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KC135 EOC Test Questions > Strato MQF Jul 2019 > Flashcards

Strato MQF Jul 2019 Flashcards

1
Q
  1. Pilots shall not exchange seats during flight if only two pilots are aboard the airplane.
A

True

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2
Q
  1. Verbal coordination between applicable crewmembers will be required when:
A

A. Control of the airplane is transferred between pilot and copilot or when an autopilot mode or axis is engaged or disengaged.
B. Repositioning fuel panel valves and switches or when an electrical source is changed.
C. A crewmember leaves position or leaves interphone or goes on or off oxygen.
D. Any of the above.

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3
Q
  1. Normal hydraulic pressure range is ____ to ____ psi.
A

B. 2400; 3050

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4
Q
  1. Maximum EGT during engine start is °C.
A

C. 725

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5
Q
  1. EGT between ________is limited to 5 minutes duration. EGT between _____________ − Retard the throttle to bring EGT within limits. Operation is allowed until the next landing. If the EGT exceeds _______ − shut engine down using the ENGINE FIRE/FAILURE DURING FLIGHT checklist.
A

B. 870°C - 905°C; 906°C - 930°C; 930°C

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6
Q
  1. Normal oil pressure limits are _______ psi. Oil pressure fluctuations of not more than ___ psi total are allowable, as long as fluctuations remain within normal limits.
A

B. 11 – 92; 10

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7
Q
  1. Moderate to severe airplane buffeting can occur with simultaneous use of speed brakes and flaps. This buffeting can result in damage or loss of airplane surfaces.
A

A. True

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8
Q
  1. Because of possible damage due to sonic airflow at certain angles of attack, do not extend flaps above feet pressure altitude.
A

A. 20,000

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9
Q
  1. The takeoff and emergency procedures portion will be reviewed either just prior to
A

Engine Start or Takeoff

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10
Q
  1. Based on ________________________________, the aircraft commander may elect single pilot preflight operations where one pilot proceeds to the aircraft with the boom operator to perform the exterior safety check and begin the interior preflight checks, while the other pilot accomplishes additional duties (obtaining weather brief, etc.).
A

A. Operational Need or B. Mission Requirements

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11
Q
  1. All crewmembers will inform the pilot when checking off and/or on interphone and will be on interphone during:
A

A. All ground operations (including engine starts) except when accomplishing crew duties that preclude use of interphone. B. Formation flying, rendezvous and air refueling. C. Flight under weather conditions and all takeoffs and landings D. All of the above.

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12
Q
  1. Because of the magnitude of interrelated aerodynamic effects, flying two airplanes in close vertical proximity is .
A

C. Not safe

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13
Q
  1. Speed brakes are NOT used during approach and landing flare.
A

A. True

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14
Q
  1. All snow and ice accumulations of any significant degree must be removed from the airplane surfaces prior to takeoff.
A

A. True

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15
Q
  1. If the ___________ is not down and in the detent, ensure that the _____________ is installed. Notify the aircraft commander and maintenance personnel immediately. No further preflight actions will be accomplished until maintenance personnel correct the situation and confirm that the aircraft is in preflight configuration.
A

C. Landing Gear Lever; nose gear ground downlock and release handle

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16
Q
  1. The pilot will ensure that no personnel are standing near ____________ when pressurizing the left hydraulic system. Sudden closing of these doors could cause serious injury to personnel who may be in the path of the doors.
A

B. Wheel Well Doors

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17
Q
  1. The copilot ANN DIM switch on the Copilot Overhead Light Panel must be out of the DIM (full ccw) position for the _________ to operate. Ensure that the copilot ANN DIM switch is out of the DIM (full ccw) position prior to closing the crew entry/cargo door. Once the crew entry/cargo doors are closed the DIM switch can be adjusted as required.
A

D. FDR

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18
Q
  1. Possible causes of a _____________ are engaging the pilot’s interphone (on the yoke or the tiller), pressing the pilot’s FD ANN TEST button, a cold hydraulic system, the lowflow capability of the auxiliary hydraulic pump, and/or the use of other hydraulicallyactuated systems during the EFAS test; in this case, the EFAS self-test is _____________ indicating a system failure.
A

B. Failed EFAS test; incorrectly

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19
Q
  1. Speed Brake Warning horn sounds when lever is pulled back more than __ degrees out of the full forward position.
A

C. 2

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20
Q
  1. Proper adjustment of the __________ is especially critical for takeoff, approach, and landing where full deflection of control surfaces may be required for safe operation of the airplane. To prevent inadvertent movement of the seat, ensure that the ______________ is in the down and latched position.
A

C. Seat and Rudder Pedals; seat horizontal adjustment lever

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21
Q
  1. If an APU with an operable generator is not available, and external power is not used, the start can be made on battery power only. During this procedure, all engine ___________ gages are inoperative until a generator is on the line and 28V AC power is available.
A

A. Oil Pressure and Fuel Flow

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22
Q
  1. Copilot checks for initial fuel flow peak of ___ pph (before ignition) and approximately ___ pph after ignition. If fuel flow exceeds ___ pph before lightoff, a hot start can occur.
A

B. 300-680; 900; 680

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23
Q
  1. For temperatures _________, failure to set the engine start switch to IGNITION may result in engine flameout when the throttles are retarded during taxi operations.
A

D. At and below 0C (32F)

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24
Q
  1. Items 18. thru 29. of the Starting Engines and Before Taxi checklist may be accomplished while waiting for the ground crew report.
A

A. True

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25
Q
  1. Minimum taxiway width is feet.
A

B. 74

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26
Q
  1. Do not taxi or tow an aircraft within feet of obstructions without wing walkers monitoring the clearance between the aircraft and the obstruction. Do not taxi aircraft closer than feet to any obstruction.
A

B. 25, 10

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27
Q
  1. When taxi clearance is doubtful, use wing walkers.
A

A. One or more

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28
Q
  1. Make every effort to minimize the potential for engine FOD. Crews should:
A

A. Carefully review airfield layout paying particular attention to taxi routes, turn requirements, and areas for potential FOD. B. Minimize power settings during all taxi operations. C. Where possible, avoid taxi operations that position an engine over an unprepared or un-swept surface. If unavoidable, leave the engine in idle (to the maximum extent possible) until the engine is over an improved surface. D. All of the Above

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29
Q
  1. What is the minimum taxi spacing during formation:
A

A. Safe interval

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30
Q
  1. During night taxi operations, marshallers will have ______________ in each hand.
A

C. An Illuminated Wand

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31
Q
  1. Air Force pilots may passively participate in LAHSO (land or take-off when another aircraft has been given a LAHSO clearance). PIC is the final authority whether to takeoff, land or continue a touch-and-go when a merging aircraft has received a LAHSO clearance.
A

A. True

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32
Q
  1. When must aircraft anti-collision lights be displayed?
A

C. From just prior to engine start until engine shutdown

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33
Q
  1. You are approaching another aircraft on the ground head-on. What should you do?
A

C. Alter the course to the right to remain well clear, or stop.

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34
Q
  1. When taxi clearance is doubtful and wing walkers are not available, .
A

C. deplane one or more crewmembers to maintain obstruction clearance and provide marshalling using AFI 11-218 signals

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35
Q
  1. In those situations where runway/taxi conditions or performance considerations are such that safety could be compromised,
A

A. A static takeoff should be made.

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36
Q
  1. For a takeoff, approach or landing with fuel in any main tank below ______ pounds, open all tank to engine manifold valves. Open the line valve for all takeoffs when gross weight is greater than _______ pounds. Ensure line valve is closed for all takeoffs when gross weight is at or below _______ pounds.
A

C. 10,500; 200,000; 200,000

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37
Q
  1. Exercise caution during throttle application to prevent asymmetrical thrust. Engine thrust should be stabilized at a minimum of ________ prior to advancing throttles to the takeoff thrust setting.
A

B. 40% N1

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38
Q
  1. Uncommanded stabilizer trim input is a safety-of-flight issue. Terminate the mission (and in flight, land as soon as practicable) any time uncommanded stabilizer trim input is encountered.
A

A. True

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39
Q
  1. If any engine does not reach the charted N1 setting , the engine is not providing the required rated thrust, and the takeoff shall be aborted.
A

D. Between 40 and 80 knots

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40
Q
  1. Illumination of the amber EGT caution light near or after S1 indicates that EGT may be approaching the takeoff limit. This indication is for crew awareness and does not indicate an engine operating limit has been exceeded. Continue normal operation and monitor EGT to prevent exceeding the takeoff EGT limit.
A

A. True

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41
Q
  1. When _____ throttle is advanced near OPEN, the warning horn sounds if the speed brake lever is more than 2 degrees out of the full forward position, if the flap lever is at or near the 0, 40, or 50 degree detent, or the leading edge flaps are not fully extended.
A

C. No. 3

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42
Q
  1. Sudden reversal of rudder direction, at high rudder deflections, due to improper rudder application or abrupt release, can result in ____________.
A

D. Overstressing the vertical fin.

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43
Q
  1. If stabilizer trim has moved from setting selected during the TAXI checklist,
A

A. Abort the mission

44
Q
  1. When experiencing a loss shear on takeoff, anticipate a loss in indicated airspeed and altitude. This situation is potentially dangerous if the airplane is close to the ground. If this loss is expected to be ___ knots or more, the takeoff shall be delayed, if possible, until more favorable conditions exist.
A

B. 15

45
Q
  1. When the airplane is definitely airborne and a positive rate of climb is established (vertical velocity pointer above zero), retract the landing gear.
A

A. True

46
Q
  1. Follow Dash One procedures for the climb mode selected until reaching obstacle clearance height, whichever is higher.
A

C. 2000 feet above the runway

47
Q
  1. Leave ignition on if engine anti-ice is on. If anti-ice is not required, turn starter switches off
A

B. False

48
Q
  1. Do not climb at a speed more than the recommended three engine climbout speed.
A

B. False

49
Q
  1. Maneuvering at speeds below three engine climbout speed plus ___ knots is not recommended. A bank angle of 30 degrees at climbout speed with flaps down could reduce climb capability by as much as ____fpm.
A

D. 50, 400

50
Q
  1. If airplane is to remain in closed traffic after takeoff, thrust will be adjusted to climb out at the same speed to be used on the downwind leg, and a rate of climb of approximately feet per minute.
A

B. 1000

51
Q
  1. If an engine failure occurs during climbout, continue to follow the command bars. With inoperative command bars, if an engine failure occurs during or immediately after takeoff, __________________________________; if an engine failure occurs after attaining three engine climbout speed, do not reduce airspeed but continue to climb at the speed attained at the point of engine failure.
A
  1. If an engine failure occurs during climbout, continue to follow the command bars. With inoperative command bars, if an engine failure occurs during or immediately after takeoff, __________________________________; if an engine failure occurs after attaining three engine climbout speed, do not reduce airspeed but continue to climb at the speed attained at the point of engine failure.
52
Q
  1. Flap retraction in a turn is not recommended. Retracting flaps from 20 degrees to 0 reduces available lateral (outboard ailerons) control and increases initial buffet speed considerably and rapidly as the trailing edge and leading edge flaps retract.
A

A. True

53
Q
  1. After setting climb thrust, no further throttle adjustment should be necessary during climb if the power management control (PMC) system is NOT operating.
A
  1. After setting climb thrust, no further throttle adjustment should be necessary during climb if the power management control (PMC) system is NOT operating.
54
Q
  1. A departure alternate is required if weather is below landing minimums for the lowest suitable approach (at departure aerodrome). To qualify as a departure alternate, the airfield must be:
A

A. Within 30 minutes flying time, the existing weather is equal to or better than the published approach minimums and forecast to remain so until 1 hour after takeoff. OR
C. Within two hours flying time, the existing weather is at least 500-1 above the lowest compatible published approach minimums, but not less than 600-2 (precision) or 800-2 (non-precision) and forecast to remain so for 1 hour after ETA at the alternate.

55
Q
  1. Manual damping of dutch roll is to be accomplished only with ________________.
A

C. Lateral (aileron) control

56
Q
  1. For an unplanned thunderstorm penetration, use 280 KIAS or cruise Mach and do NOT change the ____________.
A

B. Stabilizer Trim setting

57
Q
  1. No HF transmissions are to be made from a tanker or receiver when a receiver is in contact or about to make contact and all HF equipment must be switched to STANDBY/MONITOR when possible.
A

A. True

58
Q
  1. For all _____________ AARs, do not transmit on the HF radio when the receiver is within ½ NM; this includes datalink.
A

D. foreign aircraft

59
Q
  1. Pilots must use extreme care in those cases when the speed brakes are required for deceleration. Ascertain that the receiver prior to speed brake actuation.
A

D. will not overrun the tanker

60
Q
  1. For airplanes equipped with standard speed booms: If airspeed must be increased above _____ KIAS/.85 Mach, the pilot will notify the boom operator to stow the boom. A. 325 B. 330 C. 335 D. 340
A

C. 335

61
Q
  1. During any boom air refueling which requires the indicated airspeed to be less than 220 KIAS, __________ for dry contacts, to preclude fuel siphoning from the forward body tank, causing unexpected CG changes.
A

D. keep the A/R line valve closed

62
Q
  1. When a receiver is in or near the contact position, the pilot __________________ at the first indication of autopilot malfunction, including an inadvertent disconnect, if accompanied by out-of-trim control forces.
A

D. will initiate a breakaway

63
Q
  1. Air refueling for the receiver that required a controlled tension disconnect will be terminated except during fuel emergencies or when continuation of air refueling is dictated by operational necessity.
A

A. True

64
Q
  1. Unless dictated otherwise by ATP-56 (Part 5, Annex ZE) or by mission requirements, tankers will establish the applicable contact air refueling airspeed before the receiver reaches ______. If the tanker is off airspeed by more than _____ knots, the receiver pilot will be informed prior to tanker airspeed changes.
A

A. 1NM, 5

65
Q
  1. Following an inadvertent brute force disconnect, air refueling .
A

D. will be terminated except during fuel emergencies or when continuation of air refueling is dictated by operational necessity

66
Q
  1. The position approximately 50 ft behind and slightly below the tanker boom nozzle where the receiver stabilizes with zero rate of closure before being cleared to the contact position is called:
A

D. Either A or B

67
Q
  1. Tanker responsibilities during a Rendezvous Delta is (are) to:
A

A. Be at the base AAR altitude. B. Enter the refueling holding orbit from any direction. C. Attempt to arrive at least 15 min before the RVCT and, normally, establish a left- hand holding pattern using the RVCP as an anchor point. D. All of the above

68
Q
  1. When planning to conduct a Rendezvous G, a common track length equivalent to ____ min flying time should be planned to allow for tanker descent to RV FL/altitude/height, visual acquisition and timing corrections.
A

C. 15

69
Q
  1. Tankers will only refuel those aircraft listed in ATP-56 or specifically authorized by HQ AMC/A3V. Receiver aircraft not previously certified for refueling operations (includes foreign variants of US-produced aircraft) must be certified for technical and operational compatibility in accordance with USAF regulations prior to refueling.
A

A. True

70
Q
  1. Unless otherwise directed, an altimeter setting of _____ is to be used for AAR operations at or above transition altitude, or when over water and operating in accordance with ICAO procedures. When not operating on standard pressure settings, tanker crews _____ to include the altimeter setting in the RV Initial Call.
A

B. 29.92, are required

71
Q
  1. Tanker pilots will ensure the boom operator notifies receiver pilots when any axis of the autopilot is not used. If a tanker pilot or receiver pilot is required to fly autopilot-off for qualification training, the pilot flying the opposing aircraft will be qualified.
A

A. True

72
Q
  1. The tanker will note the receiver’s distance when ________ through the turn back to the ARCP. This is the best time to determine if an overrun condition exists and the best time for visual sighting. Except for overtaking point parallel rendezvous, the distance to the receiver should be approximately 1/3 of the turn range when _______ through the turn.
A

C. Halfway, halfway

73
Q
  1. Tanker aircrew will advise ATC of tanker and receiver end aerial refueling altitude requests at least five (5) minutes prior to AREX.
A

A. True

74
Q
  1. After experiencing two-way communications failure while conducting aerial refueling, tanker aircraft will discontinue AAR and continue flight by doing what?
A

A. Squawk code 7600 for at least two (2) minutes prior to exiting track or anchor B. Exit the track or anchor at the highest altitude specified in the AAR clearance C. Proceed in accordance with “Procedures for Two-Way Radio Failure IFR-VFR” set forth in the DoD Flight Information Handbook D. All of the above

75
Q
  1. Normally, tanker orbit patterns are located within a rectangle, 60nm long, 25nm wide with left turns. While established in and awaiting their receivers, tanker aircraft:
A

B. Must receive clearance from the box to the IP, if airspace is desired.

76
Q
  1. The crew must closely monitor the airplane CG during reverse air refueling. The aft CG limit can be quickly exceeded in airplanes operating at gross weights.
A

A. Light

77
Q
  1. Routing and altitudes(s) of aircraft established on an approved ALTRV shall not be changed except in the interest of safety of flight or as outlined in Chapter 3 of JO 7610.4P.
A

A. True

78
Q
  1. To avoid an automatic rejection of the logon request, the flight crew ensures that the flightspecific information entered into the aircraft system is the same as the corresponding details filed .
A

D. In the flight plan

79
Q
  1. After obtaining and reading back the clearance, the pilot should monitor the forward estimate for oceanic entry, and if this changes by pass a revised estimate to ATC.
A

C. 3

80
Q
  1. Crews will use ___________________ for oceanic crossings.
A

B. Only the MNPS Oceanic Checklist and the Oceanic Expanded Checklist

81
Q
  1. If operating on an ALTRV and mission is to be delayed beyond the AVANA time, rescheduling the ALTRV,
A

A. Will normally be in 24-hour increments after the original schedule. OR
C. Can be in less than the time specified above, subject to CARF discretion and after approval from the affected ARTCC/CERAP/HCF.

82
Q
  1. While flying the oceanic route, crews will maintain situational awareness to include positional awareness and accurate fuel readings. In order to assist with this, crews will:
A

A. When approaching each waypoint on a Category I route, recheck coordinates for the next waypoints. B. Approximately 10 minutes after passing each oceanic waypoint, record and plot the aircraft position and time on the chart, and ensure compliance with courses and ETA tolerances. C. If a revised clearance is received, record and plot the new route of flight on the chart. D. All of the above

83
Q
  1. An ATSU cannot establish a CPDLC connection without first completing the AFN logon.
A

A. True

84
Q
  1. If a logon request has been initiated with incorrect aircraft identification and aircraft registration, the logon process will fail. The flight crew will need to .
A

D. Correct the information and reinitiate the logon request.

85
Q
  1. Approximately minutes after exiting CPDLC and/or ADS-C service areas, the flight crew should ensure there are no active CPDLC or ADS-C connections.
A

A. 15

86
Q
  1. Experience has shown that many of the track-keeping errors in the NAT MNPS Airspace occur as a result of crews programming the navigation system(s) with incorrect waypoint data. These are referred to as Waypoint Insertion Errors. They frequently originate from:
A

A. Failure to observe the principles of checking waypoints to be inserted in the navigation systems, against the ATC cleared route B. Failure to load waypoint information carefully C. Failure to cross-check on-board navigation systems D. Any combination of the above

87
Q
  1. Steep idle thrust approaches, or all approach angles and rates of descent requiring large changes in pitch attitude during the landing flare, will be avoided.
A

A. True

88
Q
  1. For approach purposes, the KC-135R is considered a Category __ airplane. In those cases where the speed for a circling approach exceeds 166 knots, Category __ minima will be applied.
A

B. D, E

89
Q
  1. A speed brake lever position of less than ___ degrees is not recommended, due to a tendency to over-control at these settings.
A

C. 40

90
Q
  1. For all FMS approaches, at 2 NM prior to the final approach fix ensure system is in the __________ mode (as indicated by the blinking _____________ CDU annunciation), or discontinue the approach.
A

C. Approach, <>

91
Q
  1. If multiple instrument approach patterns are flown in the clean configuration, maintain a minimum of ___________ KIAS until crossing the initial approach fix or turning base leg if receiving radar vectors.
A

D. VREF +70

92
Q
  1. Unless fuel consumption is a factor, hold at ________ for all gross weights up to 170,000 pounds. At gross weights above 170,000 pounds, use _______________________ knots as holding speed.
A

A. 220 KIAS, best endurance plus 10

93
Q
  1. Occupants of the pilot and copilot seats may remove the shoulder harness during cruise flight, but shall fasten them prior to .
A

A. Air refueling rendezvous AND B. Descent for landing

94
Q
  1. As a minimum, the pilot flying the approach will brief the crew on the planned descent rate, DH/MDA/VDP, missed approach procedures and assign crew responsibilities for backing up the pilot flying the airplane .
A

D. If an unplanned go-around occurs

95
Q
  1. From 500’ AGL to the runway, the PF will execute a go-around/missed approach when which of the following parameters are exceeded.
A

A. Airspeed: +10/-5 knots from target B. Bank Angle: +/- 15 degrees C. Rate of Descent: +/- 300 FPM from target D. Any of the above

96
Q
  1. During the descent checklist, an accurate check of the electric and hydraulic systems consists of the pilot checking switches and pressure in the left, right, reserve brake and powered rudder systems while the copilot checks electrical power system indicators and hydraulic quantities.
A

A. True

97
Q
  1. When landing with less than full flaps, avoid excessive flare with resultant floating in an attempt for a smooth landing. Make a normal flare and touchdown at
A

A. Threshold speed minus 10 knots

98
Q
  1. Application of _______ brakes during landing ground roll may override the _______ antiskid brake system and lock the airplane brakes resulting in possible blown tires or reverted rubber hydroplaning.
A

C. Co-Pilot, Pilot

99
Q
  1. Engine acceleration from ground idle to touch and go target thrust may require up to 20 seconds. Attempting a go-around after the engines have decelerated to ground idle results in an extended ground run. Consider aborting the takeoff if the engines go to ground idle.
A

A. True

100
Q
  1. Touchdown with a crab angle and with wings level may result in a rapid rising of the _________wing and may cause the ______engine nacelles to drag on the runway.
A

D. Upwind, Downwind

101
Q
  1. Do not allow the bank angle at touchdown (4 to 6 degrees pitch attitude) to exceed degrees due to possibility of dragging an outboard engine nacelle.
A

C. 8

102
Q
  1. During landing ground roll, do not allow airplane to bank beyond ____ degrees due to possibility of dragging an engine nacelle.
A

A. 4

103
Q
  1. Prior to initiating turns, visually check for other traffic. The first turn should not be initiated until
A

A. Reaching minimum traffic pattern (maneuver) speed B. A safe altitude C. Passing the end of the runway D. All of the above

104
Q
  1. Remove crab _______________, maintaining a slight wing low attitude into the wind, as necessary to counteract drift.
A

B. Prior to touchdown

105
Q
  1. N1 settings, pattern, approach, and reference speeds will be recomputed when: (1) Gross weight changes >/= ________ pounds (2) Temperature changes >/= ___ (5F) (3) Pressure altitude changes >/= ___ feet (4) Airplane configuration changes (5) Changes in wind conditions require an adjustment to the charted speeds
A

C. 10,000; 3C; 500 feet

106
Q
  1. During a go-around, the minimum airspeed for retracting flaps to ___ degrees is flaps 50 Vth speed.
A

C. 30

KC135 EOC Test Questions (2 decks)

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