Student formulary Flashcards

1
Q

Ranitidine is H2 receptor blocker (in gastric parietal cells). Name another.

A

cimetidine

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2
Q

What is mechanism of action of ranitidine?

A

h2 receptor blocker in gastric parietal cells. reduce acid secretion.

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3
Q

important caution for use of H2 receptor blockers and PPIs?

A

may mask gastric cancer symptoms - make sure to rule out before prescribing in pts with ALARMS

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4
Q

Inhibits final transport of hydrogen ions into gastric lumen; thereby inhibiting gatsric acid
secretion. who’s mechanism of action is this?

A

PPI

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5
Q

what is the daily dose range of omeprazole?

A

20- 40mg

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6
Q

name a common SE of omeprazole

A

GI disturbance e.g. nausea/vom/abdo pain

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7
Q

what does omeprazole do to warfarin?

A

increases its anticoagulant effect

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8
Q

what is mechanism of action of loperamide?

A

opioid mu receptor agonists (in myenteric plexus of large bowel) – inhibits peristalsis - slows intestinal motility

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9
Q

give an uncommon but important SE of loperamide

A

paralytic ileus

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10
Q

name other aminosalicylates apart from mesalazine

A

osalazine

sulfasalazine

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11
Q

sulfasalazine prescribed alongisde azathioprine increases risk of …

A

leukopenia

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12
Q

what monitoring does sulfasalazine need?

A

3 monthly FBC, LFTs, ESR, CRP,
U&E (but less freq)
**pts should be asked about oral ulcer/sore throat & unexplained bruising/rash at every consultation
- risk of leukopenia!

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13
Q

which UC drug causes yellowish discolouration of skin/body fluids?

A

sulfasalazine!

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14
Q

give example of bulk forming laxative?

A

Ispaghula Husk (Fybogel) - stimulates peristalsis by stretching bowel fibrous

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15
Q

give two examples of osmotic laxatives

A

lactulose

macrogol

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16
Q

give two examples of a stimulant laxatives

A

senna

sodium picosulphate

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17
Q

what should you tell pts to do when taking laxatives?

A

drink plenty of fluids to avoid dehydration

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18
Q

what effects does digoxin have on heart?

A
positive inotropic (increases contractility)
negative chonotropic (slows rate)
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19
Q

what are the indications for digoxin?

A

persistent AF

heart failure

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20
Q

tell me about digoxin’s therapeutic index

A

its narrow.

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21
Q

what is an interesting and important interaction of digoxin’s?

A

amiodarone causes an increased plasma digoxin conc, so you need to half the dose!!

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22
Q

name two other drugs similar to bendroflumethiazide

A

hydrochlorothiazide

indapamide (thazide-like diuretic)

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23
Q

what is thiazide mechanism of action?

A

decreases Na and Cl reabsorption in distal convoluted tubule

(inhibits the channels)

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24
Q

thiazides cause HYPO what?

A

thiazide –> hypo:
K
Na
Mg

and postural HYPOtension!

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25
Q

thiazides cause HYPER what?

A

thiazide –> hyper:
Ca
glycaemia
uricaemia

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26
Q

as well as electrolyte/metabolic disturbances, name another SE of thiazides

A

postural hypotension

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27
Q

name two loops diuretics

A

furosemide, bumetanide

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28
Q

how does furosemide work

A

inhibits reabsorption of sodium in the loop of Henle

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29
Q

name three indications for furosemide

A

pulm oedema due to LV failure
chronic HF
resistant hypertension

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30
Q

what time of day do you give furosemide?

A

morning

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31
Q

Name 4 HYPOs of furosemide

A

hypoNa
hypoK
hypoCa
postural hypotension

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32
Q

name 2 HYPERs of furosemide

A

hyperglycaemia

hyperuricaemia

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33
Q

how does furosemide interact w lithium?

A

lithium renally excreted so increases risk of lithium toxicity

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34
Q

as well as spironolactone, name another alodosterone dependent postassium sparing diuretic.

A

eplerenone

amiloride is also K sparing

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35
Q

what is the effect/mechanism of spironolactione?

A

stops Na/K exchange in distal tubule and collecting ducts

  • K retention;
  • Na and water loss
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36
Q

name an electrolyte disturbance from spironolactone

A

hyperkalaemia

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37
Q

which diuretic can be used to treat primary hyperaldosteronism?

A

spironolactone

avoid in Addisons

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38
Q

spironolactone/furosemide and NSAIDs interact to cause…

A

increased risk of nephrotoxicity

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39
Q

what does amiodarone do to an ECG

A

prolongs QT interval

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40
Q

what is the starting then maintenance dose of amiodarone?

A

200mg TDS for 1 week
BD for next week
OD for maintenance

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41
Q

name 6 common SEs of amiodarone

A
bradycardia
slate grey skin 
jaundice
pulm fibrosis
hepatotoxicity - dont drink wine
tremor
sleep disorders
phototoxicity - avoid sunlight
hyper/hypoTHYROIDism
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42
Q

name two SERIOUS SEs of amiodarone

A

peripheral neuropathy

optic neuritis!

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43
Q

why do you need CXR before starting amiodarone

A

pulm fibrosis SE

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44
Q

which blood tests should be done before starting amiodarone and repeated every 6 months?

A

LFT (hepatotoxicity)

TFT (hyper/hypothyroidism)

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45
Q

name three cardioselective beta blockers (b1 only)

A

bisoprolol
atenolol
metoprolol

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46
Q

name two non cardioselective beta blockers (b1 and b2)

A

propanolol

carvedilol

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47
Q

describe bisprolol’s effects on the heart

A
negative chonotropy (reduce heart rate)
negative inotropy (reduce contractility)
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48
Q

name 5 indications for beta blockers

A
angina
MI
HF
resistant hypertension
hyperthyroid/migraine/anxiety
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49
Q

what dose of bisoprolol should you start at low and go slow in HF?

A

1.25mg OD, increase if tolerated

standard dose 5-10mg OD

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50
Q

name 2 common SEs of beta blockers

A

cold hands

impotence

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51
Q

name a SE of beta blockers important in asthma and COPD

A

bronchoconstriction

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52
Q

why do beta blockers exacerbate Raynaud’s and intermittent claudication?

A

peripheral vasoconstriction

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53
Q

what do you worry about with beta blockers and diabetic pts?

A

may mask hypo warning signs

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54
Q

name two a1 specific alpha blockers

A

doxazosin
tamsulosin

(prazosin, indoramin)

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55
Q

what are the physiological effects of a1 blockers

A

vascular smooth muscle relaxation, vasodilation and reduce arterial BP

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56
Q

name three indications for a1 blockers

A

hypertension
BPH
raynaud’s (prazosin!)

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57
Q

name an important SE of alpha1 blockers

A

postural hypotension

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58
Q

ramipril. name 4 other ACE-is.

A

captoppril
enalapril
lisinopril
perindopril

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59
Q

how do ACE-is work?

A

inhibit synthesis of angiotensin 2 leading to smooth muscle relaxation and vasodilation

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60
Q

for whom is ACE-i first line for hypertension?

A

<55yrs

its ACE to be young and white

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61
Q

name 3 common SEs of ACEis

A

dry cough
hyperkalaemia
increase in serum creatinine

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62
Q

name 2 important SEs of ACEIS

A

acute renal failure

angiooedema

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63
Q

ACEis interact w diuretics to …

A

increase risk of hypotension

if K sparing, increase risk of hyperkalaemia

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64
Q

why should you not eat too many bananas when you’re on ramipril

A

hyperkalaemia

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65
Q

which blood test do pts on ACE is need ?

A

U&E

baseline, then 2wks after starting.

look out for hyperkaelamia and deterioration in renal function

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66
Q

inhibition of angiotensin II (potent vasoconstrictor) leading to smooth muscle relaxation and vasodilation. what drugs do this?

A

angiotensin II receptor blockers (ARBs)

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67
Q

name two important side effects of ARBs

A

acute renal failure

angiooedema

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68
Q

name three cautions for ARBs

A

aortic stenosis
mitral stenosis
renal artery stenosis

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69
Q

whats the blood test to check on ARBs?

A

U&E

renal function

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70
Q

name 2 drugs that interact with ARBs

A

ACEis

potassium sparing diuretics (risk of hyperK)

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71
Q

what is the indication that you use ARBs for and not ACEis

A

type 2 diabetic nephropathy

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72
Q

in which situations are ARBs preferred to ACEis?

A

unable to tolerate ACEi

t2 diabetic nephropathy

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73
Q

what is the difference between GTN and isosorbide mononitrate?

A

GTN is short acting: 1-2mins
ISMN and isosorbid dinitrate are LONG acting - 8hrs

GTN used for acute relief ISMN used for prophylaxis

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74
Q

name 3 side effects of nitrates

A

headache
tachycardia
flushing

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75
Q

what drugs interact with nitrates and you should avoid concomitant use?

A

sildenafil and tadalafil

- significantly increased hypotensive effect

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76
Q

how do calcium channel blockers work?

A

inhibit influx of ca ions into smooth muscle cells - vasodilation of arteries

(diltiazem and verapamil favour the ca channels in cardiac muscle cells)

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77
Q

CCBs are first line treatment for which groups of ppl with hypertension?

A

> 55 or afro-carribean

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78
Q

name 2 side effects of CCBs

A

ankle swelling
palpitations
abdo pain

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79
Q

CCB + statin does what

A

increases risk of myopathy

statin dose should be reduced

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80
Q

what is the effect of verapamil and diltiazem?

A

rate-limiting CCBs

negative intoropes - decrease cardiac contractility

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81
Q

name 3 dihydropyridine CCBs

A

amlodipine
nifedipine
felodipine

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82
Q

name a side effect of verapamil and diltiazem than normal CCBs dont cause

A

AV block

sino-atrial block

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83
Q

do you prescribe beta blockers alongside CCBs?

A

noo!!!

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84
Q

what happens if you prescribe beta blockers alongside CCBs?

A

asystole
severe hypotension
heart failure

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85
Q

nicorandil is a potassium channel activator with nitrate-like effects. what is it used for?

A

long term treatment of chronic stable angina in pts with …

previous MI, previous CABG, LVH etc

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86
Q

what type of drug is enoxaparin?

A

LMWH

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87
Q

name 3 types of LMWH

A

enoxaparin, dalteparin, tinzaparin

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88
Q

how does LMWH work?

A

activate antithrombin which inhibits factor Xa so prothrombin cant be converted to thrombin

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89
Q

what does HIT stand for

A

heparin induced thrombocytopenia

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90
Q

when does heparin induced thrombocytopenia usually develop

A

5-10ds later - immune mediated

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91
Q

give 2 signs of heparin induced thrombocytopenia

A

30% reduction in plt count, skin allergy, or can be complicated by thrombosis

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92
Q

tell pts this: dont take any OTC meds (especially ASPIRIN) without checking with the pharmacist as it could interact with…

A

warfarin

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93
Q

how does rivaroxaban, apixaban and edoxaban work

A

factor Xa inhibitor

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94
Q

what is dabigatran

A

a direct thrombin (factor II) inhibitor

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95
Q

lack of thrombin does what?

A

prevents conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin therefore inhibits clotting

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96
Q

is there a reversal agent licensed for rivaroxaban

A

no

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97
Q

should you reduce dose of rivaroxaban in renal impairment?

A

yes

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98
Q

give 2 important side effects of aspirin

A

GI ulceration

bronchospasm

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99
Q

can you take your gaviscon and aspirin at same time?

A

no

take it with food

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100
Q

if a pt is at high risk of GI bleed, what do you co-prescribe with their aspirin?

A

PPI

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101
Q

the overall effect of both aspiirin, clopi and dipyridamole is

A

reduced plt aggregation

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102
Q

discontinue clopidogrel ___ days before elective surgery

A

discontinue clopi 7 days before elective surgery

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103
Q

what dose simvastatin commonly do to LFTs?

A

elevated transaminases

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104
Q

pts w hypothyroid and low BMI are more likely to get myositis with statins, true or false?

105
Q

elevated transaminases can be normal w statins. at what point would you discontinue them?

A

if they are elevated 3x upper limit of normal

also stop if creat kinase >5 x uln

106
Q

which blood tests should be monitored every 3 months for pts on statins?

107
Q

name another commonly used SABA

A

terbutaline

108
Q

name 4 common SEs of Salbuatmol

A

fine tremor
headache
muscle cramps
palpitations

109
Q

what electrolyte imbalance can salbutamol cause in high doses

A

hypokalaemia

110
Q

what metabolic imbalance can salbutamol cause in high doses

A

lactic acidosis

111
Q

what can salbutamol do to the heart

A

myocardial ischaemia

112
Q

how many times can u take salbutamol inhaler in a day

A

1-2 puffs up to 4 times daily PRN

113
Q

what kind of drug is ipratropium bromide

A

short acting muscarinic antagonist (SAMA)

114
Q

what kind of drug is tiotropium bromide

A

long acting muscarinic antagonist (LAMA)

115
Q

how do muscarinic antagonists work in astham?

A

compete w Ach bindng sites on bronchial smooth muscle

prevents ach mediated constriction of bronchi

116
Q

is tiotropium bromide appropriate in acute bronchospasm?

A

NO. long acting !

117
Q

what are the SEs of ipratropium bromide (remember its an anti-muscarinic)

A

dry mouth
diarrhoea/constip
urinary retention

118
Q

what kind of drug is montelukast?

A

leukotriene receptor antagonist

119
Q

what can be a SE of montelukast in young children

A

hyperkinesia

120
Q

what are some dangerous but rare SEs of montelukast to look out for

A

churg strauss(vasculitis rash and worsening pulm symps)
suicidal thoughts
seizures

121
Q

name 5 anti hists

A
cetirizine
fexofenadine
loratadine
promethazine
chlorphenamine
122
Q

which are the sedating antihists

A

promethazine

chlorphenamine

123
Q

name some SEs of antihists

A

blurred vision dry mouth psychomotor impairment, urinary retnetion
drowsiness if prometh/chlorphen

124
Q

what should you advise pts taking sedating antihists

A

dont drive/operate machinery until effects worn off

125
Q

what side effects of benzos can lead to risk of falls in elderly?

126
Q

name 3 important side effects of benzos

A

ataxia
dependence
resp depression

127
Q

what neurotransmitter do benzos enhance the effect of?

128
Q

if having lorazepam in hosp what obs should you watch out for?

A

RR and sats

resp depression

129
Q

why dont we use to flumazenil?

A

can cause seizures - status - death

130
Q

name 3 typical antipsychotics

A

haloperidol
flupentixol
prochlorperazine
chlorpromazine

131
Q

name 4 atypical antipsychotics

A
risperidone
quetiapine
clozapine
aripiprazole
olanzapine
amisulpride
132
Q

how do antipsychotics work

A

dopamine2 receptor antagonists

133
Q

pt taking lithium has high WCC. you worried?

A

no. lithium benign leucocytosis

134
Q

Zopiclone is a benzodiazepine-like agent who’s side effects include…

A

metallic taste and headache

135
Q

What kind of anti-depressant is imipramine?

136
Q

Why do tricyclics cause urinary retention and overflow incontinence?

A

anti-cholinergic

137
Q

Which atypical anti-psychotic has a higher risk of dyslipidemia and obesity?

A

olanzapine

138
Q

Which drug can help treat tardive dyskinesia (as SE of anti-psychotics)?

A

tetrabenazine

139
Q

Procyclidine is useful for treatment of what SEs of anti-psychotics?

A

Extra-pyramidal SEs (except tardive dyskinesia)

Acute dystonia

140
Q

Which drug is useful to treat akathisia (restlessness) as anti-psychotic SE?

A

propanolol

141
Q

Which types of anti-psychotic tend to cause extra-pyramidal SEs?

142
Q

Which anti-psychotic is particularly risky for prolonged QT ?

A

haloperidol

143
Q

venlafaxine and duloxetine and both what type of drug…

144
Q

SNRI stands for

A

serotonin norepinephrine inhibitor

145
Q

SSRI stands

A

selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor

146
Q

Why is it important to know if someone has been compliant with taking their clozapine?

A

you lose clozapine tolerance within 48hrs

if give again at normal dose then can be fatal

147
Q

When an anti-depressant in indicated in child/adolescent, what is the drug of choice?

A

fluoxetine

148
Q

Describe tardive dyskinesia

A

abnormal involuntary movements
e.g. grimacing, tongue poking or excessive blinking

affects patients on typical antipsychotics

149
Q

Is hypo or hyper thyroid a SE of lithium?

150
Q

A patient on an SSRI is getting agitation, hyperthermia, hyperreflexia, sweating and dilated pupils. What could this be?

A

serotonin syndrome

151
Q

How do you manage serotonin syndrome?

A

stop the antidepressant
supportive care
bad - cyproheptadine (5HT antagonist)

152
Q

a rare but potentially life-threatening reaction to antipsychotics ?

A

neuroleptic malignant syndrome

153
Q

What antipsychotic is particularly bad for neuroleptic malignant syndrome?

A

haloperidol (the typicals)

154
Q

What are 3 key signs of neuroleptic malignant syndrome?

A

lead-pipe muscle rigidity
hyperthermia temp >38
autonomic instability

155
Q

What is the treatment for neuroleptic malignant syndrome?

A

stop the drug
rapid cooling + antipyretics
IV benzos for agitation

156
Q

What’s procyclidine for?

A

EPSEs except tardive dyskinesia

157
Q

What’s tetrabenazine for?

A

tardive dyskinesia

158
Q

What’s propanolol for?

A

akithisia (restlessness)

159
Q

What common drugs are a bad combo with SSRIs

A

NSAIDs

consider PPI

160
Q

You’ve started a 27yr old on an anti-depressant at the GP. How soon should you review him?

A

within 1 week (<30)

161
Q

You’ve started a 35 yr old on an anti-depressant at the GP. How soon should you review her?

A

within 2 weeks (>30)

162
Q

Name me some withdrawal effects of benzos and other hypnotics….

A

irritability, insomnia, anxiety, seizures!

163
Q

Name me 4 SSRIs

A

sertraline
fluoxetine
citalopram
paroxetine

164
Q

Give me three SEs of tricyclics

A

sedation
cardiac arrhythmias
anticholinergic SEs!

165
Q

Cheese and red wine make you think of

A

MAO inhibitors, hypertensive crisis

166
Q

Which kinds of antipsychotics cause metabolic syndrome > EPSEs?

A

atypical

olanzapine worst, aripiprazole best

167
Q

Give me three SEs of clozapine

A

weight gain
hypersalivation
agranulocytosis!

168
Q

What do SSRIs do to your electrolytes?

A

HYPONATRAEMIA SSRIs

169
Q

How long should I take anti-depressant for doctor?

A

at least 6 months following remission of symptoms,

reduces risk of relapse

170
Q

cyproheptadine. What is it and when is it used?

A

5HT antagonist

in serotonin syndrome if rlly bad

171
Q

name some conditions in which use of antipsychotics is cautioned

A

cardiovascular disease
diabetes
Parkinsons (they antagonise dopamine)

172
Q

why watch out drinking alcohol on antipsychotics

A

CNS sedation

173
Q

for antipsychotics, if the drug is effective but pt compliance is poor, what should you consider?

A

depot injections

174
Q

caution lithium in which skin condition

175
Q

MAOIs and WHAT should not be co-prescribed. (forget cheese and wine Maoi man)

A

tricyclic! dont co-prescribe tricylics and MAOIs. hypertensive crisis

DONT CO-PRESCRIBE MAOIs and SSRIs either

176
Q

if a pt has SEs to tricyclics can u tell them to persevre cos they wear off?

A

yeah mostly

177
Q

why should drs only prescribe limited tricylics at one time?

A

cardiotoxicity and fatality in overdose

178
Q

do antipsychotics and SSRIs lower seiure threshold?

179
Q

why check U&E if someone gets confused on citalopram?

A

HYPONATRAEMIA SSRIs

180
Q

name two dopamine antagonist anti-emetics

A

domperidone
metoclopramide

(prokinetics - increase gastric emptying)

181
Q

name a antihistamine anti emetic

182
Q

name a 5HT antag anti-emetic

A

ondnasetron

183
Q

when is ondansetron commonly used?

A

vomitty chemo

184
Q

give some SEs of domperidone/metoclopramide antiemetics (dopamine antagonists)

A

EPSEs
hyperprolactinaemia
drowsiness

185
Q

give some SEs of ondansetron (5HT antagonist)

A

flushing, headache

186
Q

should you be on domperidone for more than a week?

A

no - short term only

187
Q

which anti-emetic prolongs QT?

A

domperidone

188
Q

what can morphine do to BP?

A

hypotension

189
Q

which main diabetic drugs cause hypos?

A

insulin and suphonylureas.

sometimes pioglitazone, sitagliptin and others - but less.

190
Q

as well as corticosteroids, what other drugs can lead to hyperglycaemia/worse control in diabetics?

A

antipsychotics
beta blockers (hypo unaware)
thiazides

191
Q

can high dose PPIs over a long period cause osteoporosis in the elderly?

192
Q

what drugs should you STOP on sick day rules?

A

diuretics
ACE-is / ARBs
metformin
NSAIDs

(DAMN medications - stop when sick)

193
Q

you have vomiting and fever. you take diuretics, ACEis, metformin and NSAIDs. should you stop them?

A

yes :)

DAMN medications - stop when sick.

194
Q

should you stop your long term prednisolone abruptly?

A

no. NO. ERR NO.

take pred w food in morning.

TREATMENT CESSATION section in BNF

195
Q

how do you decide “what is most important to tell patient”?

A

think “what will happen if pt does not know this”

196
Q

check statin after 3 months. there has been a >40% reduction in non-HDL cholesterol. what do you do?

A

happy. continue dose.

197
Q

check statin after 3 months. there has not been a 40% reduction in non-HDL cholesterol. what do you do?

A

consider increasing dose

discuss adherence, lifestyle etc

198
Q

typical adjustments of insulin are

A

by 10% of dose

e. g. reducing from 24 units to 22
e. g. increasing from 16 units to 18

199
Q

patient is on a biphasic insulin Humulin M3, twice daily dose w breakfast and evening meal. blood sugars are often a bit high before breakfast. how do you adjust?

A

increase the evening meal dose (the night before breakfast)

200
Q

patient is on a biphasic Humulin M3 twice daily regimen w breakfast and evening meal. blood sugars tend to be a bit low before evening meal. how do you adjust?

A

decrease the breakfast dose

201
Q

patient is on basal bolus regime. Long acting Lantus at night and Actrapid before breakfast, lunch and tea. Her blood sugars tend to be too low before tea. How do you adjust?

A

decrease the actrapid at lunch by 10%

202
Q

patient is on basal bolus regime. Long acting Lantus at night and Actrapid before breakfast, lunch and tea. Her blood sugars tend to be a bit high before breakfast. How do you adjust?

A

increase Lantus dose at night by 10%

203
Q

gliclazide, gilbenclamide and tolbutamide are all…

A

suphonylureas

204
Q

eGFR is <45. what do you do w metformin?

A
review dose
(or creat >130)
205
Q

eGFR is <30. what do you do with metformin.

A

contraindicated!

or creat >150

206
Q

why is metformin good for overweight pt at CV risk?

A

weight loss, reduces CV risk

207
Q

name a common side effect of metformin.

A

GI upset (nausea, diarrohoea)

208
Q

what can metformin cause if you take it during MI/sepsis/dehydration?

A

lactic acidosis

209
Q

why should you titrate metformin up slowly when starting it?

A

reduce GI upset

210
Q

name 3 side effects of insulin

A

weight gain
hypoglycaemia
lipodystrophy

211
Q

how do beta blockers interact w insulin?

A

enhanced hypoglycaemic effect and masks hypo warning signs

212
Q

name 3 drugs that interact w insulin

A

beta blockers

corticosteroids

suphonylureas (hypos)

213
Q

bms should be less than what after meals (for pts on insulin)

214
Q

bms should be less than what after meals (for pts on insulin)

215
Q

should you omit your insulin doses when you’re sick?

216
Q

does IV insulin have to be diluted in sodium chloride?

A

yes.

e.g. 50 units actrapid in 50ml 0.9% Nacl

217
Q

how do suphonylureas work?

A

increase insulin secretion (need functional beta cells, best in early stages of t2dm)

218
Q

name two key side effects of suphonylureas

A

hypoglycaemia

weight gain

219
Q

name 2 suphonylureas

A

gliclazide, tolbutamide

220
Q

why should you withold metformin for 48hrs in pts undergoing iodine contrast imaging?

A

risk of acute renal failure

221
Q

what blood test annually on metformin?

A

U&E - eGFR is important

222
Q

jean’s having terrible vomiting on metformin. what should you do?

A

reduce dose

or use modified release

223
Q

how does metformin work?

A

increases tissues sensitivity to insulin

224
Q

jean’s having terrible vomiting on metformin. what should you do?

A

reduce dose

or use modified release

225
Q

how does metformin work?

A

increases tissues sensitivity to insulin

226
Q

does metformin requires the presence of endogenous insulin to function?

A

yes. if no beta cells no point.

227
Q

what kind of drug is liraglutide?

A

GLP-1 analogue

228
Q

GLP1 analogues only rlly give in combo when other options failed. who do u only give liraglutide to?

A

in pts w t2dm and established cardiovascular disease or BMI >35
(CV benefit)

229
Q

jean’s having terrible vomiting on metformin. what should you do?

A

reduce dose

or use modified release

230
Q

what long term effects can pioglitazone have?

A

osteoporosis, HF

231
Q

does metformin requires the presence of endogenous insulin to function?

A

yes. if no beta cells no point.

232
Q

what kind of drug is liraglutide?

A

GLP-1 analogue

subcut injectable

233
Q

what kind of drug is canagliflozin

A

sodium glucose co-transporter 2 inhibitors

234
Q

what should be considered if a person taking metformin presents with megaloblastic anaemia?

A

can cause b12 deficiency

235
Q

what is first line drug treatment in t2dm person ?

A

● Metformin →add another drug→ triple therapy→ insulin

236
Q

why is metformin useful in PCOS?

A

increases insulin sensitivity

237
Q

HbA1c target when just lifestyle/ metformin?

238
Q

HbA1c target when two or more diabetes drugs prescribed?

239
Q

which 3 drugs might you usually add if metformin not working

A

DPP4 inhibitor
suphonylurea
pioglitazone

240
Q

what should be considered if a person taking metformin presents with megaloblastic anaemia?

A

can cause b12 deficiency

241
Q

what is first line drug treatment in t2dm person ?

A

● Metformin →add another drug→ triple therapy→ insulin

242
Q

why is metformin useful in PCOS?

A

increases insulin sensitivity

243
Q

HbA1c target when no hypo risk is management (e.g. lifestyle, metformin)?

244
Q

HbA1c target when two or more diabetes drugs prescribed?

245
Q

which 3 drugs might you usually add if metformin not working

A

DPP4 inhibitor
suphonylurea
pioglitazone

246
Q

give an example of a DPP4 inhibitor

A

sitagliptin

247
Q

what kind of drug is sitagliptin

A

DPP4 inhibitor

248
Q

as well as hypertension, steroid induced DM, thinskin/easy bruising, name some other SEs of steroids

A
moon face w plethoric cheeks
steroid induced cataracts
buffalo hump
striae
steroid induced psychosis
249
Q

does prednisolone put you at high risk of severe chickenpox?

250
Q

if treatment w prednisolone is long term, what should you consider presciribng with it?

A

bisphosphonates

251
Q

how should you take alendronic acid?

A

on an empty stomach 30 mins before breakfast, with whole glass of water, stood upright

252
Q

name a common SE of bisphosphonates

A

GI disturbance

253
Q

name 3 imporrrrtantSEs of bisphosphonates

A

osteonecrosis of jaw
oesophagitis
atypical stress fractures

254
Q

name 3 situations in which u should avoid bsiphosphonates

A

preg
hypoCa
oes strictures

255
Q

should you avoid live vaccines on methotrexate?

256
Q

whats the risk that can happen if co-prescribing trimethoprim and methotrexate?

A

pancytopenia

257
Q

azathioprine and allopurinol. is that ok

258
Q

does azathioprine increase risk of skin ca?