Structure, function, diagnostics and therapy Flashcards

1
Q

Which cells in the skin originate from the neural crest?

A

Melanocytes

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2
Q

Which are the first hairs to appear on a foetus?

A

Vibrissae and tactile or sinus hairs

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3
Q

Gene W causes which coat phenotype?

A

White (pink skin, blue or brown eyes and white hair) - also called albino

All non-white horses are ww

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4
Q

Gene G causes which coat phenotype?

A

Exclusion of pigment from hair - greying. GG or Gg horses always have pigment in their skin and eyes.

All non-greys are gg.

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5
Q

Gene B causes which coat phenotype?

A

Black hairs on the points and /or most of the body, the b allele allows black hair in the skin but not the hair (e.g. chestnuts).

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6
Q

Gene A causes which coat phenotype?

A

The distribution of black hairs e.g. A and B is the bay colour.

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7
Q

Gene C causes which coat phenotype?

A

Pigment dilution. Fully pigmented horses are CC, heterozygotes are e.g. palomino and cc are cream with pink skin and blue eyes.

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8
Q

Gene D causes which coat phenotype?

A

Dun patterning

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9
Q

Gene To causes which coat phenotype?

A

Tobiano spotting

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10
Q

In general, how many cell layers thick is the epidermis in horses?

A

5 to 7 cell layers

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11
Q

Which body sites show rete ridges in haired skin?

A

Mane and tail bases

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12
Q
The below proteins make up which epidermal structure?
BPAG1/BP 230
Plectin
alpha-6-beta-4 intergrin
BPAG2/BPAG180/collagen XVII
Laminin 5
A

Hemidesmosomes

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13
Q

Which special stains can be used to identify melanocytes on histopathology?

A

DOPA reaction

Fontana ammoniacal silver nitrate

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14
Q

Which type of melanin contains a high proportion of sulphur?

A

Phaemelanins

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15
Q

Dopaquinone is the key intermediate in the metabolic pathway for which substance?

A

Melanin

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16
Q

Which copper-containing enzyme is the rate limiting enzyme for melanogenesis?

A

Tyrosinase

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17
Q

Melanosomes originate from which organelle?

A

Golgi apparatus

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18
Q

Which epidermal cells have high-affinity receptors for Fc-IgG and complement 3, contain membrane associated vimentin, adenosine triphosphatase, CD45, S-100 protein and CD1 and are aurophilic?

A

Langerhans cells

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19
Q

What is the epidermal turnover time in horses?

A

~17 days

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20
Q

What effect does inflammation have on skin pH?

A

Switch from acidic or neutral to alkaline

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21
Q

How thick is the BMZ in haired skin in horses?
1.5-5um
8-15um
25-35um

A

1.5-5um

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22
Q

Collagen accounts for what % of dermal fibres?

A

90%

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23
Q

Match the fibres and the stains used to differentiate them:
Collagen
Reticulin
Elastin

Verhoeff and van Gieson stains
Special silver stains
Masson trichrome

A

Collagen - Masson Trichrome
Reticulin - Special silver stains
Elastin - Verhoeff and van Gieson

24
Q

The unusual cross-linking of desmosine and isodesmosine gives which dermal fibre it’s remarkable strength?

A

Elastin

25
Q

Match the collagen types and their location:
Type IV
Type V
Type VII

Anchoring fibrils
Lamina lucida
Lamina densa

A

Type IV - Lamina densa
Type V - Lamina lucida
Type VII - Anchoring fibrils

26
Q

Which stain highlights mast cell granules on histopathology?

A

Toludine blue

AOG (Acid‐Orcein Giemsa)

27
Q

True or False:
In horses, a single hair arises from each follicle and is accompanied by sebaceous and epitrichial sweat glands and an arrector pili muscle.

A

True

28
Q

The inner root sheath keratinises and disintegrates when it reaches which level of the hair follicle?

A

The isthmus

29
Q

Where is the outer root sheath thickest, towards the epidermis or the hair bulb?

A

Towards the epidermis

30
Q

Arector pili muscles play a role in thermoregulation and emptying of which glands?

A

Sebaceous glands

31
Q

Which proteins are up-regulated on endothelial cells during inflammation?

A

ICAM-1 (intercellular adhesion molecule)

VCAM-1 (vascular cell adhesion molecule)

32
Q

Name three breeds of horse predisposed to atopic dermatitis

A
Quarter Horse
Thoroughbred
Warmblood 
Arabian
Morgan
33
Q

Name three breeds of horse predisposed to insect bite hypersensitivity

A
Icelandic
Friesian
Quarter Horse
Warmblood
Shire
Shetland
Connemara
34
Q

Which two species of Demodex mites can be found on horses?

A

Demodex equi

Demodex caballi

35
Q

Which topical antiseptic can destroy fluorescence in cases of dermatophytosis?

A

Iodine

36
Q

Which dermatophyte, commonly isolated from horses, does not grow on DTM?

A

Trichophyton verrucosum

37
Q

Reticular degeneration is most commonly seen with which acute/subacute inflammatory dermatoses?

A

Dermatophilosis

Acute contact dermatitis

38
Q

Hydropic degeneration of basal epidermal cells is usually associated with which diseases?

A

Cutaneous adverse drug reactions
Lupus erythematosus
Erythema multiforme
Vasculopathies

39
Q

Cholesterol clefts on histopathology (clear spaces in needle or spicule shape) are seen with which diseases?

A

Xanthomatosis
Panniculitis
Ruptured follicular cysts

40
Q

Define desmoplasia

A

Fibroplasia induced by a neoplastic process

41
Q

Villi (dermal papillae projecting into a vesicle or bulla) are seen with which diseases?

A

Photosensitisation
Bullous pemphigoid
Epidermolysis bullosa
Cutaneous adverse drug reactions

42
Q

Name two diseases that can show diffuse mucinosis

A

Hypothyroidism

Lupus erythematosus

43
Q

Which special stain aids visualisation of the BMZ?

A

PAS

44
Q
Multinucleated epidermal giant cells are typically associated with which types of infection?
Bacterial
Protozoal
Fungal 
Viral
A

Viral infectionss

45
Q
Which histopathological reaction pattern is typically caused by:
Hypersensitivity
Ectoparasites
Dermatophytosis
Dermatophilosis
Seborrheic disorders
Contact dermatitis
A

Superficial and deep perivascular dermatitis

46
Q

Name two diseases that cause diffuse parakeratotic hyperkeratosis with perivascular dermatitis

A
Ectoparasites
Dermatophilosis
Dermatophytosis
Malassezia dermatitis
Zinc-responsive dermatitis
Hepatocutaneous syndrome
47
Q

Chymase, tryptase and dipeptidly peptidase II are enzyme histochemical markers of which inflammatory cell?

A

Mast cell

48
Q

True or false?

The skin’s permeability to drugs increases as the hydration of the stratum corneum increases

A

True

49
Q

True or false?

Astringents precipitate proteins and generally do not penetrate deeply

A

True

50
Q

Name two types of occlusive emollients?

A

Vegetable oils
Animal oils (eg. lanolin, lard)
Hydrocarbons (e.g. paraffin, petrolatum)
Waxes

51
Q

How do hygroscopic agents work?

A

They are moisturisers that are incorporated into the stratum corneum and attract water.

52
Q

Give two examples of a hygroscopic agent

A
Propylene glycol 
Glycerin
Colloidal oatmeal
Urea
Sodium lactate 
Carboxylic acid
Lactic acid
53
Q

What dilution of chlorhexidine is non-irritant and suitable for wound irrigation?

A

0.05%

54
Q

Below which concentration is urea a humectant and not keratolytic?

A

20%

55
Q

What are the well known adverse effects of DMSO?

A

Garlic-like odour
Increased warmth and/or pruritus (histamine release, exothermic with water)
Dehydration (too hygroscopic)

56
Q

Zinc oxide and titanium dioxide are examples of which type of sunscreen,
physical or chemical?

A

Physical; they form an opaque barrier

57
Q

Horses show highest blood cortisol concentrations at which time of day?

A

In the morning - oral steroids should be given at this time