Struggles through FL 2

Question 1

Define: Magnocellular cells

Answer 1

perceive moving objects

Question 2

Define: Parvocellcular cells

Answer 2

perceive stationary objects

Question 3

Name the theory: proposes that working memory is controlled by a system termed “central executive”. This organizing system coordinates two other structures, the visuospatial sketchpad and the phonological loop. The sketchpad holds visual information to be used and manipulated by the central executive, while the loop is the site of auditory information for the same purpose.

Answer 3

Baddeley’s model of working memory

To summarize, Baddley’s model of working memory includes a phonological loop and a visuospatial sketchpad.

Question 4

Which mode of reinforcement causes high amounts of response near end of interval and slower responses immediately after delivery of reward (beginning of interval)

Answer 4

Fixed interval reinforcement

Question 5

Explain: Cognitive Appraisal of Stress

Answer 5

Cognitive Appraisal of Stress consists of TWO stages. Primary and Secondary. During primary, person analyzes stressor along with surrounding environment and determines if it’s a threat. If primary appraisal determines the presence of a threat, secondary appraisal begins. During secondary appraisal, the individual decides whether and how he or she can cope with the threat.

Question 6

What is the most useful demographic in determining risk for various diseases?

Answer 6

Age is the most useful demographic in determining risk for various diseases - Age is related to far more conditions than the other mentioned characteristics. Aging directly affects the body’s ability to fight off and recuperate from disease. Across all ethnic groups, the elderly are significantly more vulnerable than the young to a wide spectrum of illnesses.

Question 7

True or False: Members of a lower socioeconomic class are likely to have less social capital, because they exist in in a larger network of people, and have weak ties and a larger network of connections.

Answer 7

True

Question 8

True or False: Attitudes tend to have the most predictable effects on behavior when they are highly specific

Answer 8

True

Question 9

True or False: In Socialization, Values, behaviors, attitudes and norms must ALL be accepted or rejected.

Answer 9

True

Question 10

Explain the difference between Normative Influence and Informational influence

Answer 10

Normative influence (being liked)

Information influence (being right)

Question 11

True or False: A status can be both achieved and ascribed.

Answer 11

False.

Remember: a status can either be achieved or ascribed, but can never be both achieved AND ascribed. A master status, however, can be both achieved or ascribed in addition to being the master status.

Question 12

What kind of social control causes shame, criticism, and ridicule without explicit laws or regulations?

Answer 12

Informal social control

Question 13

Often known as “muscle memory”, This is how someone can multitask simpler and more efficiently when performing actions they are used to.

Answer 13

Automatic processing

Question 14

This term refers to ones value or worth as a person. This is NOT related to abilities unless specified.

Answer 14

Self-esteem

Question 15

This term refers to how well the experimental results may be generalized to other situations

Answer 15

External Validity

Question 16

What are McConnell’s 3 techniques of brainwashing?

Answer 16

• isolation
• Dependency
• Reward

Question 17

What are the three cues in Kelley’s covariation model of attribution?

Answer 17

• Consensus cues
• Distinctiveness cues
• Consistency cues

Question 18

This is designed to provide healthcare for patients over 65 years of age

Answer 18

Medicare

Question 19

True or False: Water, CO2, and Urea can all cross the plasma membrane through simple diffusion

Answer 19

True

Question 20

What is the vant hoff factor of O2?

Answer 20

1, because it does not dissociate into ions.

Question 21

True of False: Both endocytosis AND exocytosis REQUIRE ENERGY and do not happen spontaneously

Answer 21

True

Question 22

What are responsible for degrading ingested substances via endocytosis in order for the cell to repurpose the basic building blocks of the ingested material for other uses?

Answer 22

Lysosomes

Question 23

True or False: Noradrenaline is not a catecholamine

Answer 23

False. Noradrenaline and Adrenaline are both catecholamines

Question 24

If an observer watches another engage in a behavior (e.g. flipping over rocks), what is required to draw the inference that such a behavior is intentional and aimed at a particular reward (e.g. looking for grubs to eat under the rocks rather than just flipping rocks randomly).

Answer 24

Theory of mind.

“Theory of mind” refers to the ability of a subject to understand that others have minds and to make inferences about the intentions and actions of others.

Question 25

Explain the difference between primary reinforcers and secondary reinforcers

Answer 25

Primary reinforcers are those things that are directly biological such as food, drink or sex. Secondary reinforcers are those things that are conditioned such as money or grades in school.

Question 26

Define: Ingratiation

Answer 26

Ingratiation is an attempt to influence another person by becoming more “like-able”

Question 27

______ is a form of impression management in which we accept a current situation and explain our behavior in a way that shows we accept the situation.

Answer 27

Aligning Actions

Question 28

_________ occurs when we choose behavior (or an explanation for our behavior) which shows that we do not accept a situation.

Answer 28

Realigning actions

For example, someone who shouts at a political rally might say later that they were expressing support for the speaker. This would be an example of an aligning action. However, someone who shouts insults at a speaker during a political rally and attempts to make a speech of their own would be engaging in realigning actions.

Question 29

________ occurs when people become attracted to things or people they are exposed to on a regular basis.

Answer 29

The mere exposure effect

Question 30

What type of selection applies to traits that do not directly imply fitness (e.g., the feathers of a male peacock).

Answer 30

Fisherian selection

Question 31

Define: game theory

Answer 31

Generally, game theory is a way of explaining how individuals try to make decisions that are in their best interests when others are part of the decision-making process.

Question 32

Define: Altercasting

Answer 32

Altercasting involves characterizing a person, and then creating the expectation that they fit this characterization.

Question 33

What refers to genetically-determined physical differences between the sexes.

Answer 33

Sexual dimorphism

Question 34

What substance enhances the action of GABA receptors, which are inhibitory receptors?

Answer 34

Alcohol

Question 35

What substance is a stimulant that blocks the reuptake of serotonin?

Answer 35

Cocaine

Question 36

What substance is also a stimulant, but it works by promoting the release of serotonin, dopamine, and norepinephrine?

Answer 36

MDMA (ecstasy/molly)

Question 37

What substance promotes alertness by blocking adenosine receptors (which promote drowsiness)?

Answer 37

Caffeine

Question 38

When awake and alert, the brain’s electrical activity primarily consists of _____ waves. When tired or drifting off, ______ waves predominate. _____ waves occur in stages 1 and 2 of sleep, but stage 2 is characterized by ________ and _______, while _____ waves predominate in stage 3.

Answer 38

beta, alpha, theta, K-complexes, sleep spindles, delta

Question 39

What are the slowest type of brain waves, and in which stage of sleep do they emerge?

Answer 39

Delta waves, the slowest type of brain waves, emerge during stage 3 sleep.

Question 40

True or False: In stage 1 sleep, slow eye movements occur. In stage 2 sleep, eye movements stop and breathing and heart rate become slower.

Answer 40

True

Question 41

True or false: Meditation promotes beta waves in experienced practitioners

Answer 41

False.

Meditation has been shown to promote alpha and theta waves in experienced practitioners. Beta waves are associated with alertness and are not promoted by meditation.

Question 42

Explain the difference between MDMA and Cocaine

Answer 42

MDMA promotes the release of serotonin, norepinephrine, and dopamine.

Cocaine works by inhibiting the reuptake of serotonin, dopamine, and norepinephrine, therefore allowing them to exert their effects over a larger period of time.

Question 43

__________ is a psychiatric condition associated with chronic alcoholism that involves amnesia and a tendency for confabulation, or invented memories.

Answer 43

Korsakoff syndrome

Question 44

_______ waves, which are present when someone is fully awake, are characterized by high-frequency, low-amplitude waveforms.

Answer 44

Beta waves

Question 45

________ is an opioid that can be described as an extremely potent endorphin agonist.

Answer 45

Fentanyl

Question 46

__________ are depressants that enhance the activity of GABA receptors

Answer 46

Barbiturates

Question 47

What is the FIRST step in Broadbent’s filter model of attention?

Answer 47

In Broadbent’s filter model of attention, the FIRST step is processing of sensory stimuli, thereby yielding information about properties such as color, shape, pitch, loudness, etc.

Question 48

Define: Pragmatics

Answer 48

Pragmatics is the study of how nonverbal aspects of language contribute to meaning

Question 49

Define Linguistic determinism and give an example of it.

Answer 49

Linguistic determinism is the idea that language constrains thought and perception. Because the culture has no word that distinguishes red from orange, the person cannot discriminate between these colors.

Question 50

What is the difference between language determinism and language relativism?

Answer 50

Linguistic relativism holds that language has some influence on the way we think about and perceive the world. (Linguistic determinism is the stronger view that language determines thought and perception completely.)

Question 51

Explain Ebbinghaus’ curve of forgetting

Answer 51

Ebbinghaus’ curve of forgetting shows how retention of memorized material decreases over time, especially if it is not rehearsed or otherwise emphasized. Information is forgotten most rapidly in the days right after memorization.

Question 52

Explain the idea of information influence, a major component of group polarization.

Answer 52

Two major components of group polarization are informational influence and normative influence. Informational influence relates to group members’ desire to be accurate or “right” about an idea. When a member holds a minority opinion, she may assume that she is wrong and change her mindset to reflect that of the majority. This explains why the dominant viewpoints end up being reflected in the ideas that emerge.

Question 53

How do transcription factors affect cell differentiation?

Answer 53

Transcription factors direct the eukaryotic transcription of a set of specific genes. As differential gene expression is critical to cell differential, transcription factors thus play a key role.

Question 54

Are conditioned responses a key component of emotion?

Answer 54

No.

There are three core components of emotion – physiological arousal (how your body reacts to emotions, emotional information or stimuli), expressive displays (how you express your emotions), and subjective experiences (how you feel and interpret your emotions, which is extremely personal and subjective). Conditioned responses are not a core component of emotion.

Question 55

Name and explain the three core components of emotion.

Answer 55

There are three core components of emotion – physiological arousal (how your body reacts to emotions, emotional information or stimuli), expressive displays (how you express your emotions), and subjective experiences (how you feel and interpret your emotions, which is extremely personal and subjective). Conditioned responses are not a core component of emotion.

Question 56

Explain the Stroop Effect

Answer 56

The Stroop effect describes the phenomenon in which it is harder for an individual to reconcile different pieces of information relating to colors than to reconcile similar pieces of information.

An example of this is reading the word “green” while the letters are red, and so on.

Question 57

The ____________ is a protein-based linkage that appears during meiosis and connects homologous chromosomes. As these chromosomes must be closely situated to facilitate crossing over, issues could arise involving genetic recombination or synapsis.

Answer 57

The synaptonemal complex

Question 58

This theory focused on the processes by which people acquire behaviors and other characteristics simply by observing others and attempting to imitate them.

Answer 58

Albert Bandura’s theory of observational learning

Question 59

Hiking and skiing each require attention to different properties of the terrain. Experiencing a path via hiking, and later being able to ski it well, suggests that __________ about the terrain has taken place. In other words, the individual has learned things about the terrain that were not necessarily applied while hiking but were used later while skiing.

Answer 59

Latent Learning

Question 60

Explain the idea of a token economy

Answer 60

In a token economy, tokens are secondary reinforcers that can be exchanged for primary reinforcers. For example, “schrute bucks” are secondary reinforcers that can be exchanged for time off, which functions as a primary (and positive) reinforcer.

Question 61

_________ are a type of solid that do not have order to their particles.

Answer 61

Amorphous solids

Question 62

________ solids consist of particles that are packed in an ordered manner with a repeating pattern. There are four different types of these solids: ionic, molecular, covalent network, and metallic solids.

Answer 62

Crystalline solids

Question 63

What are the four types of crystalline solids?

Answer 63

ionic, molecular, covalent network, and metallic solids.

Question 64

_______ solids consist of cations and anions, which are held together by the electrostatic attraction between them.

Answer 64

Ionic solids

Question 65

___________ solids are held together by intermolecular forces, such as hydrogen bonding and London dispersion forces.

Answer 65

Molecular solids

Question 66

__________________ solids are held together by covalent bonds. The intricate network of covalent bonding throughout the crystal causes them to have very high melting points.

Answer 66

Covalent network solids

Question 67

________ solids consist of central metal atoms surrounded by delocalized valence electrons that give them the ability to conduct heat and electricity.

Answer 67

Metallic solids

Question 68

What is a possible consequence of oligonucleotides, such as mRNA, not being degraded rapidly by intracellular agents?

Answer 68

The destruction of mRNA prevents continuous protein production, allowing the cell to change its protein expression over time. The coordination of cell differentiation during development is extremely sensitive to the timing of mRNA turnover.

Question 69

Rank the following molecules from most to least acidic: propanal, propanoic acid, propanone, and propanedial

Answer 69

In order from most acidic to least acidic:

propanoic acid > propanedial > propanal > propanone.

Question 70

Explain the hydrogen bonding patterns of Carbonyl groups.

Answer 70

Because carbonyls are aprotic, they are not capable of acting as hydrogen bond donors. They can, however, be hydrogen bond acceptors by using their oxygen to interact with an electropositive hydrogen from a different functional group such as an alcohol (-OH).

Question 71

Are ketones or aldehydes more reactive?

Answer 71

A ketone’s carbonyl carbon is hindered by two hydrocarbon groups (R) such as alkyl groups, while an aldehyde carbonyl is bonded to only one R group and one hydrogen. As a result, aldehydes can be more easily approached by nucleophiles, , making aldehydes more reactive. In addition, aldehydes’ carbonyl carbons have a higher partial positive charge than those of ketones because aldehydes have only one electron-donating carbon group bonded to the carbonyl.

Question 72

Explain the reaction of chromic acid with ketones and aldehydes, respectively

Answer 72

Chromic acid (H2CrO4), like many chromium-containing reagents, is a strong oxidizing agent. Reaction of an aldehyde with such a compound will oxidize it as thoroughly as possible. Since an aldehyde has only one bond to carbon, it possesses the ability to form three bonds to oxygen, creating a carboxylic acid. Ketones can not do this, as they’d need to break C-C bonds to do so, which is unfavorable.

Question 73

How are imines synthesized?

Answer 73

Imines are formed from primary amines and either aldehydes or ketones.

Question 74

What two compounds create a hemiketal?

Answer 74

Hemiketalsare produced from the reaction of alcohols withketones

Question 75

Rank the stability from lowest to highest:

carboxylates, acyl chlorides, acid anhydrides, amides, and esters.

Answer 75

Recall that acyl chlorides are the most reactive, followed by acid anhydrides, followed by the fairly unreactive esters and almost entirely unreactive amides. And don’t forget that carboxylates, the conjugate base of carboxylic acids, are the most stable of the bunch!

acyl chlorides < acid anhydrides < esters < amides < carboxylates

Question 76

True or False: LiAlH4is a very strong reducing agent and would generate a primary alcohol from a carboxylic acid

Answer 76

True

Question 77

If a lung is punctured, what effect will this likely have on breathing?

Answer 77

The punctured lung will be unable to inflate, affecting inhalation.

Question 78

Why does histone deacetylation generally decreases gene expression?

Answer 78

Since DNA is negatively charged due to its phosphate backbone, the charge on lysine allows for tight histone-DNA interactions thanks to electrostatic attraction between the charged atoms on each molecule. Acetylation of lysine makes the residue neutral, lessening these interactions and promoting a looser structure. Loose chromatin structure is typically associated with euchromatin, the less dense, transcriptionally active chromatin structure that appears light under a microscope. In contrast, histone deacetylation will restore the positive charge to the residue, allowing the electrostatic attractions to return. Therefore, deacetylation of lysine residues on histones should lead to a denser chromatin structure and lowered transcription/gene expression.

Question 79

Compared to a T11 residue, a T3 residue is:

Answer 79

closer to the N-terminus, and that terminus is likely to be positively charged in vivo.

Question 80

Do post-transcriptional modifications involve catalysis by enzymes?

Answer 80

Post-transcriptional modifications do involve catalysis by enzymes. For example, addition of the poly(A) tail is catalyzed by a poly(A) polymerase.

Question 81

Where do proteins undergo post-transcriptional modifications?

Answer 81

Proteins do NOT undergo post-transcriptional modifications. Protein modifications must be post-translational modifications. Such modifications can take place in a variety of locations within the cell, such as the interior of the endoplasmic reticulum or the cytoplasm. In contrast, post-transcriptional modifications (those performed on mRNA) occur in the nucleus; these include the addition of the poly(A) tail, the addition of the 5’ cap, and splicing.

Question 82

Are histones enzymes?

Answer 82

No. Although they are proteins, histones are not enzymes.

Question 83

If the DNA of a representative species from each of the major kingdoms was examined, the sequences coding for which of following would be expected to be most similar?

Photosynthesis, cholesterol synthesis, protein modification, or DNA synthesis?

Answer 83

DNA synthesis. DNA sequences that are common among different species, phyla, or even kingdoms are called conserved sequences. Conserved sequences tend to remain that way due to the fact that they code for a vital function that is common among disparate species.

Question 84

Which phase of mitosis is likely to be first interrupted if a cell has no microtubules?

Answer 84

Metaphase

Question 85

Describe anomers, and explain the difference between and alpha and beta anomer.

Answer 85

Anomers are a form of epimer. Epimers are sugars that differ only at one stereocenter, with all other stereocenters being exactly the same. Thus, epimers are a type of diastereomer. An alpha anomer has an -OH group on its anomeric carbon pointing in the opposite direction from the CH2OH group. In contrast, an anomer that has its -OH group pointing in the same direction as the CH2OH group is the beta anomer.

Question 86

From which amino acid are the catecholamines derived?

Answer 86

Tyrosine

Question 87

From what molecule are thromboxanes derived?

Answer 87

Thromboxanes are a class of prostanoids derived from arachidonic acid.

Question 88

From what molecule are prostaglandins derived?

Answer 88

Prostaglandins are a class of prostanoids derived from arachidonic acid.

Question 89

If inhibitor A (a strong acid) and inhibitor B (a strong base) are mixed together before being added to the reaction mixture, how will this affect the enzyme kinetics curve?

Answer 89

It will be unaffected as the strong acid and strong base will neutralize each other before added to the mixture.

Question 90

Do prokaryotes contain introns?

Answer 90

No

Question 91

The disruption of which membrane component is most likely to result in cellular traffic complications similar to those seen in gap junction disorders?

Choose between cholesterol, glycoproteins, glycolipids, and phospholipids

Answer 91

The cell membrane is composed of several different components, each responsible for different functions. Membrane transport is most likely to be affected if the disruption occurs in components that span the entire membrane. Transmembrane proteins (many of which are glycoproteins) are the only component listed that pass all the way through the cell membrane and facilitate membrane transport.

Question 92

Is the side chain of phenylalanine polar or nonpolar?

Answer 92

The side chain of phenylalanine is nonpolar, not polar.

Question 93

True or False: Meiosis I results in two diploid daughter cells.

Answer 93

False.

Meiosis I results in two haploid daughter cells.

Question 94

True or False: During mitosis and meiosis II, sister chromatids are separated.

Answer 94

This question is asking us to recall some facts about mitosis and meiosis. Remember that mitosis separates sister chromatids to create two diploid daughter cells. Meiosis I separates homologous chromosomes to create haploid daughter cells, each of which divides again, separating sister chromatids in Meiosis II to create two haploid cells.

Question 95

siRNA is generally part of what process?

Answer 95

siRNA (small interfering RNA) is associated with post-transcriptional modification, in which it silences genes by interrupting expression.

Question 96

In severe diabetic hyperglycemia (high blood sugar), insulin cannot effectively induce the uptake of glucose by cells. Chronic hyperglycemia directly leads to the presence of which of these molecules in the urine?

I. Proteins

II. Glucose

III. Ketone bodies

Answer 96

II and III only

This question requires outside knowledge about glucose metabolism. If cells cannot take up glucose, it will remain in the blood and eventually be excreted in the urine when it builds up to the point that it cannot be reabsorbed by the nephron (II). In a state of extended hyperglycemia, the body relies on fat metabolism to generate energy, which produces ketone bodies that are also excreted in the urine (III).

Question 97

Meiosis I results in:

Answer 97

2 haploid cells with 23 chromosomes, each chromosome consisting of 2 sister chromatids.

Meiosis I results in 2 haploid cells, each with 23 chromosomes consisting of 2 sister chromatids per chromosome. In the male, the sister chromatids are split into 4 gametes during meiosis II. For females, meiosis I results in a secondary oocyte (a gamete) and a polar body. Penetration of the secondary oocyte by a sperm brings on anaphase II. Telophase II produces a zygote and a second polar body. Remember for the MCAT: mitosis results in diploid daughter cells, while meiosis results in haploid cells to produce gametes.

Question 98

Given that ΔG° is negative for a particular reaction, what can be said about the equilibrium constant K?

Answer 98

K > 1

Given that ∆G° is negative, and using the equation ∆G° = -RTlnK, ln(K) must be positive for ∆G° to be negative. K > 1.

Question 99

Which of the following molecules is/are most likely to have selective proteins in the BBB to facilitate its passage into the brain?

Antibodies, starch, amino acids, or urea?

Answer 99

Amino acids

The correct answer will be a molecule or substance that is essential to brain function. Amino acids are necessary for the production of proteins, which are essential for the function of any cell.

Question 100

True or False: The nervous system is derived from ectoderm

Answer 100

True.

Remember, the ectoderm is the outer layer of the gastrula. It gives rise to the nervous system, epidermis, hair, nails, teeth, and sweat glands.

Question 101

Uracil is usually found in:

I. tRNA.

II. ribosomes.

III. single-stranded DNA.

Answer 101

I and II only.

Uracil is found in any structure made of RNA. Both tRNA and ribosomes are made of RNA (I and II). Single-stranded DNA has thymine rather than uracil (III).

Question 102

What is “parallel play”?

Answer 102

Parallel play is a normal part of the behavior of preschool children, in which they will play by themselves but observe another child playing and adjust their behavior in response. Parallel play does not entail direct interaction between the children. As children reach school age, they are much more likely to engage in forms of play together.

Question 103

The music children listen to conveys certain typical social situations and the expected emotional reaction to those situations in a simple, repetitive way that allows children and adolescents to more easily internalize. This process of internalizing the expected reactions to life situations is:

Answer 103

a normal part of the socialization process.

Socialization is the process of internalizing the social norms and values expected in one’s society, and mass media (such as popular music) is one source of normal socialization.

Question 104

The Cannon-Bard theory of emotion would suggest that any aggressive emotions that the children experience as a result of listening to aggressive music would:

Answer 104

entail simultaneous physiological arousal and a subjective feeling of aggression, which are separate and independent.

The Cannon-Bard theory of emotion asserts that the physiological arousal and the subjective feeling of an emotion arise from different parts of the brain and are separate and independent of one another.

Question 105

Assuming that the children studied are 6-7 years old and are in the normal stage of Piaget’s stages of cognitive development, which of the following would most likely be observed among these subjects?

A. An ability to mentally manipulate information
B. A high degree of symbolic play
C. Empathy based on understanding the viewpoint of another child
D. An ability to solve puzzle games using simple deductive logic

Answer 105

B. A high degree of symbolic play

In Piaget’s stages of development, children from ages 2 to 7 are in the pre-operational stage of development. At that level, children learn to operate symbolically and engage in a lot of symbolic play (e.g. a stick is a sword, a plastic toy is a cake, a doll is a person, etc.).

Question 106

Which of the following statements accurately describes a major assumption of the functionalist theory of social stratification?

I. Social stratification affects what people believe about themselves and others and influences their daily life, lifestyle choices, and interactions with others.

II. Social stratification is unnecessary and results from both lack of opportunity and discrimination against the poor and people of color.

III. Social stratification is necessary and results from the need for those with special intelligence, knowledge, and skills to be a part of the most important professions and occupations.

Answer 106

III only.

Functionalist theories assert that aspects of culture are necessary and need-based (III).

Question 107

True or False: Higher infant mortality is associated with lower quality-of-life indicators.

Answer 107

True

Question 108

True or False: Higher fertility rates tend to be associated with lower quality-of-life indicators.

Answer 108

True

Question 109

What characteristics of society are associated with high levels of anomie?

I. Rapid changes in society

II. Low levels of income

III. High heterogeneity

Answer 109

I, II, and III
Anomie refers to society feeling fragmented and lacking cohesiveness. All of the characteristics listed are associated with anomie (I, II, III).

Question 110

Explain the idea of internal validity?

Answer 110

Internal validity refers to the degree to which causal conclusions can be drawn from a study, which can include accounting for potential confounding variables.

Question 111

Explain the idea of external validity

Answer 111

External validity describes the degree to which the findings of a study are generalizable to the population as a whole. Typically, this involves issues regarding the size and representativeness of the sample.

Question 112

Explain The cognitive appraisal theory of emotion

Answer 112

In the cognitive appraisal theory of emotion, individuals make different interpretations about stimuli, such as interpreting stigma negatively or non-negatively.

Question 113

What is “fading” in operant conditioning?

Answer 113

Fading is reducing the prompts used in operant conditiong

Question 114

In operant conditioning, what does “thinning” refer to?

Answer 114

In operant conditioning, thinning refers to reducing the frequency of rewards for a given action.

Question 115

Name three strategies used in impression management.

Answer 115

Boasting, flattery, and ingratiation are all strategies used in impression management.

Question 116

Many elderly individuals struggle with the concept of death and dying. The Kübler-Ross model provides a series of stages that most people experience when facing the end of their life. What is the correct sequence of emotional stages from this model?

Answer 116

Denial, anger, bargaining, depression, acceptance.

For these stages, you can remember the acronym Death Always Brings Definite Acceptance. The stages are sequenced in the following order: denial, anger, bargaining, depression, and acceptance.

Question 117

Which of these statements describe(s) primary aging?

I. Aging related to social factors and environmental context, like changes in romantic relationships

II. Aging related to biological factors and the physical body, like molecular changes

III. Aging related to controllable behavioral factors, like changes in diet and exercise

Answer 117

II only.

Primary aging describes the aging of biological factors and the physical body (II).

Question 118

What is “secondary aging”?

Answer 118

Aging that relates to behavioral factors like diet and exercise is defined as secondary aging.

Question 119

What is the “house money effect”?

Answer 119

Thaler and Johnson have found that individual risk-taking behavior is affected by prior gains and losses. They found that after a prior gain, people become more open to assuming risk since the new money is not treated as one’s own. This is known as the house money effect.

Question 120

What is the “gambler’s’ fallacy”?

Answer 120

The gambler’s fallacy is the mistaken belief that, if something happens more frequently than normal during some period, it will happen less frequently in the future, or vice versa. For example, someone who bets on red on a roulette wheel because the last 5 spins have all landed on black.

Question 121

An individual who scores highly on a measure of positive feelings towards the culture to which he immigrated and low on a measure of positive feelings towards his native culture would likely be employing what strategy of acculturation?

A. Assimilation
B. Separation
C. Marginalization
D. Integration

Answer 121

A - Assimilation

Assimilation is a strategy in which the individual seeks to interact with the new culture and reject the native culture.

Separation is rejecting the new culture and maintaining the native culture, Marginalization involves the rejection of both cultures, and Integration involves identifying with both cultures.

Question 122

If a psychologist were to claim that the ideomotor effect is unconscious, Freudian psychologists could argue this effect resides in which components of the psychic apparatus?

I. The id

II. The ego

III. The superego

Answer 122

I, II, and III.

Since this is a Roman numeral (RN) question, we may be able to save time by working efficiently. The id, ego, and superego are the three parts of the psychic apparatus Sigmund Freud suggested in his structural model of the psyche. The id includes basic human instinctual drives and, by definition, is unconscious (I). However, you may have noticed that RN I appears in all four answer choices, meaning that it must be correct and we do not even need to evaluate it. This is a perfect example of working efficiently through a Roman numeral problem.

Moving on to RN II, this is a tough one! While the ego operates primarily at the conscious and preconscious levels, it also contains unconscious elements. This is because both the ego and the superego evolved from the id, which is unconscious. The ego deals with the id’s impulses as soon as an adequate response is found. Hence, RN II is correct. Finally, the superego forms the organized part of the personality structure and therefore is mostly (but not entirely) unconscious (III).

Question 123

What are subjective norms?

Answer 123

Subjective norms refer to the perceived social pressure to engage or to not engage in a behavior.

Question 124

What is reciprocal determinism?

Answer 124

Reciprocal determinism is the theory set forth by Albert Bandura that a person’s behavior both influences and is influenced by personal factors and the environment.

Question 125

What is social cognitive theory?

Answer 125

Social cognitive theory asserts that people learn by watching others, and if they see someone is rewarded for a behavior, they are more likely to behave that way too.

Question 126

When dealing with social sanctions, what do the terms positive and negative mean?

Answer 126

In social sanctions, positive refers to a reward, while negative refers to a punishment.

Question 127

True or False: One criticism of bureaucracies is that employees are promoted until they become insufficiently competent for their positions.

Answer 127

True

Question 128

Define “protectionism”

Answer 128

Protectionism refers to a country rejecting trade with others and being isolative, which is inversely proportional to globalization.