Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Spinal Anatomy 2 PCC > Study Guide Questions- Exam 1 > Flashcards

Study Guide Questions- Exam 1 Flashcards

1
Q

What is the number of vertebrae in the typical spine?

A

24 segments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What constitutes the spine?

A

the 24 presacral segments; the cervical, thoracic, and lumbar vertebrae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Which mammals do not have seven cervical vertebrae?

A

the two-toed sloth, manatee, ant bear, and three-toed sloth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Which mammals have more than seven cervical vertebrae?

A

the ant bear and three-toed sloth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Which mammals have less than seven cervical vertebrae?

A

the manatee and two-toed sloth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What does the term “cervical” refer to?

A

the region of the neck

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what does the term “lumbar” refer to?

A

The loin, the region between the rib and the hip

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What does the term “coccyx” refer to?

A

A cuckoo birds’ bill or cuckoo birds’ beak

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Which variations account for the disparity in number and morphology of vertebrae within the population?

A

gender variation or sexual dimorphism, ontogenetic variation, geographic or population based variation, and idiosyncratic variation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Differences in the number and morphology of vertebrae within the population based on ethnicity variation is identified as which type of variation?

A

geographic variation or population based variation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the length of a typical male spinal column?

A

70 cm or 28 in

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the length of a typical female spinal column?

A

60 cm or 25 in

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the length of the male cervical region (both measurements)?

A

12 cm or 5 in

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the length of the male thoracic region (both measurements)?

A

28 cm or 11 in

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the length of the male lumbar region (both measurements)?

A

18 cm or 7 in

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the length of the male sacrum (both measurements)?

A

12 cm or 5 in

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Based on the numbers for individual regions of the vertebral column, what is the length of the male spine (both measurements)?

A

58 cm or 23 in

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

How does the vertebral column participate in skeletal formation?

A

Ribs are formed from the costal process of the embryonic vertebral template

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What levels of the vertebral column specifically accommodate weight bearing transfer?

A

S1-S3 at the auricular surface

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What specifically is responsible for shape and position of the human frame?

A

comparative anterior vs posterior height of the vertebral body and comparative anterior vs posterior height of the intervertebral disc

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What organ(s) are specifically associated with the horizontal axis of the skull?

A

the eye and the vestibular apparatus of the inner ear

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the general shape of the vertebral body at each region of the spine?

A

cervical- rectangular
thoracic- triangular
lumbar- reniform

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What are the ages of appearance and the events occurring at each step in the formation of bone at the superior and inferior surface of the vertebral body?

A

ages 7-9 years, appearance of epiphyseal plate centers of ossification
age 12 years, formation of the epiphyseal ring
age 15 years, formation of the epiphyseal rim

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What are the names of the openings found around the margins of the vertebral body?

A

nutrient foramina or vascular foramina

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What large opening is usually observed at the back of the vertebral body?

A

The basivertebral venous foramen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is the name given to the large vessel exiting the back of the vertebral body?

A

the basivertebral vein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is the generic orientation of the pedicle at each region of the spine?

A

Cervical- posterolateral
Thoracic- posterior, slight lateral
Lumbar- posterior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What ligament will attach to the lamina?

A

the ligamentum flavum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What classification of bone will para-articular processes represent?

A

accessory bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is the name given to the overlap of laminae see on an x-ray?

A

Shingling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is the generic orientation of the transverse process or transverse apophysis at each region of the spine?

A

Cervical- anterolateral
Thoracic- posterolateral
Lumbar- lateral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What will cause the transverse process/apophysis to alter its initial direction in the cervical region?

A

Cervical spinal nerves are pulled forward to form the cervical and brachia nerve plexuses thus remodeling the transverse process to accommodate their new position.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What will cause the transverse process/apophysis to alter its initial direction in the thoracic region?

A

The growth of the lungs remodel the shape of the ribs which in turn push the transverse processes backward.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is the name given to the bone surface at the front of a zygapophysis?

A

The superior articular facet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is the name given to the bone surface at the back of a zygapophysis?

A

The inferior articular facet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

In the vertebral couple, the part of the vertebra which lies anterior to the zygapophysis is called the ___________.

A

Pre-zygapophysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

In the vertebral couple, the part of the vertebra which lies posterior to the zygapophysis is called the ____________.

A

Post-zygapophysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What will form the posterior boundary of a typical intervertebral foramen?

A

the inferior articular process/post-zygapophysis
the superior articular process/pre-zygapophysis
the capsular ligament
the ligamentum flavum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What will form the superior boundary of a typical intervertebral foramen?

A

the inferior vertebral notch or inferior vertebral incisure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What will form the inferior boundary of a typical intervertebral foramen?

A

the superior vertebral notch or superior vertebral incisure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What will form the anterior boundary of a typical intervertebral foramen?

A

the vertebral body of the segment above
the vertebral body of the segment below
the intervertebral disc
the posterior longitudinal ligament

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What is the method of calculating the angle of the spinous process/apophysis?

A

Calculate the angle formed between the undersurface of the spinous process/apophysis and horizontal plane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What is the name given to the normal overlap of spinous processes/apophyses as seen on an x-ray?

A

Imbrication

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What is the orientation of the spinous process/apophysis at each region of the spine?

A

cervical- slight angle inferiorly
thoracic- noticeable angle inferiorly
lumbar- no inferior angle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What neural structures will occupy the vertebral foramen until the level of L2?

A

the spinal cord/spinal medulla/medulla spinalis, the proximal part of the peripheral nerve system and the meninges.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What is the typical shape/outline of the vertebral foramen at each region of the spinal column?

A

Cervical- triangular
Thoracic-oval
Lumbar- triangular
Sacrum- triangular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Identify the meninges of the spinal cord/spinal medulla/medulla spinalis and the commonly accepted meaning of each

A

Dura mater- tough mother
Arachnoid mater- spider mother
Pia mater- delicate or tender mother

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Name and locate each space formed between the osseous vertebral foramen and the spinal cord/spinal medulla/medulla spinalis

A

Epidural space- b/w the vertebral foramen & dura mater.
Subdural space- b/w the dura mater & the arachnoid mater.
Subarachnoid space- b/w the arachnoid mater & the pia mater.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What are the contents of the epidural space?

A

Anterior & Posterior spinal canal artery & plexus,
A & P internal vertebral venous plexus,
Basivertebral vein,
Recurrent meningeal/ sinu-vertebral/ sinus vertebral nerve,
Hofmann/anterior dural/meningovertebral ligaments,
Ligamentum flavum,
Posterior longitudinal ligament.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Which of the contents of the epidural space will be found near the vertebral body?

A

Anterior spinal canal artery & plexus,
Anterior internal vertebral venous plexus,
Basivertebral vein,
Recurrent meningeal/sinu-vertebral/sinus vertebral Nerve,
Posterior longitudinal ligament,
Hofmann/anterior dura/meningovertebral ligaments.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Which of the contents of the epidural space will be found near the lamina?

A

posterior spinal canal A & V
posterior internal vertebral venous plexus
ligamentum flavum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Which of the contents of the epidural space are more likely located near or around the posterior longitudinal ligament?

A

Anterior spinal canal artery & plexus
Anterior internal vertebral venous plexus
Basivertebral vein
Recurrent meningeal/sinu-vertebral/sinus vertebral nerve
Hofmann/anterior dural/meningovertebral ligaments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What is the name given to the fluid within the epidural space?

A

interstitial fluid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What is the name given to the fluid within the subdural space?

A

Serous fluid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What is the name given to the fluid within the subarachnoid space?

A

Cerebrospinal Fluid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

The anterior spinal artery is a branch of which artery?

A

The vertebral artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

The posterior spinal artery is a branch of which artery?

A

the posterior inferior cerebellar artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What forms the arterial vasa corona above C3?

A

right and left anterior spinal arteries,
right and left posterior spinal arteries,
& 4 communicating arteries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What forms the arterial vasa corona below C6?

A

a median anterior spinal artery,
right and left posterior spinal arteries,
& 3 communicating arteries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Which vessel will supply the ventral/anterior nerve rootlet and nerve root?

A

anterior radicular artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Which vessel will supply the dorsal/posterior nerve rootlets, nerve root and nerve root ganglion?

A

posterior radicular artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What arterial vasa corona branches supply gray matter and most of the spinal cord?

A

ventral/central/sulcal perforating arteries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What arterial vasa corona branches supply about one-third of the spinal cord?

A

Pial perforating arteries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What is the primary artery supplementing the arterial vasa corona?

A

Anterior & Posterior Medullary Feeders

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What vessels drain the spinal cord?

A

Pial veins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Which vessels form the venous vasa corona?

A

right and left anterior longitudinal veins,
right and left posterior longitudinal veins,
& 4 communicating veins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Which vessels will drain the ventral/anterior nerve roots?

A

anterior radicular veins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What vessel will drain the dorsal/posterior nerve root ganglion?

A

posterior radicular vein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

What venous vessels are identified in the intervertebral foramen?

A

intervertebral veins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What veins are observed in the epidural space near the posterior longitudinal ligaments?

A

anterior internal vertebral venous plexus,

basivertebral vein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

What is the continuation of pia mater below the conus medullaris called?

A

filum terminale internum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

What is the location and name given to the area where all meninges first converge at the caudal part of the vertebral column?

A

typically S2, the dural cul de sac

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

In horizontal view, what direction of the spinal cord tends to be largest?

A

transverse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

What are the spinal cord enlargement locations and the name given to each?

A

C3-T1 The Cervical Enlargement

T9-T12 The Lumbar/Lumbosacral enlargement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Where is the greatest transverse diameter of the spinal cord?

A

C6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

What is the generic cord level of origin- vertebral level combination for the lumbar/lumbosacral enlargement?

A

L1, L2 cord levels in T9 vertebra;
L3, L4 cord levels in T10 vertebra;
L5, S1 cord levels in T11 vertebra;
S2, S3 cord levels in T12 vertebra

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

What is the caudal end of the spinal cord called?

A

Conus medullaris

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

What spinal nerves originate from the conus medullaris?

A

Typically S4, S5 & Co1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

In which vertebral foramen will the conus medullaris typically be observed?

A

L1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

The last arterial vasa corona creates what feature on angiograms?

A

cruciate anastomosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

What is the name given to the nerve roots below L1?

A

cauda equina

82
Q

What is the name given to the condensation of meninges below S2?

A

filum terminale externum

83
Q

What is the name given to the caudal attachment of the meninges?

A

coccygeal medullary vestige

84
Q

What is the name given to the condition where the conus medullaris is located below L1 and the filum terminale is thickened?

A

tethered cord syndrome

85
Q

What is the relationship between spinal nerve number, rib number, and vertebral number in a thoracic intervertebral foramen?

A

The SPINAL NERVE # relates to the UPPER segment # in the vertebral couple.
The RIB # related to the LOWER segment # in the vertebral couple.
i.e. T3 nerve exits the intervertebral foramen formed by T3/T4 and rib 4 joints with this vertebral couple

86
Q

What are the four tissues of the human body?

A

epithelial, muscle, neural and connective tissue

87
Q

What is the function of each type of bone cell?

A

osteoblast- form bone
osteocyte- maintain or nurture bone
osteoclast- remodel bone

88
Q

What is the primary constituent of the ground substance?

A

glycosaminoglycans

89
Q

What types of glycosaminoglycans predominate in bone?

A

chondroitin sulfates, keratin sulfates, & hyaluronic acid

90
Q

What is the principal type of protein fiber in bone?

A

collagen type 1

91
Q

What is the most frequently described deposit in bone?

A

hydroxyapatite

92
Q

What are the three responses of bone which allow it to be described as “living”?

A

it has the ability to heal, to remodel under stressors and to age

93
Q

What is the name given to the pattern of ossification in mesenchyme?

A

intramembranous ossification

94
Q

What is the timing for the appearance of intramembranous ossification?

A

from the second to third month in utero

95
Q

What is the name given to the pattern of ossification in cartilage?

A

endochondral ossification

96
Q

What is the timing for the appearance of ossification in cartilage?

A

from the second to fifth month in utero

97
Q

What bone of the axial skeleton is formed by both endochondral and intramembranous ossification?

A

the clavicle

98
Q

What is the time of appearance of a primary center of ossification?

A

before birth

99
Q

What is the time of appearance for a secondary center of ossification?

A

after birth

100
Q

What is the name given to bone formed in a non-bone location?

A

heterotopic bone

101
Q

What is the name given to bone formed from existing bone?

A

accessory bone

102
Q

What are example of short bones?

A

most of the bones of the carpus and tarsus

103
Q

What are examples of flat bones?

A

the parietal bone and sternum

104
Q

What are examples of pneuamtic bones?

A

frontal, ethmoid, maxilla, sphenoid & temporal

105
Q

What are consistent examples of sesamoid bones?

A

patella and pisiform

106
Q

What are the types of osseous elevations?

A

linear, rounded and sharp

107
Q

What are the types of rounded osseous elevations?

A

tubercle, protuberance, trochanter, tuber or tuberosity, and malleolus

108
Q

What are the categories of osseous depressions?

A

linear and rounded depressions

109
Q

What are the categories of osseous linear depressions?

A

notch or incisure, groove and sulcus

110
Q

What are the categories of rounded osseous depressions?

A

the fovea and fossa

111
Q

What are the names given to openings on the surface of bone?

A

ostium or orifice and hiatus

112
Q

What are the names given to osseous ostia which completely penetrate bone?

A

foramen or canal

113
Q

What is the definition of an osseous fissure?

A

an irregular slit-like or crack-like appearance between the surfaces of adjacent bones

114
Q

What are the categories of osseous facets?

A

flat facets and rounded facets

115
Q

What is the definition of a flat osseous facet?

A

A relatively planar or slightly curvilinear surface on bone for osseous articulation

116
Q

What are the categories of rounded osseous facets?

A

articular heads and articular condyles

117
Q

What is the definition of osseous condyle?

A

a knuckle-shaped surface on bone for osseous articulation

118
Q

How many bones form the typical adult axial skeleton?

A

80 bones

119
Q

What is the name given to the adult skull minus the mandible?

A

the cranium

120
Q

What is the name given to the top of the adult skull?

A

the calvaria or calva

121
Q

Which ribs are classified as typical ribs, true ribs, costa verae, and vertebrosternal ribs in typical adult skeleton?

A

ribs 3-7

122
Q

Which ribs are classified as atypical, true ribs, costa verae, and vertebrosternal ribs in a typical adult skeleton?

A

ribs 1 and 2

123
Q

Which ribs are classified as typical ribs, false ribs, costa spuriae, and vertebrochondral ribs in the typical adult skeleton?

A

ribs 8 and 9

124
Q

Which ribs are classified as atypical ribs, false ribs, costa spuriae, and vertebral ribs in the typical adult skeleton?

A

ribs 11 and 12

125
Q

What term is used to identify the study of joints?

A

arthrology

126
Q

What term is used to identify the study of ligaments?

A

syndesmology

127
Q

What are the three histological classifications of joints?

A

fibrous, cartilaginous and synovial fluid

128
Q

What were the three classifications of joints based on movement potential?

A

synarthrosis, amphiarthrosis, and diarthrosis

129
Q

What is the classification of a joint with a “nail-like” condition?

A

gomphosis

130
Q

What is the classification of a joint with a “fissure-like” condition?

A

schindylesis

131
Q

What is the classification of a joint held together with cartilage?

A

synchondrosis

132
Q

What is the classification of a joint formed by a growth condition?

A

symphysis

133
Q

What is the condition in which teeth are abnormally aligned during closure of the mouth?

A

malocclusion

134
Q

What type of ossification pattern typically forms the true suture?

A

intramembranous ossification

135
Q

What type of ossification pattern typically forms the false suture?

A

endochondral ossification

136
Q

What is the synonym for amphiarthrosis joints?

A

cartilage joint

137
Q

What is the classification of primary cartilage joints?

A

(amphiarthrosis) synchondrosis

138
Q

What is the classification of a secondary cartilage joint?

A

(amphiarthrosis) symphysis

139
Q

What type of cartilage is characteristic of the (amphiarthrosis) symphysis?

A

fibrocartilage or fibrous cartilage

140
Q

What type of cartilage is characteristic of a secondary joint?

A

fibrocartilage or fibrous cartilage

141
Q

Which example of an (amphiarthrosis) symphysis is temporary?

A

symphysis menti

142
Q

What are the four consistent features of synovial (diarthrosis) joints?

A

articular or fibrous capsule, synovial membrane, articular cartilage and synovial fluid

143
Q

Thickening of the fibrous capsule connective tissue will form the ________?

A

capsular ligament

144
Q

What generic accessory ligaments may accompany and support the capsular ligament?

A

intracapsular and extracapsular ligaments

145
Q

What is the generic function of ligaments?

A

stimulate reflex contraction of muscles around the joint

146
Q

What are the characteristics of the type 1 articular receptors?

A

located in the superficial layer of the fibrous capsule, resemble Ruffini endings, most numberous in cervical zygapophysis and they monitor the joint “at rest”

147
Q

What are the characteristics of type II articular receptors?

A

They resemble Pacinian corpuscles, located in deeper strata of the fibrous capsule, most numerous in the cervical spine and monitor the joint during normal range of motion.

148
Q

What are the characteristics of type III articular receptors?

A

resemble Golgi Tendon Organs, are present in collateral and intrinsic ligaments, not initially observed along the vertebral column and monitor extreme joint motion.

149
Q

Type IVa articular receptors would be present in what locations?

A

fibrous capsule, articular fat pads or adventitia of blood vessels

150
Q

Type IVb articular receptors would be present in what locations?

A

accessory ligaments in general, dense in the posterior longitudinal ligaments of the spine

151
Q

What are the three classifications of synovial membrane?

A

articular, vaginal, and bursal synovial membrane

152
Q

What are the three modifications of articular synovial membrane?

A

synovial villi, articular fat pads or Haversian glands & synovial menisci and intra-articular discs

153
Q

What is the location of a subcutaneous synovial bursa?

A

bursa between integument and bone

154
Q

What is the location of a subtendinous synovial bursa?

A

bursa between a tendon or muscle and bone or cartilage

155
Q

What are the specific functions of type A synovial cells?

A

are phagocytic

156
Q

What is the specific function of type B synovial cells?

A

secrete proteinaceous substances and hyaluronic acid

157
Q

What are the primary constituents of articular cartilage?

A

water, cells, collagen type II fibers and a proteoglycan gel

158
Q

What is the primary function of bound glycosaminoglycans in articular cartilage?

A

form a network for water retention

159
Q

Cartilage is able to change shape due to compression, a characteristic known as ___________.

A

deformation

160
Q

What is implied when cartilage is said to have elastic properties?

A

Cartilage can deform and return to original volume rapidly, a time independent property

161
Q

What is implied when cartilage is said to have viscoelastic properties?

A

cartilage can deform but returns to original volume slowly, a time dependent property

162
Q

Identify and describe the three theories of joint lubrication

A

Weeping theory: implies fluid lost from cartilage joins synovial fluid to produce the viscosity of the film
Boosted theory: implies water driven into cartilage results in increased viscosity of the remaining synovial fluid
Boundary theory: implies that the lubricant within synovial fluid is absorbed onto the cartilage surface and is never fully removed

163
Q

What are the properties of synovial fluid?

A

it is yellow-white, viscous, slightly alkaline and tastes salty

164
Q

What substance in synovial fluid was first thought to be responsible for its viscosity and lubricating behavior?

A

hyaluronate

165
Q

What substance of synovial fluid has been proposed to be responsible for its viscosity and lubricating behavior?

A

lubricin

166
Q

What is dialysate?

A

a separation phase of blood based on unequal diffusion through a semipermeable membrane

167
Q

What is a transudate?

A

any substance produced as a result of “sweating across” a membrane

168
Q

What is a compound synovial joint (diarthrosis)?

A

more than two articulating surfaces are present in the same synovial joint

169
Q

What is a complex synovial joint (diarthrosis)?

A

the articulating surfaces are separated by an articular disc or meniscus

170
Q

What morphological classifications of synovial joints would be classified as uniaxial?

A

(diarthrosis) hinge/ginglymus and diarthrosis (pivot/trochoid)

171
Q

What morphological classifications of synovial joints would be classified as biaxial?

A

(diarthrosis) bicondylar, (diarthrosis) condylar, (diarthrosis) ellipsoidal and (diarthrosis) saddle/sellar

172
Q

What are the examples of synovial (diarthrosis) pivod/trochoid joints?

A

median atlanto-axial joint and proximal radio-ulnar joint

173
Q

What is the shared morphological characteristic of synovial (diarthrosis) trochoid joints?

A

an osseous pivot point and an osteo-ligamentous ring

174
Q

What are examples of synovial (diarthrosis) condylar or synovial (diarthrosis) bicondylar joints?

A

temperomandibular joint and femur-tibia joint of the knee

175
Q

what are examples of synovial (diarthrosis) ellipsoidal joints?

A

Radiocarpal joint of the wrist,
metacarpo-phalangeal joints of the hand,
metatarsal-phalangeal joints of the foot,
and the atlanto-occipital joint of the vertebral column

176
Q

What are examples of synovial (diarthrosis) saddle/sellar joints?

A

carpometacarpal joint of the thumb, talocrural joint of the ankle and the calcaneocuboid joint of the foot

177
Q

What are examples of synovial (diarthrosis) enarthrosis joints?

A

Femur-acetabulum of the innominate articulation at the hip and
the humerus- glenoid cavity of the scapula articulation at the shoulder

178
Q

At what location will the common carotid artery bifurcate?

A

the C3/C4 intervertebral disc at the upper border of the thyroid cartilage

179
Q

What are the regions/divisions of the internal carotid artery?

A

cervical, petrous, cavernous and cerebral

180
Q

What is the location for the petrous part of the internal carotid artery?

A

carotid canal in petrous part of temporal bone

181
Q

What accompanies the cavernous division of the internal carotid in the middle cranial fossa?

A

cavernous dural venous sinus

182
Q

What branch of the cavernous division of the internal carotid artery was stressed in the text?

A

the opthalmic artery

183
Q

What are the segmental branches of the subclavian artery?

A

vertebral artery, ascending cervical artery and deep cervical artery

184
Q

What is the location of origin of the axillary artery?

A

at the outer border of the first rib

185
Q

What is the segmental branch of the axillary artery?

A

Supreme (highest/superior) thoracic artery

186
Q

What branches of the thoracic descending aorta were stressed in the text?

A

posterior intercostal and subcostal arteries

187
Q

What parietal/dorsal branches of the abdominal descending aorta were stressed in the text?

A

lumbar and median sacral arteries

188
Q

What branches of the internal iliac were stressed in the text?

A

Iliolumbar and lateral sacral arteries

189
Q

What are the segmental arteries of the fifth lumbar vertebrae?

A

the iliolumbar artery, lateral sacral artery and median (middle) sacral artery

190
Q

What vessels form the retromandibular (posterior facial) vein?

A

superficial temporal and (internal) maxillary vein

191
Q

What will the inferior ophthalmic vein drain into?

A

the pterygoid venous plexus and the cavernous dural venous sinus

192
Q

What is the purpose of lymphatic capillaries?

A

remove excess plasma proteins from the interstitial space and prevent edema

193
Q

What characteristics of lymph capillaries were stressed in the text?

A

They begin as blind-ended spaces, have a greater lumenal diameter than blood capillaries, are more variable in lumenal diameter than blood capillaries and are more layered in plexus arrangement than blood capillaries.

194
Q

How do they lymphatics (medium sized vessels) differ from veins?

A

more numerous, possess more valves, and anastomose more frequently than veins.

195
Q

What parts of the body will the right lymphatic duct drain?

A

the right side of the head, neck and thoracic parietal wall, as well as the right upper extremity, right lung and convex (diaphragmatic) surface of the liver.

196
Q

What is the location and structural origin for the thoracic duct?

A

L2 from the cisternal chyli

197
Q

What are examples of aggregate lymph nodules?

A

Peyer’s patches of the small intestine and the tonsils

198
Q

What are the functions of lymph nodules?

A

lymphocytopoiesis (perpetuation of the lymphocyte cell line) and to aid in the immune response

199
Q

What is identified in the lymph node cortex?

A

solitary lymph nodes

200
Q

What is the function of lymph nodes?

A

they primarily filter lymph but also are involved in lymphocytopoiesis and they participate in the immune response.

Spinal Anatomy 2 PCC (6 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions