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CQ 2024 > Study Guide Questions > Flashcards

Study Guide Questions Flashcards

1
Q

Max Ramp Weight

A

ERJ 17LL - 85,450

ERJ 175LR - 85,870

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2
Q

Max Take Off Weight

A

ERJ 17LL - 85,098

ERJ 175LR - 85,517

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3
Q

Max Landing Weight

A

74,957

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4
Q

Min Runway Width

A

100

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5
Q

Wing Span

A

93 ft 11 inches

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6
Q

Aircraft Length

A

103 ft 11 inches

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7
Q

Tail Height

A

32 ft 4 inches

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8
Q

Prior to beginning the preflight inspection the pilot conducts a Safety and Power- Up Checklist. Batt 1 is selected ON and Batt 2 is selected to AUTO.
What must not occur when more than displays 2 and 3 are available

A

The aircraft must not be dispatched.

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9
Q

After a successful fire test, the pilot establishes an AC power source.
If AC power is lost what is the procedure for reestablishing AC power –

A

Power down the aircraft using the Leaving the Airplane Checklist, followed by the Safety and Power Up Checklist.

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10
Q

Prior to beginning the external inspection what must be ON to have a valid check on the Brake Wear Indicators –

A

Determine there is sufficient hydraulic pressure to active the emergency parking brake.

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11
Q

What hydraulic system pressurizes the Emergency Parking Brake?

A

Hydraulic Systems 1 and 2
Hydraulic 1 provides pressure to outboard brakes
Hydraulic 2 provides pressure to inboard brakes

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12
Q

Inspection of the ADSPs show ice and snow contamination, what is the procedure

A

ADSP Heater Switch: ON
Flight Control PBIT: ACCOMPLISH
Verify the clock resets on the Flight Control page.
ADSP Heater Switch: OFF

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13
Q

Spurious AFCS and ADS EICAS messages may be an indication of what in regard to the ADSPs

A

When a parked aircraft has been exposed to freezing conditions, moisture can freeze inside the ADSPs and create an undesired indication on the ground, usually during the first power-up
of the day.

  • AFCS FAULT
  • AT FAIL
  • AP FAIL
  • FD FAIL
  • YD FAIL
  • APPR 2 NOT AVAIL
  • Air Data Systems (ADS) messages may be displayed on the EICAS also
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14
Q

The PREFLIGHT section of the SOPM uses the phrase “CLEAR OF ICE” repeatedly for each section of the airplane, what is SkyWest’s philosophy regarding ICE and contamination

A

The Ground Deicing Program (GDP) objective is to ensure no SkyWest aircraft takes off with frozen contaminants adhering to the wings, control surfaces, propellers, engine inlets, or other critical surfaces of the aircraft.

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15
Q

What is a Cold Weather Preflight Inspection –

A

a. An external walk-around by the flight deck crew used to detect the presence of frost, ice, or snow on critical surfaces from which the requirement for deicing/anti-icing is determined. This inspection consists of a tactile and/or visual check.

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16
Q

When does a Cold Weather Preflight Inspection need to be performed

A
  • The OAT is 5°C or less, or
  • The wing fuel temperature is 0°C or less, or
  • Atmospheric conditions conducive to icing exist, or
  • The aircraft has remained overnight and may have frozen contaminants due to exposure to frost or precipitation, which could involve the entire airframe, or
  • On any through flight where residual ice from the inbound flight may have accumulated on airframe surfaces or components, or
  • Cold soak ice is suspected in the fuel tank area.
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17
Q

If it’s 5 degrees or colder, the preflight inspection must take place within what timeframe

A

Within 30 minutes of pushback.

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18
Q

Use the pictorial walk around - Describe the preflight action for the Nose Landing Gear

A

Wheel Chocks: IN
Wheels and Tires :CONDITION
*** Clear of ice
Up Lock Hook : UNLOCKED
Downlock Springs: CONDITION
Strut/Wheel Well/Doors CONDITION and NO LEAKS
Ground Locking Pin REMOVED
Landing and Taxi Lights CONDITION
* Clean and undamaged

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19
Q

What unique piece of electrical emergency equipment resides in the right forward fuselage? Describe the SOPM external preflight of the RAT

A

Ram Air Turbine
Safety Lock Pin Removed

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20
Q

What does the Oxygen Discharge Indicator look like in its normal condition?

A

Green disc

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21
Q

What is the proper preflight action of the Engine Inlet according to the SOPM?

A

Engine Inlet : CONDITION
* Check for FOD and leaks inside air inlet. Ensure there is no damage to the T2 Sensor and the FADEC Cooling Inlet is clear.
* *** Clear of ice or snow

Fan Blades: CHECK
* Check for damaged fan blades and ensure fan is free to rotate
* Check for damage on spinner
LH Nacelle Strake : CONDITION
Anti-ice Pressure Relief Door: CLOSED AND LATCHED
LH Fan Cowl Doors: CONDITION AND LATCHED
LH Thrust Reverser: CONDITION AND LATCHED
Core Pressure Relief Door: CLOSED
Turbine Exhaust: CLEAR AND NO LEAKS
* After engine shutdown, the scavenge system is no longer effective. A small amount of oil may leak through the aft sump drain and pool in the engine chevron nozzle.
* When the puddle size exceeds 4 in., contact Maintenance

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22
Q

What is the proper preflight action of the Fan Blades according to the SOPM?

A
  • Check for damaged fan blades and ensure fan is free to rotate
  • Check for damage on spinner
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23
Q

Are there Nacelle Strakes on both sides of the engine?

A

YES, Both Sides.

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24
Q

Describe the Main Landing Gear inspection.

A

Right Main Gear: Check
* *** Clear of ice and unobstructed
Wheels and Tires: CONDITION
Up Lock Hook: UNLOCKED
Downlock Springs: CONDITION
Strut/Wheel Wells: CONDITION AND NO LEAKS
Ground Locking Pin: REMOVED
Brakes Pin Indicators: CHECK
* Two upper and two lower per gear assembly

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25
Q

What document would you refer to regarding missing static discharge wicks? Where is it located?

A

CDL in the back of the AFM in the appendices.

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26
Q

What is included in MINTO

A

Enroute Burn, Go-Around / Alternate burn, Holding Fuel and Reserve fuel.

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27
Q

When an alternate is listed on the Release, does the Alternate fuel value include go-around fuel

A

YES: When an alternate is listed, the value represents the calculated alternate burn + go-around fuel.

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28
Q

Engine Failure Procedures (EFP) are denoted by Abbreviations such as DT, LT, RT, and Special. What is the difference between a Standard and Special EFP

A

A Simple Special EFP requires a turn to NAVAID or heading prior to 1000 AFE.

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29
Q

If following a Special EFP and Radar Vectors are not available, at what altitude can the crew proceed on course

A

3000 AFE

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30
Q

Takeoff in IMC (ceiling < 1000’ and < 3SM) and ATC provides a radar vector, no turns shall be commenced below what altitude

A

1000 ft AFE

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31
Q

Can a Pilot Turn the airplane with the above conditions if an Instrument or Special Departure procedure requires it

A

YES

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32
Q

The RWY is reported as WET, what does this mean

A

Wet Runway - A runway is considered wet when more than 25% of the runway surface area, within the length and the width being used, is covered by any visible dampness or water 1/8 in (3 mm) or less in depth.

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33
Q

The RWY report has been updated to “contaminated”, what does this mean –

A

A runway is considered contaminated when more than 25% of the runway surface area (whether in isolated areas or not), within the reported length and the width being used, is covered by more than 1/8 in (3 mm) of standing water or its equivalent in slush, wet snow, dry snow or any depth of ice or compacted snow.

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34
Q

What is a Simple Special Procedure

A

Simple-Special: The Simple-Special Procedure differs from Standard Procedures in that a turn to a NAVAID or heading is required before reaching 1,000’. FRA remains at 1,000’ AFE unless otherwise specified in the FLAP RETRACT box. Simple-Special Procedures are mandatory in IMC. They are also mandatory in VMC until reaching 1,000’ AFE. The turn to the NAVAID or heading is to be made at the highest bank angle appropriate for aircraft speed. In IMC, if radar vectors are not available, comply with the special procedure until 3,000’ AFE at which time you may proceed on course (as applicable)

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35
Q

Are Simple Special Procedures mandatory

A

In IMC Yes.
In VMC YES, until reaching 1000 AFE.

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36
Q

When can you proceed on course with a Simple Special Procedure?

A

In IMC, if radar vectors are not available, comply with the special procedure until 3,000’ AFE at which time you may proceed on course (as applicable)

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37
Q

What does TALPA stand for –

A

Takeoff and Landing Performance Assessment

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38
Q

TALPA uses RCAM (RCCs) to assess runway conditions, describe the difference in runway condition between an RCC of 6 and RCC of 1

A

RCC 6 - Dry
RCC 5 - Good Braking - Wet or contamination 1/8 inch or less of slush snow
RCC 4 - Good to Medium Braking - Compacted Snow
RCC 3 - Medium Braking - Slippery when wet or dry snow over compacted snow or contamination greater than 1/8 inch.
RCC 2 - Medium to Poor Braking - Water / Slush greater than 1/8th inch.
RCC 1: Poor Braking due to ice.

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39
Q

Where can the RCAM/Braking action table be found

A

Weather Tile on the EFB
FOM Chapter 7 - Runway Assessments

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40
Q

What is the maximum crosswind component for takeoff with a WET runway

A

31 KTS

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41
Q

What does the T mean on the MEL

A

A bold symbol (T) (Tracking) is a flag to the flight crew that any of the following conditions exist:
* An MEL requires a tracking (or time) restriction.
* A repair interval Category A of one day.
* Procedures that must be performed, tested, or checked before each flight, prior to the first flight of the day, once each flight day, or at a certain number of hours, landings, cycles, etc.

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42
Q

What does the D mean on the MEL

A

A bold symbol (D) (Dispatch) is a flag to Dispatch, Maintenance Control, and the flight crew that restrictions and/or configurations exist affecting aircraft performance and/or operational procedures. These restrictions or procedures must be applied to properly dispatch under the deferral.

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43
Q

What is Category C mean for the MEL

A

Must be repaired within 10 consecutive calendar-days (240 hours, recorded in UTC or local time) excluding the day the malfunction was recorded in the aircraft maintenance record.

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44
Q

What is Category D mean for the MEL

A

Must be repaired within 120 consecutive calendar-days (2,880 hours) excluding the day the malfunction was recorded in the aircraft maintenance record.

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45
Q

How does the pilot know that this added fuel burn from the MEL has been applied to the Flight Release

A

Included in the remarks section of the release.

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46
Q

Why is the HYD fluid temperature checked during the originating flow

A

Engine start cannot be accomplished if the hydraulic reservoir temperature is below -18°C. The hydraulic system warm up procedure must be accomplished prior to engine start if reservoir temps are below -18°C

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47
Q

During an ECS ON takeoff the APU will be ON or OFF

A

OFF

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48
Q

If ACARS takeoff performance dictates ECS ON takeoff and the crew fails to shut down the APU, the EICAS will generate an ENG REF ECS DISAGREE message, if this happens, what do you do

A

accomplish the appropriate QRH procedure and either re-enter takeoff data or shut down the APU

Per the FOIB:
When this message posts on EICAS, crews are instructed to ensure:
* ECS is setup correctly,
* BLEED 1 / 2 Buttons are Pushed IN,
* PACK Buttons are Pushed IN, and
* Increase manifold pressure above 13 PSIG by slightly advancing thrust.

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49
Q

With an OAT of 4°C and light rain, how will the Takeoff Data Pages be configured for Anti-Ice

A

WET and Anti Ice to ALL
When there is any possibility of encountering visible moisture up to1,700 ft AFE

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50
Q

What are the starter Cranking Limits on Ground

A

Starts 1 and 2
90 seconds on 10 seconds off
Starts 3-5
90 seconds on 5 minutes off

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51
Q

While programming the FMS a BATT 1 OVERTEMP message populates on the EICAS with an associated triple chime and Master Warning light, what do you do

A

QRC Memory Item

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52
Q

When it is necessary to perform an engine start with tailwind, monitor N1 indication. When there is no positive increase of N1 indication within… ??

A

When there is no positive increase of N1 indication before starter cutout (50% N2), the engine start must be manually aborted.

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53
Q

During engine start there is no light off with fuel flowing to the engine, what do you do

A

Memory Item followed by QRC Abnormal Start
Start Stop Selector - STOP

54
Q

With the above Abnormal Start condition, would Dry Motoring be considered

A

YES
There is unburned fuel that needs to be purged prior to subsequent start attempts

55
Q

What are the Dry Motoring Cycle Limits on the ground

A

90 seconds on 5 minutes off
Starts 2-5 30 seconds on 5 minutes off.

56
Q

What other conditions require aborting a start

A
  • No positive oil pressure indication within 10 seconds after N2 speed starts to increase.
  • During engine start with a tailwind, when a positive increase of N1 is not indicated before starter cutout (50% N2). In this case, the airplane is repositioned prior to engine start to minimize tailwind effects.
  • No ITT indication within 30 seconds after initiation of fuel flow (no light off).
  • ITT exceeds start limit (815°C - Hot).
  • Oil pressure stabilizes below the engine limits.
  • N1 and/or N2 failing to accelerate to stable idle speed (hung start).
  • An intermittent electrical pneumatic or starter malfunction occurs before the starter disengagement.
57
Q

After second engine start what is the N1 target value tolerance

A

After second engine start, verify parameters are normal, and the EICAS N1 target value is within +0.5% to -0.1% of the planned N1 value. For example, if the planned N1 value is 90.0, then the N1 target on the EICAS must be 89.9 to 90.5.

58
Q

When is single engine taxi prohibited

A
  • Ramp/Taxiway surface contamination
  • Maneuvering room in the ramp/gate area is marginal
  • Taxi time to/from a runway is expected to be < 5 minutes
  • Airport-specific regulations prohibit single-engine taxi
  • Risk of injury to personnel or damage to equipment
  • Captain’s discretion
59
Q

What is the procedure when taxiing in icing conditions in excess of :30 minutes or if fan vibe is detected –

A

During ground operations of more than 30 minutes in icing conditions, or when increased fan vibration due to fan ice accumulation is present, the engine thrust may be increased at 30-minute intervals to approximately 54% N1 and held at that thrust level for 30 seconds, or until the fan vibration level returns to normal.

60
Q

If deicing is required, what checklist is used after engine start in lieu of the After Start Normal Procedures Checklist

A

Flight Deck De Ice / Anti Ice Checklist - Engines Running

61
Q

When does the Hold Over Time (HOT) begin

A

At the beginning of the application of the final de-ice / anti-ice fluid.

62
Q

HOTs are for departure planning and must be used in conjunction with Pretakeoff Check Procedures, What is a Pretakeoff Check?

A

A check of the aircraft’s representative surface for frozen contaminants. This check is conducted within the aircraft’s HOT, just prior to takeoff,and may be made by observing representative surfaces from whatever vantage point in the aircraft the PIC determines will give an accurate indication of the condition of the aircraft.

63
Q

Is there such a thing as an insignificant amount of ice

A

NO

64
Q

What if MOD Freezing Rain is occurring, can you depart

A

NO

65
Q

Where are the required communication elements for Deice/Anti-ice located? What manual

A

GDPM Apendix D

66
Q

What is a Pretakeoff Contamination Check –

A

2) The Pretakeoff Contamination Check:
a) Cannot be performed:
* When the deice/anti-ice process was initiated at any location other than the wings.
* To extend an allowance time when operating in light and moderate ice pellets and light ice pellets mixed with other forms of precipitation.
b) Is performed to ensure the aircraft’s critical surfaces are free of frozen contaminants prior to takeoff.
c) Is performed when freezing or frozen precipitation has been present since completion of the Post Deicing/Anti-icing Check and,
(1) The HOT has been exceeded, or
(2) The HOT is no longer valid due to changing weather conditions, or
(3) Operations in heavy snow are being conducted.
3) A close, visual inspection for evidence of contaminants and deice/anti-ice fluid failure is done:
a) From the cabin.
b) On both wings’ upper surface, including associated control surfaces and
winglets.
c) Without aircraft emergency lighting

GROUND DEICING PROGRAM MANUAL 04 Flight Operations Deice/Anti-ice Procedures
Page: FLIGHT OPERATIONS DEICE/ANTI-ICE Revision:
Submitted: 30 MAR 23 PROCEDURES Date:
04.6 of 21 13 01 AUG 23
4) Takeoff must occur within five minutes of the completion of the Pretakeoff Contamination Check.

67
Q

The takeoff has to occur within what timeframe after the Pretakeoff Contamination Check

A

5 minutes

68
Q

If the nosewheel deflects partially or fully uncommanded, what is the memory item

A

Nosewheel steering disconnect press
Steer with rudder and differential braking

69
Q

When is the use of FLEX Thrust for takeoff prohibited? Name all three conditions

A

WARNING: THE USE OF FLEX THRUST TAKEOFF IS PROHIBITED FOR THE FOLLOWING:
* TAKEOFF ON CONTAMINATED RUNWAY.
* REPORTED OR FORECAST WINDSHEAR.
* WHEN A SPECIAL DEPARTURE PROCEDURE SPECIFIES FULL THRUST FOR TAKEOFF.

70
Q

When taxiing onto any runway, what does the First Officer turn on

A

3) When entering the departure runway for takeoff or to “line up and wait,” all lights should be ON to make the aircraft conspicuous to ATC and other aircraft on approach.
Strobe lights may remain OFF until cleared for takeoff when they create a hazard to other aircraft. They should be turned ON when takeoff clearance is received, or when commencing takeoff roll at an airport without an operating control tower.

71
Q

What Lateral and Vertical modes do pilots silently verify on the FMA after RWY HDG verfication

A

TO ROLL TO

72
Q

What is a Static Takeoff

A

Line up on the runway, apply brakes, and advance thrust to 40% N1. When the engines stabilize at 40% N1, advance thrust levers to TO/GA detent. Release the brakes when the takeoff thrust (N1 target) is achieved.

73
Q

How are abnormalities verbalized during the takeoff roll

A

Any abnormality during the takeoff roll must be called out in a loud and clear voice.

74
Q

With all engines running, the flight director commands a pitch attitude to maintain what speed?

A

With all engines operating, the flight director guidance commands a pitch attitude to maintain V2 + 10 kt while climbing to the acceleration altitude.

75
Q

With an engine failure at or after V1 on takeoff / initial climb, what speed will the flight director command?

A

V2 - V2+10

76
Q

For one engine inoperative, the bank angle must be limited to

A

For one engine inoperative, limit the bank angle to:
* 15° at V2
* 20°at V2 +5kt
* 25°at V2 +10kt

77
Q

With an engine failure after takeoff, how long should a climb speed of Vfs be maintained?

A

Climb at VFS to a safe altitude defined during the takeoff briefing or as assigned by ATC

78
Q

Takeoff was conducted in light rain, what is the max wiper speed?

A

250 KIAS

79
Q

During Climb, traffic preceding you reports moderate turbulence ahead at 5000. What speed would be appropriate to fly?

A

250 KIAS

80
Q

You suspect a pitch trim runaway. What is the memory item?

A

AP / Trim Disconnect Button: Press and Hold
Pitch Trim SYS 1 and 2 Cutout Buttons: Push In

81
Q

The aircraft must be inspected for cold soak ice or frost by a flight deck crewmember
when any of the following conditions exist:

A

a) Frost is detected below the wing tank area.
b) Aircraft was exposed to low temperatures during the inbound leg and the aircraft returns to flight with little delay on the ground, when the surface temperature is near freezing with high humidity (temperature/dew point spread of less than 3oC

82
Q

Cold Weather Preflight Inspection must be performed when

A

a) The OAT is 5 deg C or less, or
b) Atmospheric conditions conducive to icing exist, or
c) The aircraft has remained overnight and may have frozen contaminants due to exposure to frost or precipitation, which could involve the entire airframe, or
d) On any through flight where residual ice from the inbound flight may have accumulated on airframe surfaces or components, or
e) Cold soak ice is suspected in the fuel tank area, or
f) Wing fuel temperature is 0°C or less, and the difference between the OAT and dew point temperature is 3°C or less.

83
Q

When must the preflight be accomplished when it is near freezing?

A

Anytime the temperature is 5°C or colder, the preflight inspection must take place within 30 minutes from pushback.

84
Q

Takeoff is permitted with frost:

A

a) On the upper surface of the fuselage through which it is possible to distinguish surface features; however, any contamination greater than a thin layer of hoar frost is not permitted.
b) Adhering to the underside of the wing fuel tank areas that is caused by cold soaked fuel: Max of 1/8th inch.

85
Q

Holdover time (HOT):

A

a) Begins when the final application of the deicing/anti-icing fluid is first applied to the aircraft.
b) Expires when the deicing/anti-icing fluid loses its effectiveness (e.g., when ice or snow begins to form on or in the fluid).

86
Q

The Pretakeoff Check Procedure:

A

a) Is performed by the flight deck crew prior to taking the active runway for departure.

Must be performed anytime the aircraft has been deiced/anti-iced, and a HOT has been established, to ensure critical surfaces remain free of frozen contaminants.
Is performed by the flight deck crew within the HOT, and as close as practical to takeoff, regardless of how much of the holdover time has elapsed or the absence of active precipitation.
Is conducted from whatever vantage point in the aircraft the PIC determines gives an accurate indication of the condition of the representative surface (i.e., flight deck or cabin).
Use wing lighting or flashlights during low light conditions. May be required several times.

87
Q

Clean Aircraft Concept

A

a. The Ground Deicing Program (GDP) uses the clean aircraft concept, which means an aircraft must not takeoff when frost, ice, or snow is adhering to the wings, control surfaces, engine inlets, and other critical surfaces of the aircraft.

88
Q

Cold Soaked Definition

A

a. The wings of aircraft are cold soaked when they contain very cold fuel as a result of having just landed after a flight at high altitude or from having been refueled with very cold fuel. When precipitation falls on a cold soaked aircraft, clear icing may occur. Even in ambient temperatures between -2oC (28oF) and +15oC (59°F), ice or frost can form in the presence of visible moisture or high humidity if the aircraft structure remains at 0°C (32°F) or below.

89
Q

Conditions conducive to icing:

A

a. May occur when the OAT is at or below 10°C (50oF) and,
* Visible moisture is present, or
* There is moisture on the wing, or
* Wing fuel temperature is 0oC (32oF) or less, and the difference between the OAT and dew point temperature is 3oC (5oF) or less, or
* Atmospheric conditions have been conducive to frost formation, or
* There is standing water, ice, or snow on the runway and/or taxiway.

90
Q

When takeoff weather is below 1000 and 3 miles, no turns…

A

No Turns shall be commenced below 1000 AFE.

91
Q

Standard EFP in IMC
Below 1000 AFE.

A

Climb straight ahead to 1000 AFE and commence turn to NAVAID or heading. If a NAVAID is listed, hold on the inbound radial, standard turns.

92
Q

Standard EFP in IMC
Above 1000 AFE.

A

Commence turn to NAVAID or heading using maximum bank angle to a minimum safe altitude.

93
Q

Standard EFP in VMC
Below 1000 AFE.

A

Climb straight ahead to 1000 AFE, return to land visually or complete IMC procedure.

94
Q

Simple Special EFP is different from the standard how?

A

It requires a turn to a heading or NAVAID before reaching 1000 AFE.

94
Q

Standard EFP in IMC
Above 1000 AFE.

A

Return to land visually or complete IMC procedure.

94
Q

When do you turn to a heading on a Simple Special EFP?

A

Turn commenced at runway end.

94
Q

Are Simple Special EFPs required in IMC and VMC?

A

Mandatory in IMC.
Comply with procedure until reaching 3000 AFE.
Mandatory in VMC until reaching 1000 AFE.

95
Q

If past the turn point of a Simple Special EFP, what do you do?

A

Turn immediately upon engine failure to the assigned heading or NAVAID.

96
Q

Are Complex Special EFPs mandatory in IMC and VMC

A

Yes… mandatory in IMC and VMC.

97
Q

Dry Runway Definition

A

A runway is dry when it is neither wet nor contaminated.

98
Q

Wet Runway Definition

A

A runway is considered wet when more than 25% of the runway surface area, within the length and the width being used, is covered by any visible dampness or water 1/8 in (3 mm) or less in depth.

99
Q

Contaminated Runway Definition

A

Contaminated Runway - A runway is considered contaminated when more than 25% of the runway surface area (whether in isolated areas or not), within the reported length and the width being used, is covered by more than 1/8 in (3 mm) of standing water or its equivalent in slush, wet snow, dry snow or any depth of ice or compacted snow.

100
Q

Category A on MEL

A

Repair time intervals vary by item and are specified in the “Remarks or Exceptions” column.
May not be extended.

101
Q

Category B on MEL

A

Must be repaired within three consecutive calendar days (72 hours, recorded in UTC or local time), excluding the day the malfunction was recorded in the maintenance record.
A single extension may be exercised.

102
Q

What is a Normal Takeoff

A

NORMAL TAKEOFF (NRM) UP TO 10 KT TAILWIND
* Line up on the runway and advance thrust to 40% N1, with or without applying the brakes.
* When the engines stabilize at 40% N1, advance thrust levers to TO/GA detent.
11-15 KT TAILWIND
* Line up on the runway and apply brakes.
* With the AT disarmed, advance thrust to 60% N1
* When engines stabilize at 60% N1:
– Releasethebrakes,armtheAT,andslowlyadvanceboththrustleverstoTO/GA detent before 60 kt; or
– MakesuretheAThasadvancedboththrustleverstoTO/GAdetentbefore60kt.

103
Q

Crosswind limit for Static Takeoff

A

NOTE: Due to the possibility of compressor stall, a static takeoff is not recommended with a crosswind greater than 25 kt.

104
Q

Stabilized Approach Criteria

A

By 1,000 ft HAT:
* On lateral and vertical profile.
* Airspeed within +15 and -5 kt of VAP
* Sink rate is no greater than 1,000 ft/min; if an approach requires a higher sink rate, a briefing is required.
* The aircraft must be fully configured for landing and the BEFORE LANDING CHECKLIST complete.
When a transient unstable condition or an EGPWS notification occurs at or below 1,000 ft HAT and above 500 ft HAT, the PM states the deviation (e.g., “SPEED” or “SINKRATE”). The PF states “CORRECTING” and makes the proper adjustment. When the deviation from the above criteria is not immediately corrected, the aircraft is considered unstable, and a missed approach is mandatory. The PM will command a go-around by announcing “UNSTABLE, GO-AROUND.”
By 500 ft HAT:
* Airspeed established within the bug with adjustments for gust factor applied, if required.
* Thrust levers above idle.
Except for momentary airspeed and descent deviations, any unstable condition or any EGPWS notification that occurs at or below 500 ft HAT requires a missed approach. The PM will command a go-around by announcing “UNSTABLE, GO-AROUND.”

105
Q

When taxiing onto the runway, the FO turns on what?

A

All available lights

106
Q

What is a static takeoff ?

A

Line up on the runway, apply brakes, and advance thrust to 40% N1. When the engines stabilize at 40% N1, advance thrust levers to TO/GA detent. Release the brakes when the takeoff thrust (N1 target) is achieved.

107
Q

When is the Fuel Check completed?

A

Flight deck crews must monitor flight time and fuel burn while in the cruise phase of flight with reference to the flight plan. Fuel trend monitoring takes place for all flights beginning at the top of climb (TOC) and at least once each hour thereafter.

108
Q

What must the pilot(s) ensure is not causing the imbalance Before balancing fuel, according to the SOPM

A

Fuel Leak
Compare the EICAS fuel quantity to the FMS.

109
Q

To start the APU, must below what altitude?

A

FL300 and below.

110
Q

APU Start limitations - How long between starts?

A

Starts 1 and 2
60 seconds off
3rd start
5 minutes

111
Q

Flaps used to help ATC assigned speed of as slow as practical at FL290?

A

Max altitude flaps slats extended
FL200

112
Q

Icing exists with visible moisture and what temperature?

A

+10 Deg C TAT

113
Q

When RCC’s are not available, what should be used to determine landing performance?

A

Reported contaminant type and braking action

114
Q

To minimize stopping distance on a wet, slippery, or contaminated runway (RCC 5 or less):

A

Use autobrake setting MED
* Make a firm touchdown. Such technique avoids hydroplaning on wet runways and reduces the strength of any ice bond that, during flight, might be formed on brake and wheel assemblies.
* Apply maximum reverse thrust. Do not use asymmetric reverse thrust on slippery or icy runways.
* Apply firm and symmetrical brake pedal pressure; do not pump the brakes.
* If the airplane loses friction, do not apply the Emergency/Parking Brake, as it inhibits anti-skid protection.
* Maintain runway centerline with rudder, while maintaining firm and symmetrical braking.
* Landing on a wet, slippery, or contaminated runway with tailwind is not recommended.
* Consider using Maximum Performance Landing techniques.

115
Q

According to the Stabilized approach criteria in the SOPM, what are the requirements by 1,500 HAT or the FAF, whichever occurs first –

A

By 1,500 ft HAT or the FAF, whichever occurs first:
* Landing gear down
* FLAPS 3
* Airspeed no greater than 180 kt

116
Q

What would the PM do if the above criteria wasn’t met – meaning unstabilized?

A

Call “Speed” or “Flaps”
An immediate correction is required or a goaround is required.
“Unstabilized Go Around”

117
Q

What is the Stabilized approach criteria at 1,000’ for a straight in approach –

A

On lateral and vertical profile
Airspeed + 15 to - 5 kts Vap
VSI no greater than 1000 fpm
Fully configured and before landing checklist complete

118
Q

According the SOPM Maximum performance landing, can the thrust reverse be used until the airplane comes to a complete stop –

A

Apply maximum thrust reverse. When necessary, the thrust reversers may be used until the airplane comes to a complete stop.

119
Q

When are thrust reversers most effective, high or low speeds

A

High speed

120
Q

Some abnormal procedures require the use of the Emergency/Parking Brake to stop the airplane during landing. When this happens what protections are not available

A

Anti Skid not availble

120
Q

Minimum Fuel

A

2250 lbs remaining on landing

121
Q

Emergency Fuel

A

1500 lbs remaining on landing

122
Q

Minimum Fuel provides what?

A

Minimum fuel provides 45 minutes of fuel endurance based upon 1,500 ft AFE / Green Dot / Clean.

123
Q

Emergency Fuel provides what?

A

Emergency fuel provides 30 minutes of fuel endurance based upon 1,500 ft AFE / Green Dot / Clean.

124
Q

Fuel gauges turn amber at…

A

1320 lbs.

125
Q

Describe Max Performance Landing

A

To minimize landing distance, consider the following techniques:
* Use FULL Flaps
* Cross the threshold at screen height of 50 ft and VREF
* Avoid extended flare
* Apply maximum thrust reverse. When necessary, the thrust reversers may be used until the airplane comes to a complete stop.
* Immediately after the main landing gear wheels have touched down, apply firm and steady maximum manual brakes and hold pedal pressure until the airplane decelerates to a safe taxi speed within the runway
* Lower nosewheel immediately

126
Q

Use of Reverse Thrust

A

When using reverse thrust, apply consistent with runway conditions and modulate as required. At 80 kt, smoothly reduce reverse thrust to MIN REV by 60 kt and idle thrust by 30 kt.

CQ 2024 (6 decks)

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