Study Guide Questions- Exam 1 Flashcards
1
Q
What is the number of vertebrae in the typical spine?
A
24 segments
2
Q
What constitutes the spine?
A
the 24 presacral segments; the cervical, thoracic, and lumbar vertebrae
3
Q
Which mammals do not have seven cervical vertebrae?
A
the two-toed sloth, manatee, ant bear, and three-toed sloth
4
Q
Which mammals have more than seven cervical vertebrae?
A
the ant bear and three-toed sloth
5
Q
Which mammals have less than seven cervical vertebrae?
A
the manatee and two-toed sloth
6
Q
What does the term “cervical” refer to?
A
the region of the neck
7
Q
what does the term “lumbar” refer to?
A
The loin, the region between the rib and the hip
8
Q
What does the term “coccyx” refer to?
A
A cuckoo birds’ bill or cuckoo birds’ beak
9
Q
Which variations account for the disparity in number and morphology of vertebrae within the population?
A
gender variation or sexual dimorphism, ontogenetic variation, geographic or population based variation, and idiosyncratic variation.
10
Q
Differences in the number and morphology of vertebrae within the population based on ethnicity variation is identified as which type of variation?
A
geographic variation or population based variation
11
Q
What is the length of a typical male spinal column?
A
70 cm or 28 in
12
Q
What is the length of a typical female spinal column?
A
60 cm or 25 in
13
Q
What is the length of the male cervical region (both measurements)?
A
12 cm or 5 in
14
Q
What is the length of the male thoracic region (both measurements)?
A
28 cm or 11 in
15
Q
What is the length of the male lumbar region (both measurements)?
A
18 cm or 7 in
16
Q
What is the length of the male sacrum (both measurements)?
A
12 cm or 5 in
17
Q
Based on the numbers for individual regions of the vertebral column, what is the length of the male spine (both measurements)?
A
58 cm or 23 in
18
Q
How does the vertebral column participate in skeletal formation?
A
Ribs are formed from the costal process of the embryonic vertebral template
19
Q
What levels of the vertebral column specifically accommodate weight bearing transfer?
A
S1-S3 at the auricular surface
20
Q
What specifically is responsible for shape and position of the human frame?
A
comparative anterior vs posterior height of the vertebral body and comparative anterior vs posterior height of the intervertebral disc
21
Q
What organ(s) are specifically associated with the horizontal axis of the skull?
A
the eye and the vestibular apparatus of the inner ear
22
Q
What is the general shape of the vertebral body at each region of the spine?
A
cervical- rectangular
thoracic- triangular
lumbar- reniform
23
Q
What are the ages of appearance and the events occurring at each step in the formation of bone at the superior and inferior surface of the vertebral body?
A
ages 7-9 years, appearance of epiphyseal plate centers of ossification
age 12 years, formation of the epiphyseal ring
age 15 years, formation of the epiphyseal rim
24
Q
What are the names of the openings found around the margins of the vertebral body?
A
nutrient foramina or vascular foramina
25
What large opening is usually observed at the back of the vertebral body?
The basivertebral venous foramen
26
What is the name given to the large vessel exiting the back of the vertebral body?
the basivertebral vein
27
What is the generic orientation of the pedicle at each region of the spine?
Cervical- posterolateral
Thoracic- posterior, slight lateral
Lumbar- posterior
28
What ligament will attach to the lamina?
the ligamentum flavum
29
What classification of bone will para-articular processes represent?
accessory bone
30
What is the name given to the overlap of laminae see on an x-ray?
Shingling
31
What is the generic orientation of the transverse process or transverse apophysis at each region of the spine?
Cervical- anterolateral
Thoracic- posterolateral
Lumbar- lateral
32
What will cause the transverse process/apophysis to alter its initial direction in the cervical region?
Cervical spinal nerves are pulled forward to form the cervical and brachia nerve plexuses thus remodeling the transverse process to accommodate their new position.
33
What will cause the transverse process/apophysis to alter its initial direction in the thoracic region?
The growth of the lungs remodel the shape of the ribs which in turn push the transverse processes backward.
34
What is the name given to the bone surface at the front of a zygapophysis?
The superior articular facet
35
What is the name given to the bone surface at the back of a zygapophysis?
The inferior articular facet
36
In the vertebral couple, the part of the vertebra which lies anterior to the zygapophysis is called the ___________.
Pre-zygapophysis
37
In the vertebral couple, the part of the vertebra which lies posterior to the zygapophysis is called the ____________.
Post-zygapophysis
38
What will form the posterior boundary of a typical intervertebral foramen?
the inferior articular process/post-zygapophysis
the superior articular process/pre-zygapophysis
the capsular ligament
the ligamentum flavum
39
What will form the superior boundary of a typical intervertebral foramen?
the inferior vertebral notch or inferior vertebral incisure
40
What will form the inferior boundary of a typical intervertebral foramen?
the superior vertebral notch or superior vertebral incisure
41
What will form the anterior boundary of a typical intervertebral foramen?
the vertebral body of the segment above
the vertebral body of the segment below
the intervertebral disc
the posterior longitudinal ligament
42
What is the method of calculating the angle of the spinous process/apophysis?
Calculate the angle formed between the undersurface of the spinous process/apophysis and horizontal plane
43
What is the name given to the normal overlap of spinous processes/apophyses as seen on an x-ray?
Imbrication
44
What is the orientation of the spinous process/apophysis at each region of the spine?
cervical- slight angle inferiorly
thoracic- noticeable angle inferiorly
lumbar- no inferior angle
45
What neural structures will occupy the vertebral foramen until the level of L2?
the spinal cord/spinal medulla/medulla spinalis, the proximal part of the peripheral nerve system and the meninges.
46
What is the typical shape/outline of the vertebral foramen at each region of the spinal column?
Cervical- triangular
Thoracic-oval
Lumbar- triangular
Sacrum- triangular
47
Identify the meninges of the spinal cord/spinal medulla/medulla spinalis and the commonly accepted meaning of each
Dura mater- tough mother
Arachnoid mater- spider mother
Pia mater- delicate or tender mother
48
Name and locate each space formed between the osseous vertebral foramen and the spinal cord/spinal medulla/medulla spinalis
Epidural space- b/w the vertebral foramen & dura mater.
Subdural space- b/w the dura mater & the arachnoid mater.
Subarachnoid space- b/w the arachnoid mater & the pia mater.
49
What are the contents of the epidural space?
Anterior & Posterior spinal canal artery & plexus,
A & P internal vertebral venous plexus,
Basivertebral vein,
Recurrent meningeal/ sinu-vertebral/ sinus vertebral nerve,
Hofmann/anterior dural/meningovertebral ligaments,
Ligamentum flavum,
Posterior longitudinal ligament.
50
Which of the contents of the epidural space will be found near the vertebral body?
Anterior spinal canal artery & plexus,
Anterior internal vertebral venous plexus,
Basivertebral vein,
Recurrent meningeal/sinu-vertebral/sinus vertebral Nerve,
Posterior longitudinal ligament,
Hofmann/anterior dura/meningovertebral ligaments.
51
Which of the contents of the epidural space will be found near the lamina?
posterior spinal canal A & V
posterior internal vertebral venous plexus
ligamentum flavum
52
Which of the contents of the epidural space are more likely located near or around the posterior longitudinal ligament?
Anterior spinal canal artery & plexus
Anterior internal vertebral venous plexus
Basivertebral vein
Recurrent meningeal/sinu-vertebral/sinus vertebral nerve
Hofmann/anterior dural/meningovertebral ligaments
53
What is the name given to the fluid within the epidural space?
interstitial fluid
54
What is the name given to the fluid within the subdural space?
Serous fluid
55
What is the name given to the fluid within the subarachnoid space?
Cerebrospinal Fluid
56
The anterior spinal artery is a branch of which artery?
The vertebral artery
57
The posterior spinal artery is a branch of which artery?
the posterior inferior cerebellar artery
58
What forms the arterial vasa corona above C3?
right and left anterior spinal arteries,
right and left posterior spinal arteries,
& 4 communicating arteries
59
What forms the arterial vasa corona below C6?
a median anterior spinal artery,
right and left posterior spinal arteries,
& 3 communicating arteries
60
Which vessel will supply the ventral/anterior nerve rootlet and nerve root?
anterior radicular artery
61
Which vessel will supply the dorsal/posterior nerve rootlets, nerve root and nerve root ganglion?
posterior radicular artery
62
What arterial vasa corona branches supply gray matter and most of the spinal cord?
ventral/central/sulcal perforating arteries
63
What arterial vasa corona branches supply about one-third of the spinal cord?
Pial perforating arteries
64
What is the primary artery supplementing the arterial vasa corona?
Anterior & Posterior Medullary Feeders
65
What vessels drain the spinal cord?
Pial veins
66
Which vessels form the venous vasa corona?
right and left anterior longitudinal veins,
right and left posterior longitudinal veins,
& 4 communicating veins
67
Which vessels will drain the ventral/anterior nerve roots?
anterior radicular veins
68
What vessel will drain the dorsal/posterior nerve root ganglion?
posterior radicular vein
69
What venous vessels are identified in the intervertebral foramen?
intervertebral veins
70
What veins are observed in the epidural space near the posterior longitudinal ligaments?
anterior internal vertebral venous plexus,
| basivertebral vein
71
What is the continuation of pia mater below the conus medullaris called?
filum terminale internum
72
What is the location and name given to the area where all meninges first converge at the caudal part of the vertebral column?
typically S2, the dural cul de sac
73
In horizontal view, what direction of the spinal cord tends to be largest?
transverse
74
What are the spinal cord enlargement locations and the name given to each?
C3-T1 The Cervical Enlargement
| T9-T12 The Lumbar/Lumbosacral enlargement
75
Where is the greatest transverse diameter of the spinal cord?
C6
76
What is the generic cord level of origin- vertebral level combination for the lumbar/lumbosacral enlargement?
L1, L2 cord levels in T9 vertebra;
L3, L4 cord levels in T10 vertebra;
L5, S1 cord levels in T11 vertebra;
S2, S3 cord levels in T12 vertebra
77
What is the caudal end of the spinal cord called?
Conus medullaris
78
What spinal nerves originate from the conus medullaris?
Typically S4, S5 & Co1
79
In which vertebral foramen will the conus medullaris typically be observed?
L1
80
The last arterial vasa corona creates what feature on angiograms?
cruciate anastomosis
81
What is the name given to the nerve roots below L1?
cauda equina
82
What is the name given to the condensation of meninges below S2?
filum terminale externum
83
What is the name given to the caudal attachment of the meninges?
coccygeal medullary vestige
84
What is the name given to the condition where the conus medullaris is located below L1 and the filum terminale is thickened?
tethered cord syndrome
85
What is the relationship between spinal nerve number, rib number, and vertebral number in a thoracic intervertebral foramen?
The SPINAL NERVE # relates to the UPPER segment # in the vertebral couple.
The RIB # related to the LOWER segment # in the vertebral couple.
i.e. T3 nerve exits the intervertebral foramen formed by T3/T4 and rib 4 joints with this vertebral couple
86
What are the four tissues of the human body?
epithelial, muscle, neural and connective tissue
87
What is the function of each type of bone cell?
osteoblast- form bone
osteocyte- maintain or nurture bone
osteoclast- remodel bone
88
What is the primary constituent of the ground substance?
glycosaminoglycans
89
What types of glycosaminoglycans predominate in bone?
chondroitin sulfates, keratin sulfates, & hyaluronic acid
90
What is the principal type of protein fiber in bone?
collagen type 1
91
What is the most frequently described deposit in bone?
hydroxyapatite
92
What are the three responses of bone which allow it to be described as "living"?
it has the ability to heal, to remodel under stressors and to age
93
What is the name given to the pattern of ossification in mesenchyme?
intramembranous ossification
94
What is the timing for the appearance of intramembranous ossification?
from the second to third month in utero
95
What is the name given to the pattern of ossification in cartilage?
endochondral ossification
96
What is the timing for the appearance of ossification in cartilage?
from the second to fifth month in utero
97
What bone of the axial skeleton is formed by both endochondral and intramembranous ossification?
the clavicle
98
What is the time of appearance of a primary center of ossification?
before birth
99
What is the time of appearance for a secondary center of ossification?
after birth
100
What is the name given to bone formed in a non-bone location?
heterotopic bone
101
What is the name given to bone formed from existing bone?
accessory bone
102
What are example of short bones?
most of the bones of the carpus and tarsus
103
What are examples of flat bones?
the parietal bone and sternum
104
What are examples of pneuamtic bones?
frontal, ethmoid, maxilla, sphenoid & temporal
105
What are consistent examples of sesamoid bones?
patella and pisiform
106
What are the types of osseous elevations?
linear, rounded and sharp
107
What are the types of rounded osseous elevations?
tubercle, protuberance, trochanter, tuber or tuberosity, and malleolus
108
What are the categories of osseous depressions?
linear and rounded depressions
109
What are the categories of osseous linear depressions?
notch or incisure, groove and sulcus
110
What are the categories of rounded osseous depressions?
the fovea and fossa
111
What are the names given to openings on the surface of bone?
ostium or orifice and hiatus
112
What are the names given to osseous ostia which completely penetrate bone?
foramen or canal
113
What is the definition of an osseous fissure?
an irregular slit-like or crack-like appearance between the surfaces of adjacent bones
114
What are the categories of osseous facets?
flat facets and rounded facets
115
What is the definition of a flat osseous facet?
A relatively planar or slightly curvilinear surface on bone for osseous articulation
116
What are the categories of rounded osseous facets?
articular heads and articular condyles
117
What is the definition of osseous condyle?
a knuckle-shaped surface on bone for osseous articulation
118
How many bones form the typical adult axial skeleton?
80 bones
119
What is the name given to the adult skull minus the mandible?
the cranium
120
What is the name given to the top of the adult skull?
the calvaria or calva
121
Which ribs are classified as typical ribs, true ribs, costa verae, and vertebrosternal ribs in typical adult skeleton?
ribs 3-7
122
Which ribs are classified as atypical, true ribs, costa verae, and vertebrosternal ribs in a typical adult skeleton?
ribs 1 and 2
123
Which ribs are classified as typical ribs, false ribs, costa spuriae, and vertebrochondral ribs in the typical adult skeleton?
ribs 8 and 9
124
Which ribs are classified as atypical ribs, false ribs, costa spuriae, and vertebral ribs in the typical adult skeleton?
ribs 11 and 12
125
What term is used to identify the study of joints?
arthrology
126
What term is used to identify the study of ligaments?
syndesmology
127
What are the three histological classifications of joints?
fibrous, cartilaginous and synovial fluid
128
What were the three classifications of joints based on movement potential?
synarthrosis, amphiarthrosis, and diarthrosis
129
What is the classification of a joint with a "nail-like" condition?
gomphosis
130
What is the classification of a joint with a "fissure-like" condition?
schindylesis
131
What is the classification of a joint held together with cartilage?
synchondrosis
132
What is the classification of a joint formed by a growth condition?
symphysis
133
What is the condition in which teeth are abnormally aligned during closure of the mouth?
malocclusion
134
What type of ossification pattern typically forms the true suture?
intramembranous ossification
135
What type of ossification pattern typically forms the false suture?
endochondral ossification
136
What is the synonym for amphiarthrosis joints?
cartilage joint
137
What is the classification of primary cartilage joints?
(amphiarthrosis) synchondrosis
138
What is the classification of a secondary cartilage joint?
(amphiarthrosis) symphysis
139
What type of cartilage is characteristic of the (amphiarthrosis) symphysis?
fibrocartilage or fibrous cartilage
140
What type of cartilage is characteristic of a secondary joint?
fibrocartilage or fibrous cartilage
141
Which example of an (amphiarthrosis) symphysis is temporary?
symphysis menti
142
What are the four consistent features of synovial (diarthrosis) joints?
articular or fibrous capsule, synovial membrane, articular cartilage and synovial fluid
143
Thickening of the fibrous capsule connective tissue will form the ________?
capsular ligament
144
What generic accessory ligaments may accompany and support the capsular ligament?
intracapsular and extracapsular ligaments
145
What is the generic function of ligaments?
stimulate reflex contraction of muscles around the joint
146
What are the characteristics of the type 1 articular receptors?
located in the superficial layer of the fibrous capsule, resemble Ruffini endings, most numberous in cervical zygapophysis and they monitor the joint "at rest"
147
What are the characteristics of type II articular receptors?
They resemble Pacinian corpuscles, located in deeper strata of the fibrous capsule, most numerous in the cervical spine and monitor the joint during normal range of motion.
148
What are the characteristics of type III articular receptors?
resemble Golgi Tendon Organs, are present in collateral and intrinsic ligaments, not initially observed along the vertebral column and monitor extreme joint motion.
149
Type IVa articular receptors would be present in what locations?
fibrous capsule, articular fat pads or adventitia of blood vessels
150
Type IVb articular receptors would be present in what locations?
accessory ligaments in general, dense in the posterior longitudinal ligaments of the spine
151
What are the three classifications of synovial membrane?
articular, vaginal, and bursal synovial membrane
152
What are the three modifications of articular synovial membrane?
synovial villi, articular fat pads or Haversian glands & synovial menisci and intra-articular discs
153
What is the location of a subcutaneous synovial bursa?
bursa between integument and bone
154
What is the location of a subtendinous synovial bursa?
bursa between a tendon or muscle and bone or cartilage
155
What are the specific functions of type A synovial cells?
are phagocytic
156
What is the specific function of type B synovial cells?
secrete proteinaceous substances and hyaluronic acid
157
What are the primary constituents of articular cartilage?
water, cells, collagen type II fibers and a proteoglycan gel
158
What is the primary function of bound glycosaminoglycans in articular cartilage?
form a network for water retention
159
Cartilage is able to change shape due to compression, a characteristic known as ___________.
deformation
160
What is implied when cartilage is said to have elastic properties?
Cartilage can deform and return to original volume rapidly, a time independent property
161
What is implied when cartilage is said to have viscoelastic properties?
cartilage can deform but returns to original volume slowly, a time dependent property
162
Identify and describe the three theories of joint lubrication
Weeping theory: implies fluid lost from cartilage joins synovial fluid to produce the viscosity of the film
Boosted theory: implies water driven into cartilage results in increased viscosity of the remaining synovial fluid
Boundary theory: implies that the lubricant within synovial fluid is absorbed onto the cartilage surface and is never fully removed
163
What are the properties of synovial fluid?
it is yellow-white, viscous, slightly alkaline and tastes salty
164
What substance in synovial fluid was first thought to be responsible for its viscosity and lubricating behavior?
hyaluronate
165
What substance of synovial fluid has been proposed to be responsible for its viscosity and lubricating behavior?
lubricin
166
What is dialysate?
a separation phase of blood based on unequal diffusion through a semipermeable membrane
167
What is a transudate?
any substance produced as a result of "sweating across" a membrane
168
What is a compound synovial joint (diarthrosis)?
more than two articulating surfaces are present in the same synovial joint
169
What is a complex synovial joint (diarthrosis)?
the articulating surfaces are separated by an articular disc or meniscus
170
What morphological classifications of synovial joints would be classified as uniaxial?
(diarthrosis) hinge/ginglymus and diarthrosis (pivot/trochoid)
171
What morphological classifications of synovial joints would be classified as biaxial?
(diarthrosis) bicondylar, (diarthrosis) condylar, (diarthrosis) ellipsoidal and (diarthrosis) saddle/sellar
172
What are the examples of synovial (diarthrosis) pivod/trochoid joints?
median atlanto-axial joint and proximal radio-ulnar joint
173
What is the shared morphological characteristic of synovial (diarthrosis) trochoid joints?
an osseous pivot point and an osteo-ligamentous ring
174
What are examples of synovial (diarthrosis) condylar or synovial (diarthrosis) bicondylar joints?
temperomandibular joint and femur-tibia joint of the knee
175
what are examples of synovial (diarthrosis) ellipsoidal joints?
Radiocarpal joint of the wrist,
metacarpo-phalangeal joints of the hand,
metatarsal-phalangeal joints of the foot,
and the atlanto-occipital joint of the vertebral column
176
What are examples of synovial (diarthrosis) saddle/sellar joints?
carpometacarpal joint of the thumb, talocrural joint of the ankle and the calcaneocuboid joint of the foot
177
What are examples of synovial (diarthrosis) enarthrosis joints?
Femur-acetabulum of the innominate articulation at the hip and
the humerus- glenoid cavity of the scapula articulation at the shoulder
178
At what location will the common carotid artery bifurcate?
the C3/C4 intervertebral disc at the upper border of the thyroid cartilage
179
What are the regions/divisions of the internal carotid artery?
cervical, petrous, cavernous and cerebral
180
What is the location for the petrous part of the internal carotid artery?
carotid canal in petrous part of temporal bone
181
What accompanies the cavernous division of the internal carotid in the middle cranial fossa?
cavernous dural venous sinus
182
What branch of the cavernous division of the internal carotid artery was stressed in the text?
the opthalmic artery
183
What are the segmental branches of the subclavian artery?
vertebral artery, ascending cervical artery and deep cervical artery
184
What is the location of origin of the axillary artery?
at the outer border of the first rib
185
What is the segmental branch of the axillary artery?
Supreme (highest/superior) thoracic artery
186
What branches of the thoracic descending aorta were stressed in the text?
posterior intercostal and subcostal arteries
187
What parietal/dorsal branches of the abdominal descending aorta were stressed in the text?
lumbar and median sacral arteries
188
What branches of the internal iliac were stressed in the text?
Iliolumbar and lateral sacral arteries
189
What are the segmental arteries of the fifth lumbar vertebrae?
the iliolumbar artery, lateral sacral artery and median (middle) sacral artery
190
What vessels form the retromandibular (posterior facial) vein?
superficial temporal and (internal) maxillary vein
191
What will the inferior ophthalmic vein drain into?
the pterygoid venous plexus and the cavernous dural venous sinus
192
What is the purpose of lymphatic capillaries?
remove excess plasma proteins from the interstitial space and prevent edema
193
What characteristics of lymph capillaries were stressed in the text?
They begin as blind-ended spaces, have a greater lumenal diameter than blood capillaries, are more variable in lumenal diameter than blood capillaries and are more layered in plexus arrangement than blood capillaries.
194
How do they lymphatics (medium sized vessels) differ from veins?
more numerous, possess more valves, and anastomose more frequently than veins.
195
What parts of the body will the right lymphatic duct drain?
the right side of the head, neck and thoracic parietal wall, as well as the right upper extremity, right lung and convex (diaphragmatic) surface of the liver.
196
What is the location and structural origin for the thoracic duct?
L2 from the cisternal chyli
197
What are examples of aggregate lymph nodules?
Peyer's patches of the small intestine and the tonsils
198
What are the functions of lymph nodules?
lymphocytopoiesis (perpetuation of the lymphocyte cell line) and to aid in the immune response
199
What is identified in the lymph node cortex?
solitary lymph nodes
200
What is the function of lymph nodes?
they primarily filter lymph but also are involved in lymphocytopoiesis and they participate in the immune response.
