Study guide exam 1 Flashcards

1
Q

what is meiosis

A

results in 4 non-identical haploid daughter gametes after two divisions.

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2
Q

what is nondisjunction?

A

nondisjunction where there is failed separation of chromosomes during anaphase, so either whole chromosomes (error occurring in meiosis I) or chromatids (error occurring in meiosis II) move to the same pole of the cell. This leaves one gamete short of some genetic information, and the other with additional genetic information.

sister chromatids fail to separate normally during meiosis or mitosis.

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3
Q

what is chromosomal mosaic

A

usually occurs if trisomy 21 is de novo (mutation occurs after fertilization in 1 cell but not the rest), causes some cells to have trisomy 21 and some to be regular.

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4
Q

cri du chat

A

rare genetic condition that is caused by the deletion (a missing piece) of genetic material on the small arm (the p arm) of chromosome 5. Not hereditary.

The symptoms of cri du chat syndrome vary among individuals. The variability of the clinical symptoms and developmental delays may be related to the size of the deletion of the 5p arm.

The clinical symptoms of cri du chat syndrome usually include a high-pitched cat-like cry, mental retardation, delayed development, distinctive facial features, small head size (microcephaly), widely-spaced eyes (hypertelorism), low birth weight and weak muscle tone (hypotonia) in infancy. The cat-like cry typically becomes less apparent with time.

Most individuals who have cri du chat syndrome have difficulty with language. Half of children learn sufficient verbal skills to communicate. Some individuals learn to use short sentences, while others express themselves with a few basic words, gestures, or sign language.

Other characteristics may include feeding difficulties, delays in walking, hyperactivity, scoliosis, and significant retardation. A small number of children are born with serious organ defects and other life-threatening medical conditions, although most individuals with cri du chat syndrome have a normal life expectancy.

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5
Q

example of a chromosomal deletion condition

A

gamete with lost DNA+normal DNA=some normal genes and some missing (cri du chat)

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6
Q

sex chromosome aneuploidy

A

1/500 males and 1/900 females. Less severe than autosomal. All forms except absence of ANY X allows for survival.
Trisomy X, turner and klinefelter

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7
Q

turner syndrome

A

sex chromosome aneuploidy
(not hereditary, random and due to nondisjunction)
1 X chromosome, no X or Y (45 chromosomes)aka 45,X
(a) Only in females, not intellectually disabled, but dumb. Short stature, thick neck, wide nipples, coarctation of aorta, sterile. Usually d/t meiotic error in the father

extra skin on the neck (webbed neck), puffiness or swelling (lymphedema) of the hands and feet, skeletal abnormalities, heart defects and kidney problems.

do not start their periods or develop breasts without hormone treatment at the age of puberty

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8
Q

Klinefelter syndrome

A

Klinefelter syndrome–sex chromosome aneuploidy—2X1Y, 47,XXY (not hereditary, random and due to nondisjunction)
(a) STERILE. Male appearance, female like breasts. Mod. Mental impairment high pitched voice, small testes. Mosaicism common

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9
Q

cystic fibrosis

A

autosomal recessive
gene responsible encodes a chloride ion channel in some epithelial cells. Dec. chloride transport NaCL imbalance very thick mucous, dehydrated, clogging of dig. Organs and pancrease. Death from lung disease or HF before age 40 in 50% of those affected.
(1) Males=females. Common in consanguinity. Common in siblings but not parents. ¼ of offspring of carrier parents will be affected, ½ will be carriers.

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10
Q

explain x link recessive

A

males hemizygous, females homozygous. Males will be more affected since they only have 1 X chromosome.
i) X inactivation happens after fertilization. ½ x chromosomes inactivated, not the same in each cell.

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11
Q

fragile X

A

x linked dominant
intellectual disability, second most common genetic cause of intellectual disability. Males always exhibit symptoms, females not always
Caused by duplication in CGG multiple times (200), number of repeats increases from generation to generation. Huntington and myotonic dystrophy are also caused by this mechanism

A boy who has the full FMR1 mutation has fragile X syndrome and will have moderate intellectual disability. They have a particular facial appearance, characterized by a large head size, a long face, prominent forehead and chin and protruding ears. In addition males who have fragile X syndrome have loose joints (joint laxity), and large testes (after puberty).

Affected boys may have behavioral problems such as hyperactivity, hand flapping, hand biting, temper tantrums and autism. Other behaviors in boys after they have reached puberty include poor eye contact, perseverative speech, problems in impulse control and distractibility. Physical problems that have been seen include eye, orthopedic, heart and skin problems.

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12
Q

Trisomy 21 (from book)

A

trisomy 21 (3 copies of 1 chromosome). small, low set ears, broad short ears, short eyelashes, protruding tongue. 20-25% survive until birth. increased risk of heart disease d/t high cholesterol levels.

having heart defects, digestive problems such as gastroesophageal reflux or celiac disease, and hearing loss. Some people who have Down syndrome have low activity of the thyroid gland (hypothyroidism) -

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13
Q

trisomy vs quadrosomy

A

(1) Triploidy—3 copies of each chromosome—most are spontaneously aborted or are stillborn
(2) Tetraploidy—92 chromosomes—mostly in aborted fetuses.

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14
Q

aneuploidy

A

cell doesn’t contain multiple of 23 chromosomes

trisomy or monosomy (1+ chromosome lost or gained, polyploidys are aneuploidys, but not all aneuploidys are polyploidys)

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15
Q

trisomy vs monosomy

A

ypes of aneuploidy

trisomy: 3 copies of 1 chromosome (trisomic)—trisome 13, 18, 21 or X can survive
ii) Monosomy—presence of only 1 copy of chromosome in a diploid cell—lethal
iii) Loss of chromosome material has more serious consequences than duplication of chromosome material***

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16
Q

partial trisomy

A

extra portion of chromosome in each cell. NOT as severe as complete trisomies.

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17
Q

Duchenne muscular dystrophy

A

DMD is a rapidly progressive form of muscular dystrophy that occurs primarily in boys. It is caused by an alteration (mutation) in a gene, called the DMD gene that can be inherited in families in an X-linked recessive fashion, but it often occurs in people from families without a known family history of the condition. Individuals who have DMD have progressive loss of muscle function and weakness, which begins in the lower limbs. The DMD gene is the second largest gene to date, which encodes the muscle protein, dystrophin. Boys with Duchenne muscular dystrophy do not make the dystrophin protein in their muscles.

Duchenne muscular dystrophy affects approximately 1 in 3500 male births worldwide. Because this is an inherited disorder, risks include a family history of Duchenne muscular dystrophy.

The symptoms usually appear before age 6 and may appear as early as infancy. Typically, the first noticeable symptom is delay of motor milestones, including sitting and standing independently. The mean age for walking in boys with Duchenne muscular dystrophy is 18 months. There is progressive muscle weakness of the legs and pelvic muscles, which is associated with a loss of muscle mass (wasting). This muscle weakness causes a waddling gait and difficulty climbing stairs. Muscle weakness also occurs in the arms, neck, and other areas, but not as severely or as early as in the lower half of the body.

breathing complications and cardiomyopathy are most common causes of death

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18
Q

epigenetics

A

chemical changes that cause dramatically different phenotypes. Methylation on DNA can cause certain pieces not to be able to be transcribed by mRNA. This affects the expression of genes

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19
Q

explain hypertrophy

A

compensatory increase in SIZE of cells d/t mechanical load/stress. Increases the size of the affected organ

a. Stretching, pressure, volume overload. Kidneys and heart are prone to this
i. Adaptive—changes to adapt (i.e. increase muscle size)
ii. Compensatory—changes to compensate—i.e lose a kidney the other enlarges
iii. Physiologic—increased demand in absence of pathology
iv. Pathologic—from pathologic cause—enlarged heart d/t HTN

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20
Q

explain atrophy

A

a. Two categories:
i. Physiologic—normal event (age related gonad atrophy d/t dec. hormone stimulation, dec. in size of thamus in early childhood, aging causes atrophy in brain cells)
ii. Pathologic—occurs d/t decreases in workload, pressure, use, blood supply, nutrition, hormone stim or neural stim (for example disuse atrophy from bed rest or immobilization)
b. What’s different in atrophic muscle cells?
i. Less ER, fewer mitochondria, fewer myofilaments in muscle cells

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21
Q

describe hyperplasia

A

increase in NUMBER of Cells—d/t inc rate of cellular division

a. Requires that cells undergo mitosis—usually d/t production of growth factors stimulating cells after injury or can be from stem cells (liver cells injured new cells can regenerate from intrahepatic stem cells).
b. Can be compensatory hyperplasia or hormonal hyperplasia
i. Compensatory hyperplasia: adaptive that enables organs to regenerate
1. Remove a piece of the liver, rapid hyperplasia ensues.
2. Callus—resp to injury from mechanical stimulus
3. Wound healing d/t inflammatory process
ii. Pathologic hormonal hyperplasia—abnormal proliferation of normal cells d/t excessive hormonal stimulation or GF on target cells
1. Ex. Endometrial hyperplasia d/t imbalance of estrogen and progesterone. If continues over time the regular growth inhibiting control mechanism can fail and lead to malignancy
2. Ex. BPH or thyroid enlargement d/t excessive levels of TSH

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22
Q

describe dysplasia

A

—NOT A TRUE ADAPTIVE CHANGE—abnormal changes in size, shape and organization of mature cells. Is related to hyperplasia and referred to as atypical hyperplasia

a. DISORDERLY, but not referring to cancer
b. Common in epithelial tissue of cervix, endometrium, GI and respiratory tract mucosa. Can be reversible if don’t involve the entire thickness of epithelium
i. When dysplastic changes penetrate the basement membrane it’s considered an invasive neoplasm.

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23
Q

describe metaplasia

A

REVERSIBLE replacement of one mature cell type by another cell type.

a. Associated with tissue damage, repair and regeneration.
b. Adaptive response==new cell type may be better suited to withstand an adverse environment.
i. Example: long term cig. Smoker with chronic irritation from smoke causes normal ciliated columner epithelial cells to be replaced by stratified squamous epithelial cells (don’t secrete mucous or have cilia)
c. Results from reprogramming of stem cells

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24
Q

describe anaplasia

A

lost the unique characteristics that define them as a certain tissue type.
Anaplasia can be explained as when a cell ‘reverts’ to a more stem-cell like state, one that is often distorted. Often seen in cancer cells, the cell no longer functions as part of the tissue that surrounds it. As the cell undergoes mitosis, it produces cells that also display anaplasia. In this way, a malignant tumor is born.

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25
Q

asphyxiation vs strangulation

A

lack of oxygen from environment OR from blockage of respiratory airway.
vs
hypoxia from impaired blood flow to brain.
Injury/death results from impaired CEREBRAL blood flow

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26
Q

axphyxiation

A
  1. Suffocations—lack of oxygen from environment OR from blockage of respiratory airway. Methane or co2 common.
  2. Choking—obstruction of airway (by object or compressional if chest trappedpetichiae)
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27
Q

chemical asphyxiation

A

prevent delivery of oxygen to tissues or block o2 use

  1. CO!!—odorless, colorless, nonirritating, undetectable. Caused by incomplete combustion of fuels like gas.
    i. Causes death by indusing CNS depression
    ii. CO binds with Hgb instead of o2 because affinity 300x more. carboxyhemaglobin
    iii. Widespread ischemia, but pt only feels sleepy, may appear cherry red (skin and mucous membranes)
  2. Symptoms: ha, giddiness, tinnitus, c/p, confusion, nausea, weakness and vomiting
  3. Population most affected: fetuses, infants, HF patients, pulmonary patients, anemia
    iv. Dx by carboxyhemaglobin levels
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28
Q

how does dehydration occur when edema is present?

A

Dehydration can develop d/t fluid sequestering

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29
Q

hypertonic vs hypotonic fluid imbalances

A

hyper–>pulls fluid out of cells and causes dehydration

hypo–>pushes fluid in and can cause cell to burst

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30
Q

acid base determination

A

pH low=acitic, pH high alkalotic
HCO3 low acidotic, HCO3 high alkalotic
CO2 low acidotic, CO2 high alkalotic

can compensate partially or fully.

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31
Q

explain respiratory compensation

A

a) respiratory system compensates for changes in pH by altering rate/depth of ventilation to inc or dec retained CO2
i) shallow breathing retains co2 (increases acidity potential)
ii) rapid breathing blows of co2 (decreases acidity potential)
iii) renal compensation
(1) if respiratory acidosis the kidneys attempt to compensate by resorbing bicarb and excreting H+
(a) occurs more slowly but very effective
(2) respiratory aclokalosis—kidneys decrease rate of H+ in urine and reduce rate of resorption of bicarb
iv) respiratory compensation
(1) if metabolic acidosis the lungs attempt to compensate by rapid/deep breathing to blow of co2 (potential acid)
(a) occurs within minutes
(2) if metabolic alkalosis lungs compensate with slow shallow breathing to preserve CO2

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32
Q

what would an ABG look like with compensated alkalosis/acidosis

A

pH is WNL but HCO3 and CO2 both high or both low

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33
Q

what would an ABG look like with partially compensated alkalosis/acidosis

A

pH near normal, CO2 and HCO3 both high or low

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34
Q

describe metabolic acidosis

A

a) Lactic acidosis d/t poor perfusion or hypoxema (rapid)
b) Renal failure, dka or starvation (slow)
c) When severe buffers become depleted and can no longer compensate to keep bicarb/carbonic acid 20:1

symptoms: e) Symptoms: HA, lethargy, confusion, coma. Kussmaul respirations (deep and rapid hyperventilation)

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35
Q

describe anion gap

A

used in determining cause of metabolic acidosis

i) Elevated anion cap
(1) DKA, lactic acidosis, injestion, renal failure
ii) Normal anion gap
(1) Diarrhea, ureterosigmoidoscopy, early renal failure

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36
Q

describe metabolic alkalosis causes and symptoms

A

a) Hypochloremic metabolic acidosis–if d/t vomiting/diarrhea renal comp not effective d/t loss of HCl and Cl which stim bicarb retention (tX NaCl to replenish chloride so kidneys can excrete bicarb)
b) Hyperaldosteronism—sodium bicarb retention and loss of H and K
c) Diuretics can cause mild alkalosis d/t excretion of NA, K, Cl more than bicarb
d) Symptoms: weakness, muscle cramps, hyperactive reflexes, tetany, confusion, convulsions, a-tach, shallow slow ventilation, s/s low calcium

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37
Q

describe respiratory acidosis causes and symptoms

A

a) d/t: head injury/drugs, paralysis of resp. muscles, d/o of chest wall, COPD, pna.
b) Renal compensation takes 3-4 days to kick in with inc retention of bicarb. Hgb/phosphate system first
c) s/s: HA, blurred vision, breathlessness, restless, lethargy, disorientation,muscle twitching, tremors, convusions, coma. Respi rate rapid the depressed and resp center adapts to inc co2
d) treatment: restore alveolar ventilation

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38
Q

describe respiratory alkalosis causes and symptoms

A

alveolar hyperventilation and hypocapnia (low co2), decreases carbonic acid concentration. PaCO2 <35

a) causes: pulm. Disease, hypoxemia, HF, hyigh altitudes, hypermetabolic staes (fever, thyrotoxicosis), aspirin od, cirrhosis, sepsis, improper ventilator settings. Secondary alkalosis can be d/t hyperventilation d/t metabolic acidosis (mixed acid-base)
b) s/s: confusion, dizziness, tingling, convulsion, coma, s/s low calcium

39
Q

normal ranges of pH, HCO3, CO2 and Pa02

A

HCO3 22-26, PaO2 80-100, PaCO2 35-45, pH 7.35-7.45

40
Q

what is the first line of defense in immunity?

A

innate immunity, physical barriers: skin, cell derived chemicals (sweat, etc)

41
Q

second line of defense of immunity

A

inlammation
1. Occurs in vascularized tissue, 2. Rapid response (seconds) 3. Cellular and chemical 4. NONSPECIFIC. Same regardless of injury

42
Q

3rd line of defense immunity

A

adaptive immunity

43
Q

describe the s/s vascular response in inflammation

A

Acute s/s: rubor (red), calor (heat), tumor (swelling), dolor (pain), function laesa (loss of function)

44
Q

4 steps of acute inflammation and describe

A

Coagulation—clotting cascade initiatedplateletsslows blood flow, walls off injury, mesh for healing
• 2. Vasodilation—increased diameter of blood vessels to deliver more blood—movement of fluids chemicals and cells into tissuesred, heat
• 3. Increased vascular permeabilityblood vessels porous s/t contraction of endothelial cellsexudate and edema in area around injury
• 4. White blood cell adhesion—adhere to inner walls of vessels, migrate through larger spaces of endothelial cellsmore phagocytes (neutrophils and macrophages)

45
Q

what are the 3 plasma protein systems

A

complement, clotting and kinen

46
Q

describe the complement system

A

complements the capacity of antibodies and phagocytes to clear pathogens and dead cells and activate inflammation
• Consists of complement factors (proteins). Activation of C3 and C5 results in 3 potent molecules being released

47
Q

what does C3b do?

A

opsonins–coat bacteria

48
Q

what does C5a do?

A

chemotactic—like a magnet attracts leukocytes

49
Q

c3a and c5a are

A

anaphylatoxins—degranulates mast cells to release histamine which increases vasodilation and capillary permeability

50
Q

what is a MAC?

A

IN COMPLEMENT SYSTEM membrane attack complex
• Complements c6-c9. Leads to bacterial destruction and tissue injury by creating pores in outer membranes of cells or bacteria. These cause the infusion of water into the cellscell death

51
Q

describe the 3 ways to activate the complement system

A

classical: activated by antibodies bind to antigens
alternative: doesn’t need antibodies. activated directly by substances on the surfaces of infectious microorganisms (lipopolysaccharides/endotoxins on bacteria or zymosan (carbohydrate on yeast cells).

lectin–independent of antibodies. Activated by plasma proteins like mannose-binding lectin (MBL). Binds to bacterial polysacc.

52
Q

extrinsic+intrinsic clotting systems both

A

Converge at factor X Activates fibrinfibrin clot activates clotting systemfibrinopeptides which attracts neutrophils (chemotaxis) and increase vascular permeability

53
Q

what is the intrinsic clotting system?

A

activated by tissue factor–TF aka thromboplastin released by damaged endothelial cells of blood vessels. Reacts with activated factor VII

54
Q

what is the extrinsic clotting system?

A

activated when vessel wall damage causes negatively charged subendothelial subst. to come into contact with factor XII

55
Q

describe the kinin system

A

interacts with clotting system. Clotting AND kinin initiated through activation of Hageman factor (XII) which results in formation of factor XIIa activates prekalikreinkallikreinkininogenbradykinin (final product)
• Bradykinin causes dilation of blood vessels and induces pain, smooth muscle cell contraction and increases vascular permeability

56
Q

what protein/molecules are inhibitors of inflammation?

A
  • Protease inhibitor—inhibits activation of complement
  • Carboxypeptidase—inactivates toxic activities of C3a and C5a
  • Kininase—degrates kinins
  • Histaminase—degrades histamine and kallikrein
  • Fibrinolytic system—limits size of clot and degrades clot after bleeding stops
  • Plasminogenplasmin which degrades the fibrin polymers in clots
57
Q

cellular components of inflammation include:

A

mast cells, WBCs (neutrophils, monocytes and lymphocytes), macrophages and dendritic cells, erythrocytes, cell receptors and cell mediators, inflammatory cytokines and interleukins

58
Q

IgA

A

in blood and body secretions- primary secretory immune system antibody, prevents attachment

59
Q

what happens to a B cell during clonal selection?

A

i) During clonal selection B cell develops into antibody secreting plasma cell. Has option of becoming secretor of IgM or changing to IgG, IgA or IgE

60
Q

IgE

A

normally at low concentrations, very specialized and mediator of ax responses and against parasitic infection. Causes allergies if produced against environmental antigens. Also attracts eosinophils to parasite.

61
Q

IgM

A

Largest ab—pentamer—1st antibody produced during initial response to antigens. Best at activating complement

62
Q

Which antibodies are produced early by B cells and used as cell membrane receptors

A

IgM and IgD

63
Q

describe the secretory immune system

A

i) Protects external surfaces (lacrimal and salivary glands, lymphoid tissue in breasts, bronchi, intestines and GU tract)
ii) Plasma cells in above sites secrete antibodies in bodily secretions to prevent infection
iii) Includes IgA primarily but also IgG and IgM

64
Q

describe the primary immune system

A

5-7 days after exposure to ab production of IgM and IgG

i) Antibody serum sample is called a titer. High titer means more antibodies.

65
Q

describe the secondary immune system

A

apid production of lg amounts of a from memory cells. IgM produced but will have MORE IgG.

66
Q

pediatric considerations adaptive immunity

A

can’t produce all classes of ab. IgM is produced in utero, limited IgA, IgG after birth

67
Q

describe mast cells

A

 Potent activators of inflammation
• Can be activated by tissue damage or complement cascade and IgE (allergies)
• Located in connective tissues and close to vessels—skin, GI, respiratory
• 2 ways they are helpful
• Degranulation—release their contents within seconds of stimulus
What’s inside? Histaminesconstriction of smooth muscle and dilation of post capillary venulesincreased blood flow
H1—histamine binds to this and causes smooth muscle contraction and bronchoconstriction
H2—histamine binds to this and suppresses leukocyte function,
H2 blockers reduce gastric acidity
• Synthesis of mediators: leukotrienes, prostaglandins and platelet activating factor
1. leukotrienes—induce smooth muscle contraction (bronchoconstriction) and increase vascular permeability, stimulate slow, prolonged inflammatory responses (as apposed to rapid acting histamine)
2. prostaglandins—increase vascular permeability, neutrophil chemotaxis and pain. Produced by COX
COX-1 activates platelets and protects stomach lining
Cox-02 associated with inflammation
3. platelet activating factor—produced by neutrophils, monocytes, endothelial cells, mast cells and platelets. Cause endothelial cell retractionincreased vascular permeability, adhesion of leukocytes and platelet activation (can also activate mast cells

68
Q

antitoxines

A

protective antibodies produced against toxins produced by bacteria (ex. toxins cause symptoms of tentanus or diphtheria).

69
Q

Klinefelters–from Mrs. Chielli

A

47,XXY or XXY condition

Individuals with at least two X chromosomes and one Y chromosome in each cell (47,XXY karyotype) have a disorder known as Klinefelter syndrome.

Characteristics of Klinefelter syndrome: small testes, some development of the breasts, sparse body hair, and long limbs. This syndrome results from the presence of two or more X chromosomes with one Y chromosome (genotypes XXY or XXXY, for example).

Moderate degree of mental impairment may be present
Usually sterile
Sparse body hair, sterile, small testicles
50% are due to nondisjunction of X chromosomes in the mother and frequency rises with increasing maternal age.
Can have XXY and XXXY types with the degree of physical and mental impairment increasing with each added X chromosome

70
Q

Fragile X per Mrs. Chielli

A

Study Guide Content: Fragile X Syndrome
Hello Yadhira and Class,

Here is Study Guide content excerpted from our textbook, which will not be covered in our weekly discussion:

Fragile X Syndrome

A number of areas on chromosomes develop distinctive breaks and gaps (observable microscopically) when the cells are cultured. Most of these fragile sites do not appear to be related to disease.

However, one fragile site, located on the long arm of the X chromosome, is associated with fragile X syndrome.

The most important feature of this syndrome is intellectual disability.

With a relatively high population prevalence (affecting approximately 1 in 4000 males and 1 in 8000 females), fragile X syndrome is the second most common genetic cause of intellectual disability (after Down syndrome).

In fragile X syndrome, females who inherit the mutation do not necessarily express the disease condition, but they can pass it on to descendants who do express it.

Ordinarily, a male who inherits a disease gene on the X chromosome expresses the condition because he has only one X chromosome.

An uncommon feature of this disease is that about one-third of carrier females are affected, although less severely than males.

More than 20 other genetic diseases, including Huntington disease and myotonic dystrophy, also are caused by this mechanism.

Glossary:

Chromosomal fragile site: a place where chromosomes are susceptible to gaps or breaks

Fragile X syndrome: MedlinePlus Genetics

Researchers identify drug target for behavioral symptoms of fragile X syndrome

71
Q

Cri Du Chat from Mrs. Chielli

A

Cri du chat syndrome

Deletions:

Broken chromosomes and lost DNA cause deletions.

Usually, a gamete with a deletion unites with a normal gamete to form a zygote. The zygote thus has one chromosome with the normal complement of genes and one with some missing genes.

Because many genes can be lost in a deletion, serious consequences result, even though one normal chromosome is present.

The most often cited example of a disease caused by a chromosomal deletion is the cri du chat syndrome. The term literally means “cry of the cat” and describes the characteristic cry of the affected child.

Other symptoms include low birth weight, severe intellectual disability, microcephaly (smaller than normal head size), and heart defects. The disease is caused by a deletion of part of the short arm of chromosome.

Duplications:

A deficiency of genetic material is more harmful than an excess, so duplications usually have less serious consequences than deletions.

For example, a deletion of a region of chromosome 5 causes cri du chat syndrome, but a duplication of the same region causes intellectual disability, but less serious physical defects.

Terms:

Gamete: sperm & egg cells

Zygote: a 23-chromosome female gamete (egg) and 23-chromosome male gamete (sperm) unite to form a 46-chromosome zygote, which is capable of developing into a new individual. A diploid cell formed by the fusion of two haploid gametes (egg and sperm). A zygote is a fertilized ovum (female reproductive cell)

Here are images from the CDC, MedlinePlus and Medscape:

Details - Public Health Image Library(PHIL)

Cri-du-chat Syndrome: Practice Essentials, Pathophysiology, Epidemiology

Cri-du-chat Syndrome: Practice Essentials, Pathophysiology, Epidemiology

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72
Q

miRNA vs mRNA

A

MicroRNA (miRNA) is a type of non-coding RNA (RNA that does not encode a protein) with a length of about 22 base. It binds to a complementary sequence in the 3’UTR of mRNA (coding RNA), and thereby regulates the gene expression. It is said that 30-50% of all genes are regulated in this manner. The regulation mechanisms employed by miRNA include transcript degradation and translational suppression

73
Q

chromosomal vs single gene disorder

A

Single-gene disorders, where a mutation affects one gene. Sickle cell anemia is an example. Chromosomal disorders, where chromosomes (or parts of chromosomes) are missing or changed.

74
Q

What does the suffix -somymean

A

Chromosomes have been gained or lost. Name of affected cell will end in Somy

75
Q

Single gene versus chromosome disorder

A

Single gene disorders are inherited and clearly identifiable patterns. Chromosomal disorders are deviations in the structure or number of chromosomes due to the loss addition rearrangement or exchange of genes.

76
Q

Incidences of non-disjunction increases with

A

Maternal age. Non-disjunction can cause chromosomal disorders

77
Q

RNA polymerase vs DNA polymerase

A

DNA polymerase matches base pairs and results in a double-stranded DNA molecule during polymerization (replication)

RNA polymerase produces a single-stranded RNA molecule during transcription.

78
Q

explain genetic imprinting

A

Genomic imprinting is a reversible form of gene inactivation and is not considered a mutation. For instance, Jane inherits two copies of a paternally imprinted gene. The copy she inherited from her father will be imprinted, or inactivated, and the copy she inherited from her mother will be active (not imprinted).

example is prader willi sydrome

79
Q

what is an example of an X linked recessive disease?

A

duchenne muscular dystrophy

80
Q

The regions of the heterogeneous nuclear RNA that must be spliced out to form functional
RNA are called:

A

introns

81
Q

explain missense mutations

A

a form of base pair substitution, alter amino acids, which produce a change (i.e., the “sense”)
in a single amino acid.

82
Q

Which of the following disorders is manifested primarily in males?

a. Cystic fibrosis
b. Neurofibromatosis
c. Muscular dystrophy
d. Klinefelter syndrome

A

muscular dystrophy

83
Q

pathologic vs physiologic atrophy

A

Pathologic atrophy is a decrease in cell size due to decreased use. Physiologic atrophy usually occurs early in development; for example, the thymus gland atrophies during childhood. Hypertrophy is an increase in cell size. Hyperplasia is an increase in the number of cells.

84
Q

Biochemical messengers produced by macrophages and lymphocytes in response to a pathogen are called:

A

interleukins

Interleukins are biochemical messengers produced by macrophages and lymphocytes in response to a pathogen.

85
Q

interferons protect against

A

viral infections

86
Q

tumer necrois factor alpha

A

secreted by macrophages and mast cells
Tumor necrosis factor-alpha is secreted by macrophages when Toll-like receptors recognize foreign materials or by mast cells. They are proinflammatory molecules that increase adherence of neutrophils, induce chemokine production, cause fever, increase synthesis of inflammation-related serum proteins by the liver, and cause muscle wasting.

87
Q

a characteristic of humoral immunity

A

antibodies

88
Q

B cells become activated by recognition of an antigen. The B-cell population has the ability to respond to virtually any antigen IN WHICH ARM OF ADAPTIVE IMMUNITY?

A

humoral

89
Q

The excessive production of cytokines and Th-cell activation and proliferation is a result of:

A

Superantigen binding is independent of antigen-recognition and signals Th-cell activation and proliferation and cytokine production, resulting in fever, low blood pressure, and possibly fatal shock.

90
Q

Which antibodies are found in body fluids?

A

IgM, IgG

91
Q

Which antibodies are found on secretions?

A

IgA

92
Q

Where are IgE antibodies found?

A

on Mast cells in tissues

93
Q

Which antibody is found on B cell surfaces?

A

IgD, acts as antigen receptor