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Crj Notecards > Study guide > Flashcards

Study guide Flashcards

1
Q

Max ramp weight

A

82,750

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2
Q

Max takeoff weight

A

82,500 lbs

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3
Q

Max landing weight

A

73,500

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4
Q

Zero fuel weight

A

70,000 lbs

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5
Q

Min flight weight

A

45,000 lbs

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6
Q

Max total air cargo compartment

A

4375 lbs

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7
Q

Max total fed cargo compartment

A

850 lbs

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8
Q

Max center cargo

A

850lbs

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9
Q

Max pressure refueling

A

Total : 19,594 lbs
Mains : 7492 lbs
Center: 4610

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10
Q

Max gravity refueling

A

Total:14,810
Mains : 7405
Center: NA

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11
Q

What is the wingspan

A

76.3 feet

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12
Q

What is the height of the tail?

A

24.1 ft

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13
Q

What is minimum surface width for a 180 degree turn?

A

126.5

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14
Q

Length?

A

118.11 feet

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15
Q

Width of horizontal stabilizer?

A

28.4 feet

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16
Q

Main to Main

A

13.6 feet

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17
Q

Vmo

A

335 kias

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18
Q

MMO

A

.85 Mach

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19
Q

MMO during RVSM

A

.82 Mach

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20
Q

Flap extension speeds

A 
1-  230 kias
8- 230 kias
20- 220 kias
30- 185 kias
45- 170 KIAS
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21
Q

Max landing gear extension

A

220 kias

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22
Q

Max landing gear retraction

A

200 KIAS

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23
Q

Max landing gear extension

A

220 KIAS

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24
Q

Max turbulence penetration speed

A

280 KIAS/ .75 Mach which ever is slower

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25
Q

Max windshield wiper speed

A

250 KIAS

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26
Q

Max operating altitude

A

41,000 ft

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27
Q

Max airport pressure altitude for takeoff and landing

A

8,000 ft

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28
Q

Max tire speed

A

195 KGS

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29
Q

Max altitude for extending flaps

A

15,000 MSL

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30
Q

What type of floatation equipment for passengers?

A

Seat cushions

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31
Q

What type of floatation equipment for flight attendants?

A

Life vests near their jumpseat

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32
Q

How many life vests in the flight deck?

A

3 one under CA and FO seat. One next to jump seat

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33
Q

Where do you find the minimum oxygen pressure for dispatch?

A

CFM chapter 4 cockpit safety inspection

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34
Q

Where are crew smoke goggles?

A

Either part of the mask or under the mask

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35
Q

Where are the 2 flight deck flashlights?

A

One behind each seat

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36
Q

What is the power for the emergency lighting system?

How long do they last

A

5 battery packs

Approximately 10 minutes

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37
Q

Where are the smoke detectors located

A

1 in fwd lav
1 in aft lav
2 in aft cargo compartment
3 in forward cargo compartment

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38
Q

What conditions would cause takeoff configuration warning?

A 
Parking brake on
Autopilot on
Spoilers extended
Stab trim out of green range
Flaps not 8 or 20 degrees 
Aileron trim not in green
Rudder trim not in green
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39
Q

Where is main battery?

A

Nose compartment

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40
Q

Where is APU battery?

A

Aft equipment bay

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41
Q

In MAG mode how long does it take the AHRS to initiate?

A

30 to 70 seconds

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42
Q

What is indicated if the green blowout disc is blown? What pressure does it happen?

A

Excessive pressure has occurred. 2800 psi

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43
Q

In DG mode how long does the AHRS system take to initialize?

A

10 to 11 minutes

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44
Q

Which source does the captain’s flight instruments receive pitot/static from?

A

1 pitot static system on left side of the nose

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45
Q

What source do the FO’s flight instruments receive pitot/static from?

A

Pitot/static system #2. Pitot/static tubes on right side of the nose.

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46
Q

From which source does the ISI receive pitot/static from?

A

The standby pitot tube under captains side window and 2 alternate static ports on left and right side.

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47
Q

Definition of TAT?

A

The temperature of the air corrected for compressibility and friction caused by high speed.

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48
Q

In flight which pitot tubes are heated?

A

All are fully heated regardless of switch position

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49
Q

Is there a LOC and GS indication on the standby altitude indicator?

A

Yes referencing NAV 1

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50
Q

When and where will the radio altimeter appear?

A

0 to 2500 AGL indicated in green below the altitude tape

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51
Q

What does the speed trend vector indicate?

A

Predicted airspeed in 10 seconds if no changes are made

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52
Q

When and where will the Mach readout appear?

A

Appears when acceleration through .45 Mach. Disappears when decelerating through Mach .40. Appears above the airspeed tape.

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53
Q

What does the green line on the speed tape indicate?

A

1.27 vs based on current configuration. Not accurate at high altitudes

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54
Q

What happens when TOGA is pushed on the ground?

A

TO lateral mode
TO vertical mode
FMS aligns the aircraft at the end of the runway indicated on legs page.
Autopilot disengages

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55
Q

What does TO lateral mode do?

A

On the ground generates a wing level command. After takeoff, generates a heading hold command with a 5 degree bank limit using the heading existing at takeoff.

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56
Q

What does TO vertical mode do?

A

Generates an optimized pitch up altitude for takeoff

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57
Q

What happens when TOGA is pushed in flight?

A

GA lateral mode
GA vertical mode.
Missed approach is depicted on MFD.
Autopilot disconnects

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58
Q

What does lateral mode do?

A

Same as TO and follows heading flown when TOGA was pushed

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59
Q

What does GA vertical mode do?

A

Generates a 10 degree pitch up altitude

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60
Q

During precision approaches, the autopilot must be disengaged by what altitude?

A

80ft. AGL

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61
Q

During single engine precision approaches, the autopilot must be disengaged by?

A

110 ft AGL

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62
Q

When will autopilot automatically disconnect?

A 
AP disc button pushed
AP ENG button on FCP
AP Disc switch bar pushed down
Stick shaker
TOGA button pushed
STAB trim manually operated
Wind shear warning, after 2 seconds 
Excessive altitude 
One or both FCCs fail
Both yaw dampers disc or fail
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63
Q

Max load on APU generator?

A

40 KVA

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64
Q

Max altitude for starting APU?

A

37,000 ft

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65
Q

Max altitude for APU operation?

A

41,000 ft

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66
Q

Max altitude for APU bleed extraction?

A

25,000 ft

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67
Q

Max speed with APU door open?

A

220 unless APU is running

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68
Q

What voltage is required before starting the APU?

A

22volts on both batteries

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69
Q

What does the main battery power during APU start?

A

APU ECU

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70
Q

What does APU battery power during APU start?

A

Cranking of the 28 vdc start motor

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71
Q

When will the AVAIL switch light illuminate?

A

99% RPM plus 2seconds

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72
Q

What is the 900 power plant number

A

CF34-8C5

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73
Q

What is the thrust rating without APR/ with APR?

A

13,560 lbs / 14,750 lbs

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74
Q

What is the max altitude for a windmill start?

A

21,000 ft MSL

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75
Q

Max engine to engine N2 split at ground idle power

A

2%

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76
Q

How much thrust from core air

A

20%

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77
Q

How much thrust from bypass air

A

80%

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78
Q

How many stages of compression?

A

10 stage axial flow compressor

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79
Q

What accessories are driven off the N2 accessory gear box?

A 
Engine driven fuel pump
IDG
Air turbine starter
Hydraulic pump
Oil pump
FADEC alternator
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80
Q

What is engine bleed air used for?

A

Air conditioning, pressurization, wing and cowl de-ice, and engine start

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81
Q

What stages of bleed air are used?

A

Normally 6th stage, 10th stage used when high demand. HPV valve opens

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82
Q

How many igniters on each engine?

A

2 A and B

83
Q

What is the air pressure requirement provided by the operating engine to initiate a cross bleed start?

A

42 PSI to a max of 80% N2

84
Q

When will APR arm on takeoff?

A

Engine speed within 8% of scheduled takeoff power, normal or flex

85
Q

When will the APR system activate?

A

Thrust levers in TOGA, normal or flex scheduled, and N1’s differ by 15% or greater, or when thrust levers in max power detent

86
Q

What occurs when the APR system activates?

A

The FADEC commands an increase in N1

87
Q

What indication will we have of APR activation

A

Green APR icon on operating engine n1 gauge

88
Q

If engine fails during go around will the APR system activate?

A

Yes

89
Q

What is used to deploy and stow the thrust reversers?

A

Hydraulics

L reverser uses #1
R reverser uses #2

90
Q

How are thrust levers deployed

A

Thrust levers must be at idle, the reverse thrust levers are raised by engaging the thrust reverse release triggers. A solenoid lock stops reverse thrust lever movement while the reversers deploy. Once deployed the lock releases and n1 may be increased by raising the reverse thrust levers

91
Q

What is occurring during thrust reverser deployment?

A

The translating cowls move aft. The bypass air is redirected through cascade vanes which redirect the air forward.

92
Q

What indications will be seen with normal thrust reverser deployment.

A

Green REV icon on N1 gauges

93
Q

What happens when a thrust reverser inadvertently deploys?

A

The FADEC commands the thrust to idle on the effected engine

94
Q

What are the indications of an inadvertent thrust reverser deployment?

A

Amber REV icon on N1 gauge and REV UNLOCKED caution light

95
Q

When will the starter cut out on engine start?

A

50% N2

96
Q

What are the engine starter cranking limits?

A

1st and 2nd attempt: 90 seconds on- 10 seconds off.

3rd thru 5th attempt 90 seconds on - 5 minutes off.

97
Q

What are the dry motoring limits?

A

1st attempt - 90 sec on 5 minutes off

2nd thru 5th attempt - 30 seconds on 5 minutes off

98
Q

What are the APU starter limits?

A

No more than 3 start attempts in one hour, 2 minute delay required between start attempts.

99
Q

Min oil temperature for start?

A

-40 C

100
Q

Max continuous oil temperature?

A

155 C

101
Q

Max permissible oil temperature?

A

163 C 15 minutes max

102
Q

Max oil consumption

A

.05 gallons/hr

103
Q

Where do we check the oil quantity?

A

EICAS menu page

104
Q

When should the oil capacity be checked?

A

3 minutes to 2 hours after shutdown

105
Q

When should the Engine oil level be replenished?

A

15 minutes to 2 hours after shutdown

106
Q

Max refill without dry motoring? Oil

A

2 quarts

107
Q

How is the oil cooled?

A

Fuel/oil heat exchanger

108
Q

How is fuel moved from the center tank to main tanks?

A

Transfer ejector pumps

109
Q

How is fuel moved from the main tanks to the collector tanks?

A

Scavenge ejectors ( gravity line used as a backup)

110
Q

How is fuel moved from the collector tank to the engine driven fuel pump.

A

Main ejectors (backed up by boost pumps)

111
Q

What is the function of the electric boost pumps?

A

To provide fuel for engine start and to back up the main ejectors.

112
Q

What is the max fuel imbalance for takeoff/all other phases.

A

300 for takeoff

800 for all other phases

113
Q

When will the fuel system automatically begin transferring fuel?

A

200 lb imbalance

114
Q

When are the boost pumps automatically energized?

A

Low pressure from the main ejectors, if the pumps are armed.

115
Q

Where is bulk fuel temperature taken?

A

Right main tank

116
Q

What is the minimum bulk fuel temperature for takeoff?

A

-30 C

117
Q

What is minimum bulk fuel temperature during flight?

A

Above -40 C

118
Q

How is fuel heated?

A

Fuel/oil heat exchanger

119
Q

Minimum engine fuel temperature for takeoff

A

5 C

120
Q

What is the takeoff limitation if the center tank has more than 500 lbs of fuel?

A

Each tank must have more than 4400 lbs

121
Q

Which bus powers the refuel/defilement panel and SOV’s

A

APU battery direct bus

122
Q

Normal pressure difference is?

A

8.5 psi

123
Q

Max pressure differential?

A

8.7 psi

124
Q

Max pressure differential during taxi, takeoff, and landing?

A

.1 psi

125
Q

Max negative pressure differential?

A

-.5 psi

126
Q

During single pack operation, what is max altitude?

A

Fl 250

127
Q

What does the DISPLAY COOL or ARINC COOL caution messages mean?

A

Low airflow behind the screens or within the avionics rack

128
Q

How many pressurization controllers?

A

2, PC1 and PC2

129
Q

When do the pressurization controllers swap?

A

WOW plus 3 minutes, or if one fails the other takes over, or push manual twice

130
Q

In auto mode, what is the cabin rate of climb and descent?

A

500 fpm climb and 300 fpm decent

131
Q

When in manual mode, what range is controlled by the MAN RATE knob?

A

50 fpm to 3000 fpm, +- 1,000 fpm

132
Q

CABIN ALT caution message message means?

A

Cabin altitude between 8,500 and 10,000 ft.

133
Q

CABIN ALT warning message means?

A

Cabin altitude greater than 10,000 ft.

134
Q

When will the CPAM automatically deploy the pax oxygen masks?

A

Cabin altitude greater than 14,000 ft

135
Q

When will CPAM turn on the Fasten seatbelt sign?

A

Cabin altitude greater than 10,000 ft with switches in the Auto position

136
Q

What is the source of heating for wing and cowl anti ice?

A

6th or 10th stage bleed air

137
Q

How many fire detection loops are installed on each engine?

A

2, dual loops in parallel

138
Q

How many firex bottles available for an engine fire?

A

2

139
Q

What type of Halon is in the engine firex bottles?

A

Halon 1301 pressurized with dry nitrogen

140
Q

What occurs when the ENG FIRE PUSH switch light is pushed?

A

Fuel SOV’s close, Hydraulic SOV’s close, Bleed air SOV’s close, generator is taken offline and appropriate squibs are armed

141
Q

Can we blow both bottles into one engine if necessary?

A

Yes

142
Q

How many fire loops in APU?

A

2, dual loops mounted in parallel

143
Q

How many firex bottles are available for an APU fire?

A

1

144
Q

What occurs during an unattended APU fire on ground?

A

APU ECU shuts down APU and 5 seconds later the APU bottle will discharge automatically.

145
Q

What occurs during an APU fire in flight

A

APU ECU shutdowns the APU but pilots have to discharge the bottle

146
Q

How many firex bottles for cargo smoke?

A

2, one is a slow release lasting about 60 minutes and other is a quick release

147
Q

Location of Main battery?

A

Nose compartment

148
Q

Location of APU battery?

A

Aft equipment bay

149
Q

Max engine generator load?

A

40 KVA

150
Q

Max APU generator load?

A

40 KVA

151
Q

Max TRU load?

A

120 amps

152
Q

Max permissible time for ground operations with battery power only? Why?

A

5 minutes because cooling fans for ED1 and ED2 are AC powered

153
Q

How many TRU’s?

A

4

154
Q

Where are TRU’s located?

A

Nose compartment

155
Q

Main battery is rated to?

A

17 ampere hour/24 volts

156
Q

APU battery is rated to?

A

43 ampere hour/24 volts

157
Q

How many generators?

A

4, 2 engine, APU, and ADG

158
Q

Function of TRU’s

A

Convert 115 volts AC to 28 V DC

159
Q

How are TRU’s cooled?

A

Individual fans

160
Q

Which buses powered when battery master is on?

A

Main battery direct bus, APU battery direct bus, DC battery bus

161
Q

What controls the DC tie contractors?

A

DCPC DC power center

162
Q

With the ADG deployed, what are the basis items that are powered?

A

AC essential bus, hydraulic pump 3b, flaps/slats, STAB trim channel 2

163
Q

What is the ADG max load?

A

15 KVA

164
Q

Normal hydraulic pressure

A

3000 psi

165
Q

Hydraulic low pressure occurs at what pressure?

A

Less than 1800 psi

166
Q

High hydraulic pressure occurs at?

A

3200 psi

167
Q

What is normal hydraulic quantity?

A

45 to 85%

168
Q

High hydraulic temperature occurs at what temp?

A

Greater than or equal to 96 C

169
Q

The HYD HI TEMP caution indicates that hydraulic fluid is hot in what part of the system?

A

The reservoir

170
Q

How many hydraulic pumps?

A

6 (3 full time, 3 part time)

171
Q

When will hydraulic pressure relief occur?

A

Greater than or equal to 3750 psi

172
Q

How is the main landing gear held in the up and down position?

A

Mechanical up and down locks

173
Q

How is the nose gear help in the up and down position?

A

Over center mechanism

174
Q

Which component monitors the position of the up locks, down locks, gear door position and wow sensors?

A

Proximity sensing electronic unit

175
Q

Which component ensures that the gear handle cannot be moved to the up position on the ground?

A

Down lock solenoid

176
Q

Which hydraulic system operates the inboard brakes?

A

3

177
Q

Which hydraulic system operates the outboard brakes?

A

2

178
Q

When does the Anti skid operate?

A

Wheel spin up equal or greater than 35 kits or WOW plus 5 seconds

179
Q

Nose wheel steering limits

A

Steering on 80 degrees, rudder pedals 8 degrees

180
Q

At what speed does anti skid stop working?

A

Wheel speed equal or less than 10 knots

181
Q

When is cowl anti ice required to be on during ground operations?

A

OAT equal or less than 10 degrees C with visible moisture and on contaminated ramps, taxiways, or runways.

182
Q

What is visible moisture?

A

Fog with visibility of 1 mile or less, rain, snow, sleet, or ice crystals

183
Q

When is cowl anti ice required to be on during flight?

A

TAT is equal to or less than 10 degreesC in visible moisture ( except when SAT is equal to or less than -40C.). And when ICE is annunciated.

184
Q

When is wing anti ice required to be on during ground ops?

A

OAT is equal to or less than 5 degrees C in visible moisture and on contaminated runways.

If type 2, 3, 4 deicing fluid applied, select wings on just prior to thrust increase for takeoff.

185
Q

When is wing anti ice required to be on during flight?

A

TAT equal to or less than 10 degrees C in visible moisture, with airspeed less than 230 kias ( except when SAT equal to or less than 40 degrees C, or when ICE is illuminated.

186
Q

What is a good ice detector test?

A

ICE caution message, the ICE switch light illuminated, ADS HEAT TEST OK advisory message.

187
Q

How are the ailerons, elevators, and rudder activated?

A

Yoke and rudder pedals operate a system of cables and pulleys that connect to pull and push rods at the flight control which operate a hydraulic power control unit which hydraulically actuates the control surface

188
Q

What is the purpose of the multi function spoilers

A

To assist with roll control and serve as a spoiler in flight and on ground

189
Q

How are MFS’s controlled when used for roll assistance?

A

The FO’s yoke position sends an electrical signal to the left MFS panels which are hydraulically operated by PCUs.

190
Q

What is the flight deck indication of a jammed aileron cable?

A

Both yokes will be jammed

191
Q

What happens after the ROLL DISC handle is pulled?

A

The aileron cable and pulley systems are disconnected through torque tubes. 20 seconds later, if the operable side has not been selected, the amber ROLL SEL switchlight illuminates.

192
Q

What is the priority for STAB TRIM control?

A

Captain, first Officer, autopilot, MACH trim

193
Q

What systems can operate the STAB TRIM

A

Ca’s trim switches, FO’s trim switches, autopilot and Mach trim.

194
Q

How is stab trim operated?

A

The trim switches on the yoke operates two motors and a jack screw changing the horizontal stabilizer angle of incidence.

195
Q

Is there any asymmetrical protection within the flaps?

A

Yes, if the flap segments disagree by more than 5 degrees the brakes are applied and the flaps will remain at the current position.

196
Q

How many flap segments?

A

4 total, 2 each side

197
Q

How are flaps operated?

A

Electrically

198
Q

What controls yaw damper?

A

Flight control computer

199
Q

How is yaw damper disengaged?

A

Disc button on center pedestal

200
Q

How are flight controls gust locked?

A

Hydraulic fluid is trapped during shutdown

201
Q

When ROLL DISC handle is pulled how is the operable side selected?

A

By pushing the ROL sel/plt rol switch light on the un jammed side.

202
Q

What does selecting the ROL SEL/PLT ROL switchlight accomplish?

A

Allows the pilot with the operable aileron to control the on side mfs panels

203
Q

What is indication of aileron PCU runaway?

A

The aircraft begins an uncommanded roll and the PLT SEL switchlight on the side without the runaway illuminates because of the bungee breakout

Crj Notecards (2 decks)

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