KC135 EOC Test Questions Flashcards
Do not operate the ________ and the _______ simultaneously. Slow operation of the gear with reduced climbout performance will result.
forward A/R pumps; landing gear
In the AUTO position, an AUX HYD pump will automatically go off when system pressure reaches _______, and comes on when the pressure drops between _______ psi below this value and _______ psi.
2900+/- 150; 200 psi; 2400 psi
In the AUTO position, an aux HYD pump will automatically turn on when system pressure reaches approx. _________.
2400 psi
Normal reserve brake pressure is________.
1300-3050 psi
Normally the aux pumps are off during flight because…?
they draw fluid from the main system return lines.
When using the left aux pump to recharge the reserve brake system, the HYD fluid supply is drawn directly from where?
main system return lines
HYD pump isolation in excess of ________ can result in self-destruction of the pump.
5 minutes
When using the autopilot pitch knob, the pilot can select from _______ pitch nose up to _______ pitch nose down.
20 degrees; 20 degrees
When flying an autopilot ILS approach, disengage the autopilot at an altitude not lower than the ________________ because of the larger control forces required to overcome the autopilot.
published minimums
An autopilot pitchup malfunction could cause a stall within _______________ and is therefore considered the most serious autopilot malfunction.
3 seconds
When the autopilot turn knob is out of the detent position, the __________________ switches cannot be engaged.
ROLL engage and HDG SEL mode
Once the aircraft is airborne, before engaging the autopilot, you must verify the ___________________.
the turn knob is in the detent position
To prevent damage to distribution ducts, do not operate the alternate pressurization system in ____________ mode for and extended period of time.
full increase
The APU HYD accumulators are pressurized by _________________.
the right hydraulic system (left, if crossover used)
If the APU surge bleed pulsing occurs after the RDY light comes on, ________________.
shut down the APUs
Bleed air for the APU cannot reach the air conditioning pack if the __________ is not open.
A/C crossover valve switch
Ensure the ram air inlet scoop and outlet ducts are open and clear before __________ the airplane with the APUs.
heating
Once EWO mode is selected, the APUs have to be ________________ to return to any other operational mode.
shut down and restarted
The basic AC electrical system is powered by ___ engine-driven ____________ generators.
three; integrated drive
TR Bus #1 supplies power to the switched DC bus when the battery switch is in the ___________ position.
NORMAL
If the copilots instrument power off light comes on or the copilots instruments are operating erratically, set the copilots instrument power switch to ____________.
EMERGENCY
When generators are paralleled, a difference in __________ readings may indicate a generator malfunction.
ammeter
With engines running, an IDG failure light comes on. A possible cause is _________________________.
IDG oil temp is too high (400 +/- 10F) or the oil press is too low (drops below 100 psi)
Do not reset any ____________________________________. if open, until proper inspection and repairs have been made.
115/200 volt AC fuel boost pumps or fuel override pump C/B
Never attempt to work on equipment using AC power. Touching any one wire while in contact with the aircraft can _______________.
be deadly
You’ve just disconnected an IDG, but the DISC caution light failed to illuminate. What should you do next?
Test the light, check C/B (close if open), then shutdown engine using the engine fire/failure during flight checklist
After starting, the starter switch should be moved from start to _________ when the outside air temperature is ________________.
ignition; 0C (32F) or below
Damage to the starter and accessory drive can occur if starter is engaged with the engine at or above _________.
63% N2
_____________ is the engine parameter that indicates thrust.
N1 RPM
If an engine starter valve open light remains on when the starter switch is set to OFF on engine start, or comes on during ground operations, immediately place the throttle for the affected engine to CUTOFF and ___________________.
close the affected engine bleed valve
Starter damage can occur if starter is reengaged ___________.
above 25% N2
If any engine remains in flight idle after touchdown, the __________________ should be shut down as soon as practicable.
outboard engines
During engine start, at temperatures at or below 0 degrees C, set applicable starter switch to ________ at 50% N2 RPM.
IGNITION
Except during EWO, use the _________________ procedure when taking off with an inoperative PMC
static takeoff
The EGT caution light comes on when the temperature increases above _____________.
870 C (+/- 2C)
The airplane altitude/differential pressure scale on the cabin pressure controller shows the ________________________________________________________.
maximum actual airplane altitude for the command cabin altitudes selected by the dial pointer at an 8.6 psi pressure differential
The cabin manual pressure control knob can be used to depressurize the aircraft by rotating ___________ to the ______________ position.
counterclockwise; full decrease
The recommended maximum cabin altitude to maintain conditions for efficient crew operations is _____________ for day and ___________ for night.
8,000 ft; 5,000 ft
The _________ position of the cabin pressure test valve handle locks out the cabin pressure controller so all control of the cabin pressure is through the manual pressure controller.
CLOSED
When operating for extended periods at altitudes of 20,000 feet or below, the recommended cabin altitude for normal climb and cruise is ________________.
field PA plus 500 ft
It is important not to operate the air conditioning system with right alternate pressure switch in ___________ for extended periods of time. Distribution ducts will be exposed to high temperature bleed air and ___________.
full increase; overheat
The cabin pressure controller is used in conduction with the ______________ to automatically control the cabin pressure.
outflow valves
The CBN PRS warning light illuminates if the cabin altitude is approximately ____________; it goes out when cabin altitude descends to __________.q
12,000ft (+/- 1,000ft); 9,500ft
For takeoffs, approaches, and landings with fuel in any main tanks below ___________, fuel should be present in all main tanks, all 8 boost pumps must be ON and all tank to engine manifold valves must be open.
10,500 lbs
The _________ hydraulic system operated the forward air refueling pumps, and the __________ hydraulic system operates the aft refueling pumps.
left; right
Do not operate ______________ and _______________ simultaneously when feeding the engine from the body tanks.
A/R pumps; override pumps
Fuel valves require ___________ to operate normally.
DC power
Boost pumps are operated ___________, air refueling pumps are operated __________, and override pumps are operated ____________.
electrically; hydraulically; electrically
The engine can be fed directly from any fuel tank or tanks in the airplane except the ____________________.
reserve tanks and upper deck tank
If positive boost pump pressure is not available to supply fuel to the engines during flight ___________________.
engine flameout can occur
Override pumps will not be operated dry for a period exceeding _________.
5 minutes
When burning fuel from the center wing tank, operate with _____________________ when the fuel level in the tanks falls below ______________. (Above 35,000’)
2 override pumps; 10,500 lbs
If you deviate from your target altitude by 220’ or more, which aural alert will you receive from the altitude alerter?
“Altitude”
In RVSM airspace, the aircraft should not be allowed to overshoot or undershoot the cleared FL by more than _______.
150 ft
____________ are prohibited below 1,000ft AGL.
Speed brakes
What can you select at the IACP if you want to talk to NAV but don’t want to disturb the others?
LCL ICS
Do not use the speed brakes below what altitude on approach?
1,000ft AGL
What sources can the bearing pointer point to?
VOR1, VOR2, TACAN, FMS
When capturing a VOR, TACAN, FMS course when will the flight director capture?
5 degrees (inner dot)
When capturing an ILS, when will the flight director capture?
outer reference dot (1.5-3 degrees)
What radios are not Datalink capable?
UHF radios
____________ by rough air or lateral directional control inputs.
Dutch roll is usually induced (With SYD not available)
The rudder goes from high to low pressure when the ___________________.
flaps are set to the up position
If only the outboard flaps are lowered, ______________________________.
the aircraft will pitch down slightly
________ cannot be tuned by the CDU
Com 1
If looking at the fuel limits page, you see CW [1], when will the fuel low light illuminate?
1,000lbs
When will the INS ALTN insert key do?
It will insert the alternate flight plan into the active flight plan. (It won’t replace the current flight plan)
When will you get a containment warning flag?
when ANP exceeds RNP.
What is RNP?
Defined parameters for lateral and longitudinal accuracy.
With rudder power off, what is the max deflection?
With rudder power on, what is the max deflection?
13 degrees = rudder power off
25 degrees = rudder power on
During preflight, how many units of trim does the stabilizer need?
6-11 units nose up
IMFD question asking what is the highlighted message?
UTC/ANNUN
At high gross weights with flaps up, full stall occurs __________ below initial buffet speed and approximately ______________ below this speed for flaps down.
15-20 knots; 10 knots
The pilot and copilot AOA indicators ________________ and indicate different readings when the airflow around the AOA probes varies, as in a sideslip.
operate independently
