionic sympathetic efferent fiber?

A

in a prevertebral ganglion or prevertebral plexus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What is the cord level origin of the sympathetic neruonal pathway to the vertebral artery?

A

upper thoracic spinal cord levels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Where will preganglionic sympathetic efferent fibers synapse in the pathway to the vertebral artery?

A

inferior cervical ganglion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What is the cord level origin of the sympathetic neuronal pathway to the head?

A

upper thoracic spinal cord levels T1-T2 typically

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Where will preganglionic sympathetic efferent fibers synapse in the pathway to the head?

A

superior cervical ganglion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What is the cord level origin of the sympathetic neuronal pathway to the heart?

A

thoracic spinal cord levels T1-T4, T5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Where will preganglionic sympathetic efferent fibers synapse in the pathway to the heart?

A

(1) paravertebral ganglia of origin from T1-T4, T5
(2) any cervical paravertebral ganglion
(3) the cardiac plexus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Postganglionic sympathetic efferent fibers may become incorporated in what neuronal structures after the paravertebral ganglion of origin in the pathway to the heart?

A

cardiac splanchnic nerves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What is the embryonic derivative of the adrenal gland?

A

the adrenal cortex is derived from mesoderm

the adrenal medulla is derived from neural ectoderm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What cell population of the adrenal medulla represents neural ectoderm?

A

chromaffin cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Preganglionic sympathetic efferent fibers in the pathway to the adrenal gland will be incorporated in what neuronal structures?

A

the sympathetic pathway to the paravertebral ganglion of origin, then into the lesser splanchnic, least splanchnic, and lumbar splanchnic nerves, finally in the adrenal nerve to the adrenal gland

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Where will preganglionic sympathetic efferent fibers synapse in the adrenal gland pathway?

A

chromaffin cells of the adrenal medulla

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Primary parasympathetic efferent neurons will be associated with which spinal nerves?

A

spinal nerves S2-S4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What is the location for a spinal nerve secondary parasympathetic efferent neuron?

A

typically an intramural ganglion or neural plexus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Which splanchnic nerves contain preganglionic parasympathetic efferent fibers?

A

nervi erigentes or pelvic splanchnic nerves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What is the location of the intramural parasympathetic ganglion?

A

on or in the wall of the target organ

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Do spinal nerves typically contain postganglionic parasympathetic efferent fibers?

A

no

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What is the name of the largest medullary feeder artery?

A

the artery of Adamkiewicz or the arteria radicalis magna anterior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What are the characteristics of the Artery of Adamkiewicz?

A

it is a left side, anterior medullary feeder artery, located in the T9/T10 intervertebral foramen, and the primary vascular supply to the lumbar enlargement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What will the intervertebral veins drain into?

A

the external vertebral venous plexus or Batson’s plexus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What is a unique histological feature of the veins of the vertebral column?

A

they appear to lack valves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What are the specific attachment sites for a cervicial spinal nerve?

A

the sulcus for the ventral primary ramus on the costotransverse bar & the vertebral artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

What forms teh lumobsacral tunnel?

A

the lumbosacral ligament, transverse process of L5 and sacral ala

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What condition is the result of encroachment on the L5 spinal nerve?

A

the far out syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

What ligament may contribute to the loss of size in the lumbar intervertebral foramen?

A

the transforaminal ligament

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

What is more likely the cause of nerve irritation at the sacral intervertebral foramen?

A

the tilt or position of the entire sacrum relative to the pelvis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

What are some examples of destructive lesions of the vertebral body?

A

tuberculosis, hemangiomas, osteoporosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

What may reduce the impact of intervertebral disc loss of integrity on the intervertebral foramen in the cervical and thoracic spine?

A

the joint of Luschka in the cervicals, the costocentral joint in the thoracics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

What are examples of acquired alterations of the spinal curves identified in class?

A

obesity, pregnancy and the use of backpacks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Identify the common ligaments of the vertebral column

A

the 9 common ligaments are the anterior longitudinal ligament, intervertebral disc, posterior longitudinal ligament, ligamentum flavum, capsular ligament, interspinous ligament, ligamentum nuchae, supraspinous ligament and intertransverse ligament

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

What is the reason that nine common ligaments are identified but only eight will be attached at any specific vertebral couple?

A

the ligamentum nuchae and supraspinous ligaments attach to the spinous tubercles, but only one of these will be identified at a single vertebral couple

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

In the fetus, which vertebral levels will demonstrate intervertebral discs?

A

those between C2 and Co1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

What percent of the vertebral column length is contributed by the intervertebral disc?

A

twenty to twenty-five percent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

What is the length of the intervertebral disc contribution to the vertebral column length?

A

about seven inches

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

What is the percent of the intervertebral disc height contribution to cervical region length?

A

cervical… 22-25%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

What is the contribution of the nucleus pulposus to intervertebral disc cross-section area?

A

about forty percent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

What is the organizational pattern for glycosaminoglycans int he lumbar nucleus pulposus?

A

they typically lack a binding site for hyaluronic acid and are thus non-aggregated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Which type of collagen is dominant in the annulus fibrosus?

A

collagen type 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

What is the organizational patter for collagen fibers in the annulus fibrosus?

A

they are parallel with one another in a single lamellus and angled

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

What is the organization of collagen fibers between lamellae?

A

collagen fibers will be angled in the opposite direction such that a spiral- counterspiral organization is observed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

What is the cartilage end plate derived from?

A

the epiphyseal plate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

What is the principal type of collagen fiber within the cartilage end plate?

A

the type II collagen fiber

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

What is the direction of collagen fibers within the cartilage end plate?

A

collagen fibers are aligned anterior to posterior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

What are the types of receptor endings in the intervertebral disc?

A

nociceptors and proprioceptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

What is the relationship between size of the intervertebral disc and receptor endings?

A

the larger the disc, the greater the variety of receptor endings

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

What are the sources of innervation of the intervertebral disc?

A

the sinu-vertebral nerve (sinus vertebral nerve, recurrent meningeal nerve)
fibers from the ventral primary ramus, fibers from the white ramus communicans, fibers from the paradiscal ramus communicans, fibers form the gray ramus communicans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

What is the name given to the white ramus communicans which becomes embedded within the annulus fibrosus of the intervertebral disc?

A

the paradiscal ramus communicans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

What neural plexus is formed, in part, by fibers from the paradiscal ramus communicans?

A

the lateral neural plexus of the vertebral column

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

What is the relationship between aging and cervical spine nerve root characteristics?

A

the length of the nerve root increases as it descends from its apparent origin on the spinal cord, but the cross-sectional area of the nerve root decreases

96
Q

What are the division of the embryonic somite?

A

the sclerotome, myotome, and dermatome

97
Q

What part of the somite will form the vertebral column?

A

the sclerotome

98
Q

What structure is formed following migration of sclerotomes to surround the notochord?

A

the perichordal blastema

99
Q

What is formed within the perichordal blastema between the sclerotomites?

A

the intrasclerotomal fissure or fissure of von Ebner

100
Q

What does the intrasclerotomal fissure or fissure of von Ebner become?

A

the perichordal disc

101
Q

What structure forms following migration and subsequent mixing of the sclerotomites?

A

the vertebral blastema

102
Q

What part of the intervertebral disc will the notochord form?

A

the nucleus pulposus

103
Q

What part of the intervertebral disc will the perichordal disc form?

A

the annulus fibrosus

104
Q

What is the earliest indicator of the position of the adult intervertebral disc?

A

the intrasclerotomal fissure or fissure of von Ebner

105
Q

What is the function of the anterior longitudinal ligament?

A

it brakes or limits or limits dorsi-flexion or hyperextension of the vertebral column

106
Q

What was ossification of of the anterior longitudinal ligament in the lumbar region identified as?

A

Forestier’s Disease

107
Q

What is ossification of the anterior longitudinal ligament in the lumbar region now identified as?

A

Diffuse Idiopathic Skeletal Hyperostosis or DISH

108
Q

Newer research suggests what regional variation in the posterior longitudinal ligament?

A

prominent in the cervicals, occasional in the thoracics, rare in the lumbars

109
Q

What is the function of the posterior longitudinal ligament?

A

it brakes or limits flexion of the vertebral column

110
Q

Where is ossification of the posterior longitudinal ligament most commonly identified?

A

the cervical spine with an 80% incidence

111
Q

What is the gender, age, and ethnic bias associated with ossification of the posterior longitudinal ligament?

A

it is greater in males over 50 and has a higher incidence in the Japanese

112
Q

What is the acronym for ossification of the posterior longitudinal ligament?

A

OPLL

113
Q

At one time ossification of the posterior longitudinal ligament was an example of what condition?

A

Diffuse Idiopathic Skeletal Hyperostosis or DISH

114
Q

what is the name given to the ligamentum flavum based on appearance and histology?

A

it is a yellow elastic ligament

115
Q

What is now thought to be a major function of the ligamentum flavum?

A

it is an early prime factor in extension of the vertebral column

116
Q

What is the relationship between the capsular ligament and mobility?

A

the more lax/loose the capsular ligament is, the greater the motion of the joint

117
Q

If the zygapophyseal capsular ligament is not significantly involved in restricting motion what is its’ function?

A

it is probably involved in proprioceptive feedback to the muscles stabilizing the vertebral couple during movement

118
Q

What is now thought to be a major function of the interspinous ligament?

A

it is more likely a proprioceptive transducer for the spinal reflex

119
Q

What is the name given to the superficial layer of the ligamentum nuchae?

A

the funicular layer or part

120
Q

What is the name given to the deep layer of the ligamentum nuchae?

A

the lamellar layer or part

121
Q

What are the attachment sites for the superficial layer of the ligamentum nuchae?

A

the external occipital protuberance, external occipital crest, and spinous tubercle of C7

122
Q

What is the histological make-up of the human ligamentum nuchae?

A

it is a yellow elastic ligament, but has more collagen fibers than in quadrupeds

123
Q

What is the termination level inferiorly for the supraspinous ligament according to current literature?

A

primarily at L4 (73%); between L4 & L5 (5%)

124
Q

Where is the supraspinous ligament said to be best developed?

A

in the lumbar spine

125
Q

What is now thought to be a major function of the supraspinous ligament?

A

it is a proprioceptive transducer for the spinal reflex

126
Q

What forms the ventral slip of the intertransverse ligament in the lumbar spine?

A

A membranous partition from the vertebral body covers the intervertebral foramen and extends back to the transverse process to form a ventral slip. It is penetrated by the contents of the intervertebral foramen.

127
Q

What forms the dorsal slip of the intertransverse ligament in the lumbar spine?

A

A thick partition extends from the lamina and articular processes and extends laterally to blend with the ventral slip to form a septum separating the anterior muscles from the posterior muscles of the body wall.

128
Q

What are the attachment sites of the posterior atlanto-occipital ligament?

A

it is attached to the arcuate rim of the posterior arch of C1, to the superior articular process of the lateral mass of C1 and to the posterior margin of the foramen magnum of the occipital bone

129
Q

What amount of flexion-extension is accommodated by the atlanto-occipital joint?

A

about twenty-five degrees

130
Q

What amount of axial rotation is accommodated by the atlanto-occipital joint?

A

about three to eight degrees one side axial rotation

131
Q

What amount of lateral bending is accommodated by the atlanto-occipital joint?

A

about five degrees

132
Q

What is the ADI?

A

the Atlanto-Dental Interspace, a radiographic distance between the surfaces of the anterior bursa of the median atlanto-axial joint

133
Q

What is the ADI of children compared with that of adults?

A

about 4.5 mm in children; a range of 2-3 mm or about 2.5 mm in adults

134
Q

What are the degrees of movement facilitated at the atlanto-axial joint?

A

about 20 degrees flexion-extension, 40 degrees on side axial rotation, and 5 degrees of lateral bending

135
Q

The occiput-C1-C2 joint complex accounts for what percent of all cervical axial rotation?

A

about 60%

136
Q

What ligament attaches to the anterior margin of the foramen magnum and the tip of the odontoid process of C2?

A

the apical ligament of the dens or the apicodental ligament

137
Q

What is the embryonic derivative of the apical ligament of the dens or the apicodental ligament?

A

the notochord

138
Q

What is the function of the alar ligament?

A

together they function to resist axial rotation

139
Q

What ligament attaches to the posterior part of the inferior epiphyseal rim and vertebral body of C2 and the anterior rim of the foramen magnum?

A

the membrana tectoria or tectorial membrane

140
Q

What are the layers of the membrana tectoria or tectorial membrane?

A

a superficial layer and deep layer are identified

141
Q

List, in order, the ligaments in a midsagittal plane from the dura mater at the level of the medulla oblongata to the anterior bursa of the median atlanto-axial joint.

A

the membrana tectoria or tectorial membrane;
the cruciate ligament;
the capsular ligament of the posterior bursa of the median atlanto-axial joint;
the apical dental ligament of the dens or the apicodental ligament

142
Q

An intra-articular ligament will be identified with which ribs?

A

ribs 2-9

143
Q

Which vertebrae will have a synovial (diarthrosis) arthrodia costotransverse joint?

A

typically T1-T10

144
Q

At what rib will the superior costotransverse ligament be absent?

A

the first rib

145
Q

What ligament will attach to the collum of the twelfth rib?

A

the superior costotransverse ligament from T11 and the lumbocostal ligament from L1

146
Q

Which vertebrae will have an attachment for the inferior costotransverse ligament?

A

T1-T11

147
Q

Which ribs will have an attachment for the inferior costotransverse ligament?

A

rib 1 - rib 11

148
Q

Which vertebrae will have an attachment for the lateral costotransverse ligament?

A

T1-T11

149
Q

Which ribs will have an attachment for the lateral costotransverse ligament?

A

rib 1 - rib 11

150
Q

What muscle is intimately attached to the superior iliolumbar ligament?

A

quadratus lumborum

151
Q

Which of the current ligaments from the iliolumbar ligament complex represents the iliolumbar ligament of classical descriptions?

A

the superior iliolumbar ligament

152
Q

Which ligament from the iliolumbar ligament complex represents the lumbosacral ligament of classical descriptions?

A

the inferior iliolumbar ligament

153
Q

What is the auricular surface of the ilium composed of?

A

articular cartilage, interspersed with fibrocartilage

154
Q

What does ankylosis mean?

A

a condition of fibrous adhesion occurs within the joint

155
Q

What is the age and surface bias associated with degenerative arthrosis of the sacro-iliac joint?

A

age 40, the iliac auricular surface

156
Q

What is the age and gender bias associated with ankylosis of the sacro-iliac joint?

A

age 50 and male bias particularly in African American males

157
Q

What is the age and gender bias associated with ossification of the anterior sacrio-iliac ligament?

A

age 40 and male bias

158
Q

Which is the strongest of the sacro-iliac ligaments?

A

the interosseous sacro-iliac ligament

159
Q

What passes between the layers of the interosseous sacro-iliac ligament?

A

dorsal rami from the sacral spinal nerves

160
Q

What is formed by the continuation of the sacrotuberous ligament along the ischial ramus?

A

the falciform process

161
Q

What separates the greater sciatic and lesser sciatic foramina?

A

the sacrospinous ligament

162
Q

What is the function of the sacro-ischial ligaments?

A

they oppose the upward tilt of the sacral apex and resist the rotation of sacrum between the innominate bones

163
Q

What ligaments are present at the second sternocostal or sternochondral joint?

A

the capsular ligament, anterior and posterior sternochondral radiate ligaments and the intra-articular ligament

164
Q

Which of the sternocostal or sternochondral ligaments is unique to the second sternocostal or sternochondral joint?

A

the intra-articular ligament

165
Q

What are the joint surfaces of the fifth - tenth interchondral joints?

A

the costal cartilages of the fifth - tenth ribs

166
Q

What is the classification of the sixth through the ninth interchondral joints?

A

synovial (diarthrosis) arthrodia

167
Q

What is the classification of the fifth - sixth or ninth - tenth interchondral joints?

A

fibrous (amphiarthrosis) syndesmosis

168
Q

Which costal cartilages fail to form a joint at their sternal end?

A

the eleventh and twelfth costal cartilages

169
Q

What points on the skull are used to measure the skull size?

A

the nasion, vertex, inion and gnathion

170
Q

What points on the skull are used to measure cranial vault capacity?

A

the nasion, vertex, and inion

171
Q

What constitutes the bony floor of the anterior cranial fossa?

A

orbital plates of frontal bone, crista galli & cribriform plate of ethmoid

172
Q

What bony feature is prominent in teh median plane of the middle cranial fossa?

A

sella turcica

173
Q

What are the parts of the sella turcica?

A

anterior clinoid processes, sphenoidal jugum, posterior clinoid processes, dorsum sella, & hypophyseal fossa of sphenoid bone

174
Q

What is unique about the ophthalmic artery and veins?

A

unlike other artery-vein combinations they will not share the same opening;
the ophthalmic artery is in the optic canal, ophthalmic veins are in the superior orbital fissure

175
Q

What will the foramen spinosum communicate with?

A

the middle cranial fossa and the infratemporal region

176
Q

What are the contents of the foramen spinosum?

A

the nervus spinosus from the mandibular division of the trigeminal nerve and the middle meningeal artery

177
Q

What cranial nerves are represented in the middle cranial fossa?

A 
cranial nerve II (optic), 
III (oculomotor), 
IV (trochlear), 
Va (ophthalmic division/ trigeminal), 
Vb (maxillary division/ trigeminal), 
Vc (mandibular division/ trigeminal), 
VI (abducent), 
VII (greater/superficial petrosal nerve of the facial) 
and IX (lesser petrosal nerve of the glossopharyngeal)
178
Q

What forms the roof of the posterior cranial fossa?

A

the tentorium cerebelli

179
Q

What part of the central nerve system occupies the posterior cranial fossa?

A

the cerebellum, pons, and medulla oblongata

180
Q

What bony feature is prominent in the median plane of the posterior cranial fossa?

A

the clivus or basilar part of the occipital bone

181
Q

What is the third layer of the scalp associated with?

A

muscular component of the scalp

182
Q

What is the fourth layer of the scalp?

A

loose connective tissue layer

183
Q

What is the fifth layer of the scalp?

A

pericranium

184
Q

Which muscles lack any attachment to bone?

A

orbicularis oris, procerus, & risorius

185
Q

What is the source of innervation for all muscles of facial expression?

A

facial nerve branches

186
Q

Which divisions of the trigeminal nerve receive sensory information from the face?

A

all 3 divisions: ophthalmic nerve, maxillary nerve & mandibular nerve

187
Q

What opening(s) are located along the superior wall of the orbit?

A

optic canal

188
Q

What are the contents of the optic canal?

A

optic nerve & ophthalmic artery

189
Q

What is the name given to the medial wall of the orbit?

A

lamina papyracea

190
Q

What opening(s) are located along the lateral wall of the orbit?

A

superior orbital fissure

191
Q

What opening(s) are located along the inferior wall of the orbit?

A

inferior orbital fissure

192
Q

What are the layers of the eyelid?

A

skin, orbicularis oculi muscle, tarsal plate/tarsus & palpebral conjunctiva

193
Q

What are the names given to the modified sebaceous glands of the palpebra?

A

tarsal gland or Meibomian gland and ciliary gland

194
Q

Sympathetic stimulation of the lacrimal gland will result in what events?

A

vasoconstriction of blood vessels, limited availability of water to secretory units, more viscous or thicker product formed in glandular lumen

195
Q

Parasympathetic stimulation of targets in the lacrimal gland will result in what events?

A

vasodilatation of blood vessels, increased availability of water to secretory units, thinner or more watery product in lumen;
constriction of myoepithelial cells leading to release of product from secretory lumen into duct system

196
Q

What are the names of the layers of the eyeball?

A

iris, ciliary body, choroid & pupil

197
Q

What is the location of the anterior chamber of the eyeball?

A

between the cornea and iris

198
Q

What is the location of the posterior chamber of the eyeball?

A

between the iris and lens

199
Q

What is contained in the anterior chamber of the eyeball?

A

aqueous humor

200
Q

What is contained in the posterior chamber of the eyeball?

A

aqueous humor

201
Q

What is the name given to the chamber behind the lens?

A

vitreous chamber

202
Q

What is the location of the vitreous chamber?

A

behind the lens, in front of the retina

203
Q

What fills the vitreous chamber?

A

vitreous body

204
Q

What are the common characteristics in origin and insertion of all rectus extraocular muscles?

A

they all originate from a common annular tendon in the orbit

they all insert into sclera in front of the coronal equator of the eyeball

205
Q

What is the common characteristics regarding the insertion of both oblique extraocular muscles?

A

both insert onto sclera on the lateral margin of the eyeball behind the coronal equator

206
Q

Which extraocular muscles insert behind the coronal equator of the eyeball?

A

superior oblique, inferior oblique

207
Q

What is the source of innervation of the specific intrinsic eye muscles?

A

parasympathetic fibers from oculomotor nerve- ciliaris, sphincter pupillae
sympathetic fibers from internal carotid artery plexus- dilator pupillae

208
Q

What is the name of the palpable posterior projection of the eminentia concha of the auricle?

A

ponticulus

209
Q

Which branches of the external carotid artery supply the auricle?

A

occipital, posterior auricular, superficial temporal arteries… OPS

210
Q

Skin lining the external acoustic meatus contains what modified sebaceous glands?

A

ceruminous glands

211
Q

Vascularization of the external acoustic meatus is derived from which branch(es) of the external carotid artery?

A

posterior auricular artery, internal maxillary artery, superficial temporal artery… PIS

212
Q

What muscle will the parotid gland duct/Stensen’s duct penetrate?

A

the buccinator

213
Q

What part of the oral cavity will the parotid gland duct/Stensen’s duct open into?

A

the buccal vestibule

214
Q

What tooth will the parotid gland duct/Stensen’s duct open near?

A

the second maxillary molar

215
Q

What vein is formed within the parotid gland?

A

the retromandibular vein

216
Q

What are the branches of the facial nerve plexus formed within the parotid gland?

A

temporal, zygomatic, buccal, marginal mandibular and cervical branches

217
Q

What branch of the facial nerve penetrates the parotid gland, but is not given off within it?

A

the chorda tympani nerve

218
Q

Other than vascular effects, what will parasympathetic innervation cause in the parotid gland?

A

Stimulate myoepithelial cells to squeeze the glandular units and mediate release of saliva into the duct system

219
Q

What are the contents of the infratemporal region?

A

medial & lateral pterygoid muscles, internal maxillary artery & branches, pterygoid venous plexus, internal maxillary vein, branches of the trigeminal & facial nerves & otic ganglion

220
Q

What does the lateral/temporomandibular ligament represent?

A

a thickening of the fibrous capsule of the temporomandibular joint

221
Q

What are the attachment sites of the sphenomandibular ligament?

A

the spine of the sphenoid bone to the lingula of the mandible

222
Q

What muscles act to retract the mandible or pull the chin back?

A

temporalis

223
Q

What muscles act during the action of grinding on the temporomandibular joint?

A

ipsilateral temporalis, contralateral medial pterygoid and lateral pterygoid and both masseters

224
Q

What openings are associated with the pterygopalatine region?

A

inferior orbital fissure, pterygomaxillary fissure, sphenopalatine foramen, and foramen rotundum

225
Q

Which ganglion is located within the pterygopalatine region?

A

the sphenopalatine, pterygopalatine or Meckel’s ganglion

226
Q

What are the names of the larger pieces of cartilage forming the nose?

A

septal cartilage, lateral nasal cartilage and major alar cartilage

227
Q

Which of the larger nasal cartilages lacks any attachment to bone?

A

the major alar cartilage

228
Q

What is the name given to the junction between the skin adn the red region of the lip?

A

the vermilion border

229
Q

What is the name given to the red region of the human lip?

A

vermilion zone

230
Q

What is the name given to the median depression of the upper lip?

A

the philtrum

231
Q

What are the names given to the fatty deposits within the cheek?

A

corpus adiposum, Bichat’s fat plug, buccal fat plug or suctorial fat pad of infants

232
Q

What is the name given to the part of the mucous membrane of the lip or cheek attaching to the maxilla or to the mandible?

A

the gingiva proper

233
Q

What forms the anterior boundary of the posterior triangle of the neck?

A

the posterior border of the sternocleidomastoideus

234
Q

What forms the posterior boundary of the posterior triangle of the neck?

A

the anterior border of the trapezius

235
Q

What forms the inferior boundary of the posterior triangle of the neck?

A

the middle third of the clavicle

236
Q

What cutaneous or superficial branches arise from the cervical nerve plexus?

A

lesser occipital nerve (ventral primary ramus of C2)
greater auricular nerve (ventral primary rami of C2, C3)
transverse cervical nerve (ventral primary rami of C2, C3)
supraclavicular nerve (ventral primary rami of C3, C4)

237
Q

What muscle subdivides the posterior triangle of the neck?

A

the inferior belly of the omohyoid

Spinal Anatomy 2 PCC (6 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions