Study guide Flashcards
Max ramp weight
82,750
Max takeoff weight
82,500 lbs
Max landing weight
73,500
Zero fuel weight
70,000 lbs
Min flight weight
45,000 lbs
Max total air cargo compartment
4375 lbs
Max total fed cargo compartment
850 lbs
Max center cargo
850lbs
Max pressure refueling
Total : 19,594 lbs
Mains : 7492 lbs
Center: 4610
Max gravity refueling
Total:14,810
Mains : 7405
Center: NA
What is the wingspan
76.3 feet
What is the height of the tail?
24.1 ft
What is minimum surface width for a 180 degree turn?
126.5
Length?
118.11 feet
Width of horizontal stabilizer?
28.4 feet
Main to Main
13.6 feet
Vmo
335 kias
MMO
.85 Mach
MMO during RVSM
.82 Mach
Flap extension speeds
1- 230 kias 8- 230 kias 20- 220 kias 30- 185 kias 45- 170 KIAS
Max landing gear extension
220 kias
Max landing gear retraction
200 KIAS
Max landing gear extension
220 KIAS
Max turbulence penetration speed
280 KIAS/ .75 Mach which ever is slower
Max windshield wiper speed
250 KIAS
Max operating altitude
41,000 ft
Max airport pressure altitude for takeoff and landing
8,000 ft
Max tire speed
195 KGS
Max altitude for extending flaps
15,000 MSL
What type of floatation equipment for passengers?
Seat cushions
What type of floatation equipment for flight attendants?
Life vests near their jumpseat
How many life vests in the flight deck?
3 one under CA and FO seat. One next to jump seat
Where do you find the minimum oxygen pressure for dispatch?
CFM chapter 4 cockpit safety inspection
Where are crew smoke goggles?
Either part of the mask or under the mask
Where are the 2 flight deck flashlights?
One behind each seat
What is the power for the emergency lighting system?
How long do they last
5 battery packs
Approximately 10 minutes
Where are the smoke detectors located
1 in fwd lav
1 in aft lav
2 in aft cargo compartment
3 in forward cargo compartment
What conditions would cause takeoff configuration warning?
Parking brake on Autopilot on Spoilers extended Stab trim out of green range Flaps not 8 or 20 degrees Aileron trim not in green Rudder trim not in green
Where is main battery?
Nose compartment
Where is APU battery?
Aft equipment bay
In MAG mode how long does it take the AHRS to initiate?
30 to 70 seconds
What is indicated if the green blowout disc is blown? What pressure does it happen?
Excessive pressure has occurred. 2800 psi
In DG mode how long does the AHRS system take to initialize?
10 to 11 minutes
Which source does the captain’s flight instruments receive pitot/static from?
1 pitot static system on left side of the nose
What source do the FO’s flight instruments receive pitot/static from?
Pitot/static system #2. Pitot/static tubes on right side of the nose.
From which source does the ISI receive pitot/static from?
The standby pitot tube under captains side window and 2 alternate static ports on left and right side.
Definition of TAT?
The temperature of the air corrected for compressibility and friction caused by high speed.
In flight which pitot tubes are heated?
All are fully heated regardless of switch position
Is there a LOC and GS indication on the standby altitude indicator?
Yes referencing NAV 1
When and where will the radio altimeter appear?
0 to 2500 AGL indicated in green below the altitude tape
What does the speed trend vector indicate?
Predicted airspeed in 10 seconds if no changes are made
When and where will the Mach readout appear?
Appears when acceleration through .45 Mach. Disappears when decelerating through Mach .40. Appears above the airspeed tape.
What does the green line on the speed tape indicate?
1.27 vs based on current configuration. Not accurate at high altitudes
What happens when TOGA is pushed on the ground?
TO lateral mode
TO vertical mode
FMS aligns the aircraft at the end of the runway indicated on legs page.
Autopilot disengages
What does TO lateral mode do?
On the ground generates a wing level command. After takeoff, generates a heading hold command with a 5 degree bank limit using the heading existing at takeoff.
What does TO vertical mode do?
Generates an optimized pitch up altitude for takeoff
What happens when TOGA is pushed in flight?
GA lateral mode
GA vertical mode.
Missed approach is depicted on MFD.
Autopilot disconnects
What does lateral mode do?
Same as TO and follows heading flown when TOGA was pushed
What does GA vertical mode do?
Generates a 10 degree pitch up altitude
During precision approaches, the autopilot must be disengaged by what altitude?
80ft. AGL
During single engine precision approaches, the autopilot must be disengaged by?
110 ft AGL
When will autopilot automatically disconnect?
AP disc button pushed AP ENG button on FCP AP Disc switch bar pushed down Stick shaker TOGA button pushed STAB trim manually operated Wind shear warning, after 2 seconds Excessive altitude One or both FCCs fail Both yaw dampers disc or fail
Max load on APU generator?
40 KVA
Max altitude for starting APU?
37,000 ft
Max altitude for APU operation?
41,000 ft
Max altitude for APU bleed extraction?
25,000 ft
Max speed with APU door open?
220 unless APU is running
What voltage is required before starting the APU?
22volts on both batteries
What does the main battery power during APU start?
APU ECU
What does APU battery power during APU start?
Cranking of the 28 vdc start motor
When will the AVAIL switch light illuminate?
99% RPM plus 2seconds
What is the 900 power plant number
CF34-8C5
What is the thrust rating without APR/ with APR?
13,560 lbs / 14,750 lbs
What is the max altitude for a windmill start?
21,000 ft MSL
Max engine to engine N2 split at ground idle power
2%
How much thrust from core air
20%
How much thrust from bypass air
80%
How many stages of compression?
10 stage axial flow compressor
What accessories are driven off the N2 accessory gear box?
Engine driven fuel pump IDG Air turbine starter Hydraulic pump Oil pump FADEC alternator
What is engine bleed air used for?
Air conditioning, pressurization, wing and cowl de-ice, and engine start
What stages of bleed air are used?
Normally 6th stage, 10th stage used when high demand. HPV valve opens
How many igniters on each engine?
2 A and B
What is the air pressure requirement provided by the operating engine to initiate a cross bleed start?
42 PSI to a max of 80% N2
When will APR arm on takeoff?
Engine speed within 8% of scheduled takeoff power, normal or flex
When will the APR system activate?
Thrust levers in TOGA, normal or flex scheduled, and N1’s differ by 15% or greater, or when thrust levers in max power detent
What occurs when the APR system activates?
The FADEC commands an increase in N1
What indication will we have of APR activation
Green APR icon on operating engine n1 gauge
If engine fails during go around will the APR system activate?
Yes
What is used to deploy and stow the thrust reversers?
Hydraulics
L reverser uses #1
R reverser uses #2
How are thrust levers deployed
Thrust levers must be at idle, the reverse thrust levers are raised by engaging the thrust reverse release triggers. A solenoid lock stops reverse thrust lever movement while the reversers deploy. Once deployed the lock releases and n1 may be increased by raising the reverse thrust levers
What is occurring during thrust reverser deployment?
The translating cowls move aft. The bypass air is redirected through cascade vanes which redirect the air forward.
What indications will be seen with normal thrust reverser deployment.
Green REV icon on N1 gauges
What happens when a thrust reverser inadvertently deploys?
The FADEC commands the thrust to idle on the effected engine
What are the indications of an inadvertent thrust reverser deployment?
Amber REV icon on N1 gauge and REV UNLOCKED caution light
When will the starter cut out on engine start?
50% N2
What are the engine starter cranking limits?
1st and 2nd attempt: 90 seconds on- 10 seconds off.
3rd thru 5th attempt 90 seconds on - 5 minutes off.
What are the dry motoring limits?
1st attempt - 90 sec on 5 minutes off
2nd thru 5th attempt - 30 seconds on 5 minutes off
What are the APU starter limits?
No more than 3 start attempts in one hour, 2 minute delay required between start attempts.
Min oil temperature for start?
-40 C
Max continuous oil temperature?
155 C
Max permissible oil temperature?
163 C 15 minutes max
Max oil consumption
.05 gallons/hr
Where do we check the oil quantity?
EICAS menu page
When should the oil capacity be checked?
3 minutes to 2 hours after shutdown
When should the Engine oil level be replenished?
15 minutes to 2 hours after shutdown
Max refill without dry motoring? Oil
2 quarts
How is the oil cooled?
Fuel/oil heat exchanger
How is fuel moved from the center tank to main tanks?
Transfer ejector pumps
How is fuel moved from the main tanks to the collector tanks?
Scavenge ejectors ( gravity line used as a backup)
How is fuel moved from the collector tank to the engine driven fuel pump.
Main ejectors (backed up by boost pumps)
What is the function of the electric boost pumps?
To provide fuel for engine start and to back up the main ejectors.
What is the max fuel imbalance for takeoff/all other phases.
300 for takeoff
800 for all other phases
When will the fuel system automatically begin transferring fuel?
200 lb imbalance
When are the boost pumps automatically energized?
Low pressure from the main ejectors, if the pumps are armed.
Where is bulk fuel temperature taken?
Right main tank
What is the minimum bulk fuel temperature for takeoff?
-30 C
What is minimum bulk fuel temperature during flight?
Above -40 C
How is fuel heated?
Fuel/oil heat exchanger
Minimum engine fuel temperature for takeoff
5 C
What is the takeoff limitation if the center tank has more than 500 lbs of fuel?
Each tank must have more than 4400 lbs
Which bus powers the refuel/defilement panel and SOV’s
APU battery direct bus
Normal pressure difference is?
8.5 psi
Max pressure differential?
8.7 psi
Max pressure differential during taxi, takeoff, and landing?
.1 psi
Max negative pressure differential?
-.5 psi
During single pack operation, what is max altitude?
Fl 250
What does the DISPLAY COOL or ARINC COOL caution messages mean?
Low airflow behind the screens or within the avionics rack
How many pressurization controllers?
2, PC1 and PC2
When do the pressurization controllers swap?
WOW plus 3 minutes, or if one fails the other takes over, or push manual twice
In auto mode, what is the cabin rate of climb and descent?
500 fpm climb and 300 fpm decent
When in manual mode, what range is controlled by the MAN RATE knob?
50 fpm to 3000 fpm, +- 1,000 fpm
CABIN ALT caution message message means?
Cabin altitude between 8,500 and 10,000 ft.
CABIN ALT warning message means?
Cabin altitude greater than 10,000 ft.
When will the CPAM automatically deploy the pax oxygen masks?
Cabin altitude greater than 14,000 ft
When will CPAM turn on the Fasten seatbelt sign?
Cabin altitude greater than 10,000 ft with switches in the Auto position
What is the source of heating for wing and cowl anti ice?
6th or 10th stage bleed air
How many fire detection loops are installed on each engine?
2, dual loops in parallel
How many firex bottles available for an engine fire?
2
What type of Halon is in the engine firex bottles?
Halon 1301 pressurized with dry nitrogen
What occurs when the ENG FIRE PUSH switch light is pushed?
Fuel SOV’s close, Hydraulic SOV’s close, Bleed air SOV’s close, generator is taken offline and appropriate squibs are armed
Can we blow both bottles into one engine if necessary?
Yes
How many fire loops in APU?
2, dual loops mounted in parallel
How many firex bottles are available for an APU fire?
1
What occurs during an unattended APU fire on ground?
APU ECU shuts down APU and 5 seconds later the APU bottle will discharge automatically.
What occurs during an APU fire in flight
APU ECU shutdowns the APU but pilots have to discharge the bottle
How many firex bottles for cargo smoke?
2, one is a slow release lasting about 60 minutes and other is a quick release
Location of Main battery?
Nose compartment
Location of APU battery?
Aft equipment bay
Max engine generator load?
40 KVA
Max APU generator load?
40 KVA
Max TRU load?
120 amps
Max permissible time for ground operations with battery power only? Why?
5 minutes because cooling fans for ED1 and ED2 are AC powered
How many TRU’s?
4
Where are TRU’s located?
Nose compartment
Main battery is rated to?
17 ampere hour/24 volts
APU battery is rated to?
43 ampere hour/24 volts
How many generators?
4, 2 engine, APU, and ADG
Function of TRU’s
Convert 115 volts AC to 28 V DC
How are TRU’s cooled?
Individual fans
Which buses powered when battery master is on?
Main battery direct bus, APU battery direct bus, DC battery bus
What controls the DC tie contractors?
DCPC DC power center
With the ADG deployed, what are the basis items that are powered?
AC essential bus, hydraulic pump 3b, flaps/slats, STAB trim channel 2
What is the ADG max load?
15 KVA
Normal hydraulic pressure
3000 psi
Hydraulic low pressure occurs at what pressure?
Less than 1800 psi
High hydraulic pressure occurs at?
3200 psi
What is normal hydraulic quantity?
45 to 85%
High hydraulic temperature occurs at what temp?
Greater than or equal to 96 C
The HYD HI TEMP caution indicates that hydraulic fluid is hot in what part of the system?
The reservoir
How many hydraulic pumps?
6 (3 full time, 3 part time)
When will hydraulic pressure relief occur?
Greater than or equal to 3750 psi
How is the main landing gear held in the up and down position?
Mechanical up and down locks
How is the nose gear help in the up and down position?
Over center mechanism
Which component monitors the position of the up locks, down locks, gear door position and wow sensors?
Proximity sensing electronic unit
Which component ensures that the gear handle cannot be moved to the up position on the ground?
Down lock solenoid
Which hydraulic system operates the inboard brakes?
3
Which hydraulic system operates the outboard brakes?
2
When does the Anti skid operate?
Wheel spin up equal or greater than 35 kits or WOW plus 5 seconds
Nose wheel steering limits
Steering on 80 degrees, rudder pedals 8 degrees
At what speed does anti skid stop working?
Wheel speed equal or less than 10 knots
When is cowl anti ice required to be on during ground operations?
OAT equal or less than 10 degrees C with visible moisture and on contaminated ramps, taxiways, or runways.
What is visible moisture?
Fog with visibility of 1 mile or less, rain, snow, sleet, or ice crystals
When is cowl anti ice required to be on during flight?
TAT is equal to or less than 10 degreesC in visible moisture ( except when SAT is equal to or less than -40C.). And when ICE is annunciated.
When is wing anti ice required to be on during ground ops?
OAT is equal to or less than 5 degrees C in visible moisture and on contaminated runways.
If type 2, 3, 4 deicing fluid applied, select wings on just prior to thrust increase for takeoff.
When is wing anti ice required to be on during flight?
TAT equal to or less than 10 degrees C in visible moisture, with airspeed less than 230 kias ( except when SAT equal to or less than 40 degrees C, or when ICE is illuminated.
What is a good ice detector test?
ICE caution message, the ICE switch light illuminated, ADS HEAT TEST OK advisory message.
How are the ailerons, elevators, and rudder activated?
Yoke and rudder pedals operate a system of cables and pulleys that connect to pull and push rods at the flight control which operate a hydraulic power control unit which hydraulically actuates the control surface
What is the purpose of the multi function spoilers
To assist with roll control and serve as a spoiler in flight and on ground
How are MFS’s controlled when used for roll assistance?
The FO’s yoke position sends an electrical signal to the left MFS panels which are hydraulically operated by PCUs.
What is the flight deck indication of a jammed aileron cable?
Both yokes will be jammed
What happens after the ROLL DISC handle is pulled?
The aileron cable and pulley systems are disconnected through torque tubes. 20 seconds later, if the operable side has not been selected, the amber ROLL SEL switchlight illuminates.
What is the priority for STAB TRIM control?
Captain, first Officer, autopilot, MACH trim
What systems can operate the STAB TRIM
Ca’s trim switches, FO’s trim switches, autopilot and Mach trim.
How is stab trim operated?
The trim switches on the yoke operates two motors and a jack screw changing the horizontal stabilizer angle of incidence.
Is there any asymmetrical protection within the flaps?
Yes, if the flap segments disagree by more than 5 degrees the brakes are applied and the flaps will remain at the current position.
How many flap segments?
4 total, 2 each side
How are flaps operated?
Electrically
What controls yaw damper?
Flight control computer
How is yaw damper disengaged?
Disc button on center pedestal
How are flight controls gust locked?
Hydraulic fluid is trapped during shutdown
When ROLL DISC handle is pulled how is the operable side selected?
By pushing the ROL sel/plt rol switch light on the un jammed side.
What does selecting the ROL SEL/PLT ROL switchlight accomplish?
Allows the pilot with the operable aileron to control the on side mfs panels
What is indication of aileron PCU runaway?
The aircraft begins an uncommanded roll and the PLT SEL switchlight on the side without the runaway illuminates because of the bungee breakout
