Study Guide Exam 3 (Chapters 24, 25, 49, 50) Flashcards

1
Q

ADLs (Activities of daily living)

A

Measure of the ability to carry out the basic tasks needed for self care.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Anticipatory Guidance

A

Patient education and oral hygiene instructions that anticipate potential oral and systemic health problems associated with risk factors identified during patient assessment.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

ASA

A

American Society of Anesthesiologist; originally developed the ASA Classifications to determine modifications necessary to provide general anesthetics to patients during surgical procedures.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Chief Complaint

A

The patient’s concern as stated during the initial health history preparation; may be the reason for seeking professional care; a complaint such as pain or discomfort may require emergency dental diagnosis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Diagnosis

A

a statement of the problem; a concise technical description of the cause, nature, or manifestations of a condition, situation, or problem; identification of a disease or deviation from normal condition by recognition of characteristic signs and symptoms.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Differential Diagnosis

A

identification of which one of several diseases or conditions may be producing the symptoms.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Prognosis

A

Prediction of outcome; a forecast of the probable course and outcome of a disease and the prospects of recovery as expected by the nature of the specific condition and the symptoms of the case.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Risk Factor

A

an attribute or exposure that increases the probability of disease, such as an aspect of personal behavior, environmental exposure, or an inherited characteristic associated with health-related conditions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Anticipatory Guidance (Pedo)

A

Provide information to parents and caregivers on what to expect in a child’s current and next developmental stage so that the child’s needs can be anticipated and properly managed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

CAMBRA

A

Acronym that refers to the phrase “caries management by risk assessment.”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Grazing

A

eating or drinking at-will throughout the day or evening.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Infant

A

Child younger than 1 year of age.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Nonnutritive Sucking

A

Sucking fingers, thumb, pacifiers or other objects for comfort.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are the risk factors for caries?

A
  • Behavioral factors
  • Dietary factors
  • Low Fluoride
  • Tooth Morphology and position
  • Xerostomia
  • Personal and family history of dental caries
  • Developmental factors
  • Genetic factors
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are the risk factors for Periodontal infections/ poor response to periodontal therapy?

A
  • Behavioral factors
  • Tobacco use
  • Systemic conditions
  • Horomonal Considerations
  • Nutritional status
  • Iatrogenic factors
  • Genetic Factors
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Periodontal disease as a risk factor for systemic conditions

A
  • Infective Endocarditis
  • Cardiovascular disease and atherosclerosis
  • Diabetes Mellitus
  • Respiratory Disease
  • Adverse Pregnancy outcomes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are the risk factors for oral cancer?

A
  • Tobacco use
  • Alcohol use
  • Sun exposure
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

OSCAR

A
O: Oral
S: Systemic
C: Capability
A: Autonomy
R: Reality
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Why should OTC teething products containing Benzocaine not be used on teething babies under 2 years old?

A

Because is causes a rare but fatal disease called methemoglobinemia.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

ASA I

A

Without systemic disease; a normal, healthy patient with little or no dental anxiety.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

ASA II

A

Mild systemic diseases or extreme dental anxiety.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

ASA III

A

Systemic Disease that limits activity but is not incapacitating.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

ASA IV

A

Incapacitating disease that is a constant threat to life.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

ASA V

A

Patient is moribund and not expected to survive.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What are the factors that affect sequence of care?

A
  1. Urgency
  2. Existing Etiologic Factors
  3. Severity and Extent of Condition
  4. Individual Patient Requirements
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Knee-to-Knee exams are also called what?

A

Hold and go technique

27
Q

Why do we not use Varnish on people who have a tree-nut allergy?

A

Bc varnish is emulsified in some type of tree-nut oil.

28
Q

What is the Show-tell-do technique?

A
  • Always explain everything you use bf doing so
  • Use fun names – like: tooth feeler, slurpy straw, elevator chair
  • Keep explanations brief and do procedure quick
  • Let them watch you w/hand mirror (eliminates fear of unknown)
29
Q

What is vertical transmission?

A

When bacteria is transferred from parent to child.

30
Q

When is the best time to schedule a pedo patient?

A

early mornings or after naps.

31
Q

When should a pedi patient have their first dental appointment?

A

within 6 months of eruption of first tooth.

32
Q

What are the predisposing factors of ECC?

A
  • Placing child in bed with bottle.
  • Bottle contains sweetened milk or other sucrose-sweetened fluids.
  • Prolonged at will, breast or bottle feedings as a sleep or behavioral control.
  • Ineffective or no daily biofilm removal from teeth.
33
Q

What teeth does ECC Effect?

A
  • Maxillary anterior teeth and primary molars are first to be affected.
  • Lesions develop on all but the mandibular anteriors.
  • Mandibular incisors and canines are protected.
34
Q

How do we recognize ECC?

A
  • Demineralization on cervical 1/3 of max. anteriors and proximal surfaces.
  • remineralization can occur with use of fluoride paste and topical application.
  • at later stage- lesions appear dark brown.
  • Eventually the crown of the tooth may be destroyed, access can occur, as well as pain and discomfort.
35
Q

What does demineralization look like?

A

White chalky spots

36
Q

What is the best fluoride to use on demineralization?

A

Varnish

37
Q

What is the best fluoride to use on pedi patients? why?

A

Varnish because there is a lowered risk of ingestion.

38
Q

Why do we need to restore primary teeth?

A

Because it can affect the permanent dentition coming in behind those teeth.

39
Q

When should infants be weaned from the bottle, breast, or pacifier?

A

should be discontinued by age of 1. between 6-12 months

40
Q

When are infants more likely to receive restorative treatment?

A

If dental appointments are held off until age of 2-3

41
Q

When can children usually brush adequately by themselves?

A

if they have developed fine motor skills enough to tie their own shoelaces (i.e. 7-8 yrs. old).

42
Q

ADA code for Comprehensive Evaluation-New or established patient?

A

D0150

Only be done 1x yearly

43
Q

ADA code for periodic evaluation-Established patient?

A

D0120

44
Q

ADA code for limited oral evaluation-problem focused?

A

D0140

45
Q

ADA code for Adult prophylaxis?

A

D1110

46
Q

ADA code for Child prophylaxis?

A

D1120

47
Q

ADA code for Topical application of fluoride varnish?

A

D1206

48
Q

ADA code for Topical application of fluoride-excluding varnish?

A

D1208

49
Q

ADA code for Sealant- per tooth?

A

D1351

50
Q

ADA code for sealant repair- per tooth?

A

D1353

51
Q

ADA code for Periodontal scaling or root planing- 4 or more teeth per quad?

A

D4341

52
Q

ADA code for Periodontal scaling or root planing-one or three teeth per quad?

A

D4342

53
Q

Diagnostic Statements

A

Link observed or potential oral health problems identified during the patient assessment to probable etiology or risk factors.
-Relate to problems and solutions that can be addressed within the dental hygiene scope of practice.

54
Q

Examples of Diagnostic

A
  • Hypersensitivity related to exposed cementum/gingival recession.
  • Gingival bleeding related to biofilm accumulation causing inflammation.
55
Q

How do we use CHX and different types of fluoride for high risk caries?

A
  • Caries management for high caries risk patients may include rinsing with 0.12% CHX, once a day with 10ml for 1 minute 1 week each month.
  • CHX is highly effective against mutant streptococcus infections.
  • Neutral sodium fluoride 1.1% dentifrice applied twice daily for the 3 weeks following CHX short-term rinse.
  • Varnish applications at dental hygiene appointments.
56
Q

Oral soft tissue conditions in children 6mon-5yrs

A
  • Eruption cyst:
  • Mucocele
  • Traumatic Ulcer
  • Alveolr abscess
  • Primary herpetic gingivostomatitis
  • Geographic Tongue
  • Verruca Vulgaris
57
Q

Past Dental Experience

A
  • Primary Prevention: sealants
  • Secondary Prevention: Restorations
  • Tertiary Prevention: Extractions and replacement of teeth
58
Q

Good Prognosis following periodontal therapy

A
  • Adequate control of etiologic factors
  • Adequate patient self-care ability
  • Adequate periodontal support
59
Q

Fair Prognosis following periodontal therapy

A
  • Adequate control of etiologic factors
  • Adequate patient self-care ability
  • Less than 25% attachment loss
  • ClassI or less furcation involvement
60
Q

Poor Prognosis following periodontal therapy

A
  • Greater than 50% attachment loss with Class II furcation

- Patient self care difficult due to location and depth of furcation.

61
Q

Questionable Prognosis following periodontal therapy

A
  • Greater than 50% attachment loss with poor crown-to-root ratio
  • Poor root form: Instrumentation access
  • Inaccessible Class II furcation or class III furcation
  • Greater than 2+ mobility
  • Significant root proximity
62
Q

Hopeless Prognosis following periodontal therapy

A

-Inadequate attachment to maintain the tooth.

63
Q

Health Considerations for ECC

A
  • Gaining Cooperation: Make it fun
  • Brushing and Flossing: Establish a routine. Brush before bed.
  • Parental Involvement and Supervision: Assist child, keep fluoride out of reach, floss child.
  • Toothpaste:Under 6: Peasize
  • Instructions for parents: Under 3: Smear, Teach to spit out, keep out of reach.
64
Q

When is the risk for oral cancer significantly higher?

A

When using tobacco or alcohol