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Private Pilot > Strand 3 Ground > Flashcards

Strand 3 Ground Flashcards

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Charter Pilot (Part 135) - Oral flashcards
1
Q

What is PAVE?

A

Pilot
Aircraft
enVironment
External Pressure

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2
Q

What is PAVE checklist used for?

A

Assess Risk Management

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3
Q

What is DECIDE?

A 
Detect problem
Estimate need for change
Choose desired outcome
Identify controls needed
Do the action
Evaluate
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4
Q

What is the DECIDE acronym used for?

A

Aeronautical Decision Making

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5
Q

What is a flight review?

A

61.56

1 hour flight training and 1 hour ground training needed every 2 years by a CFI.

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6
Q

What is a SODA?

A

Statement of Demonstrated Ability i.e. amputee

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7
Q

What is a special issuance?

A

Medical condition that changes that you must be seen for more frequently

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8
Q

What are the 4 types of hypoxia?

A

Hypoxic
Hypemic
Stagnent
Histotoxic

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9
Q

What is Hypoxic Hypoxia?

A

Result of insufficient oxygen available to the body

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10
Q

What are some symptoms of hypoxia?

A

Confusion, bluish skin, difficulty breathing, fatigue, Headache

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11
Q

What is Hypemic Hypoxia?

A

Lack of oxygen deficiency in the blood

CO2 poisoning and blood donation

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12
Q

What is Stagnant Hypoxia?

A

Inability to move blood around body

Typical for fighter pilots

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13
Q

What is histotoxic hypoxia?

A

Usually caused by drugs or alcohol

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14
Q

What are the Oxygen regulations and altitudes?

A

91.211

12,500ft - 14,000ft oxygen required if over 30 minutes

14,000+ ft. oxygen required for crew

15,000+ ft. oxygen required for all passengers

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15
Q

What are the systems used for personal orientation?

A

Vestibular
Visual
Somatosensory

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16
Q

What is the Vestibular system?

A

Inner Ear canals

Contains semicircular canals that are able to detect movement

Endolymph is the liquid that moves in the canals that touches hair cells which the brain is able to tell what movement is happening

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17
Q

What is the visual system?

A

Our eyes

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18
Q

What is the somatosensory system?

A

Nerves

Such as feeling, hearing, smelling

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19
Q

What are “Leans”?

A

When you enter a turn banked too slowly, the fluid in your eyes won’t start moving so it will trick your brain into thinking your straight and level

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20
Q

What is Coriolis Illusion?

A

When you’re in a constant turn for a long time, the fluid in your ears stop moving and will trick your brain that your straight and level while still turning

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21
Q

What is the somatogravic illusion?

A

When you accelerate quickly, it will make you feel like you are pitching the nose up. This may result in you pushing the nose forward and enter a nose low dive attitude.

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22
Q

What is an inversion illusion?

A

If you pitch down too quickly from a climb to straight and level, you can get the illusion that you’re tumbling backwards.

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23
Q

What is the elevator illusion?

A

This happens when you have an updraft and the aircraft is accelerated vertically. You will feel like you need to push the nose forward

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24
Q

What is Autokinesis?

A

When you stare at a light for too long, your brain will trick you into thinking it’s moving

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25
Q

Why would you not want to fly when you are sick?

A

Ear infections or sinus problem can cause excruciating pain when you fly and change altitudes with different pressures.

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26
Q

What are two types of stress and fatigue?

A

Acute - nervous for a test

Chronic - long term, more serious

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27
Q

What is a controlled scuba dive?

A

A dive that goes to a depth where you need decompression stops

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28
Q

What is an uncontrolled dive?

A

A dive that doesn’t go down that deep, just a typical vacation free dive

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29
Q

What are the rules regarding scuba dives?

A

Controlled Dives - 24 hours regardless of the altitude

Uncontrolled Dives - 12 hours below 8000 feet, 24 hours any other altitude

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30
Q

What are the hazardous attitudes?

A 
Anti-authority
Impulsivity
Invulnerability
Macho
Resignation
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31
Q

What is Anti-Authority?

A

Not liking being told what to do

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32
Q

What is Impulsivity?

A

Doing something immediately, without evaluating

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33
Q

What is Invulnerability?

A

Denying that something bad will happen to them

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34
Q

What is Macho?

A

Pilots who think they are better than everybody

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35
Q

What is Resignation?

A

When somebody thinks there is no difference in what happens to them

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36
Q

What are cones and rods?

A

They are photoreceptors that lie on the retina.

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37
Q

What is a cone cell?

A

Cone cells are used for daytime and on the outer rim. They do receive color under light conditions

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38
Q

What is a rod cell?

A

Rods are use during nighttime and are on the inner portion. They do not process color

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39
Q

What happens after the light reaches the rods and cones?

A

The optic nerve transfers the message/sensation to the brain

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40
Q

What are 3 types of vision?

A

Scotopic - Vision with rods
Photopic - Vision with cones
Mesopic - Both cones and rods

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41
Q

What are the night vision illusions?

A

Autokinesis
False Horizon
Black Hole effect

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42
Q

What are lights required to fly at night?

A

Position lights (red & green) , anti-collision lights (strobe)

Landing lights when flying for hire

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43
Q

What are the runway edge lights?

A

White, then amber last 2000 feet

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44
Q

What color are the runway centerline lights?

A

White, until the last 3,000 ft of runway they alternate red and white, then just red for the last 1,000 feet.

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45
Q

What is the rotating beacon at a civilian airport?

A

White green

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46
Q

What is the rotating beacon at a seaport?

A

White yellow

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47
Q

What is the rotating beacon at a military airport?

A

White white green

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48
Q

What is the rotating beacon at a heliport?

A

White yellow green

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49
Q

What acronym can we use to ensure the airplane is able to fly?

A

D.I.E.

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50
Q

What Documents are needed for flight?

A 
Airworthiness Certificate
Registration
Radio License (Int'l only)
Operating Manual
Weight & Balance
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51
Q

When does the registration expire?

A

Every 3 years

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52
Q

When does Airworthiness Certificate expire?

A

It is valid as long as airplane is maintained properly

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53
Q

What Inspections are required for aircraft?

A 
Annual - 12 months (VFR & IFR)
VOR - 30 days (IFR)
Inspections - (Progressive, 100-hour)
Airworthiness Directives - as needed
Transponder - 24 months (VFR & IFR)
ELT - 12 months (VFR & IFR)
Static System - 24 months (IFR)
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54
Q

What maintenance program does UVU use?

A

Progressive maintenance that is every 50 hours and replaces annual inspection

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55
Q

What would we check to see if there is any un-airworthy equipment onboard?

A

91.205 - ATOMATOFLAMES
Minimum Equipment List - AFM
Airworthiness Directives
Personal Comfort

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56
Q

Would you be able to fly with in-operative equipment?

A

91.213

Remove/Deactive Equipment
Placard
Log

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57
Q

What is a special flight permit?

A

Allows an airplane which does not meet airworthiness standards to be flown, usually to a maintenance facility.

Obtained from a local FSDO

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58
Q

Can a private pilot do preventative Maintenance?

A

Yes. Part 43 appendix A

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59
Q

What is the list of vestibular illusions?

A

ICEFLAGS

Inversion
Coriolis Illusion
Elevator
False Horizon
Leans
Autokinesis
Graveyard Spiral
Somatosensory Illusion
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60
Q

How would you check the fuel system?

A

Sump and look for contaminants and color, check fuel quantity, manipulate in flight using the fuel selector

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61
Q

What color gas is AVGAS80?

A

Red

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62
Q

What color gas is AVGAS100

A

Green

63
Q

What color gas is 100LL?

A

Blue

64
Q

What color gas is JetA?

A

White/clear

65
Q

What is the fuel quantity for the DA-40?

A

40 Gallons short range

50 Gallons long range

66
Q

What is the max imbalance of fuel tanks for the DA-40?

A

10 gallons short range tanks

8 Gallons long range tank

67
Q

What type of engine is on the DA-40?

A

Lycoming IO-360

68
Q

Explain the power plant of the DA-40?

A

Fuel Injected, Horizontally opposed, Air cooled, 4 cylinder, 4 stroke

69
Q

How many spark plugs does the DA-40 have?

A

8, 2 per cylinder

70
Q

What is the DA-40’s horsepower?

A

180 HP at 2700 RPM

160 HP at 2400 RPM

71
Q

What is the size of the Lycoming engine?

A

360 cubic inches of displacement

72
Q

What is Pre-Ignition?

A

When carbon deposits that get hot and cause ignition stage out of order

73
Q

What is Detonation?

A

Explosion rather than combustion, can happen by using wrong fuel

74
Q

What are the 4 strokes for in the power plant?

A

Intake, compression, combustion, exhaust

75
Q

What is the airframe made out of?

A

Glass Fiber Reinforced Plastic

76
Q

What are wings, ailerons, and flaps made out of?

A

Glass Fiber Reinforced Plastic and carbon fiber reinforced plastic

77
Q

What is the internal portion of the airframe made out of?

A

Semi-Monocoque

AKA has stringers

78
Q

How are the flight controls moved?

A

Cables for rudders

Push rods for Ailerons and Elevator

79
Q

What is a ing planform?

A

How the wings are shaped, ours is a moderate taper

80
Q

What is a constant Speed Prop?

A

You can select an RPM depending on if you want more power or better efficiency

81
Q

How is the propellers blade pitch changed?

A

Hydraulically using engine oil

82
Q

What is underspending the prop?

A

When you climb, and you pitch the airplane up so it has to work harder. Engine will start to slow down due to centrifugal force

83
Q

What is overspending the prop?

A

By pitching down the engine will start to speed up and the flyweights will move outward due to centrifugal force

84
Q

What is the power generation from?

A

Alternator

85
Q

How much storage is the alternator?

A

28 Volts 70 Amps

86
Q

What is the power storage?

A

Battery

87
Q

What is the battery storage?

A

24 Volts 11 Amps

88
Q

How long will the emergency battery go for?

A

1.5 hours of power for attitude indicator and floodlights

89
Q

What are SAM?

A

Standby Instruments

90
Q

How long will the battery support the Standby Instruments?

A

1 hour of power

91
Q

How is Power Distributed?

A

Buses

92
Q

What are the Power Consumers?

A

Lights, radio, g1000

93
Q

How are Instruments ran?

A

ADC (Air Data Computer)

Pitot Static System

94
Q

What are the inputs to the ADC?

A

Ramp Pressure/ Pitot Pressure, Static Pressure, Alternate Static, Outside Air Temperature

95
Q

What are the outputs for the ADC?

A

Airspeed, Vertical Speed, Altimeter

96
Q

What is the AHRS?

A

Attitude and Heading Reference system

97
Q

What are the inputs for the AHRS?

A

Magnetometer, 3 Gyroscopes

98
Q

What are the outputs for the AHRS?

A

Heading indicator, attitude, turn coordinator

99
Q

What are the Magnetic Compass Errors?

A

Deviation and Variation

UNOS and ANDS

100
Q

When are forces equal?

A

Straight and level flight

Constant Airspeed Climb/Descent

101
Q

How is lift created?

A

Bernoullis principle

Newtons 3rd law

102
Q

What is Bernoullis principle?

A

Air moving over the curved upper surface of the wing will travel faster and thus produce less pressure than the slower air moving across the flatter underside of the wing.

103
Q

What is Newtons 3rd law?

A

For every action there is an equal and opposite reaction

104
Q

What are the 2 types of drag?

A

Induced and Parasite

105
Q

What is induced drag?

A

Byproduct of lift and induced decreases with more airspeed

106
Q

When is Wake Turbulence at its strongest?

A

Heavy, clean, and slow

107
Q

What is parasite drag?

A

Skin friction, like dirt or landing gear

Paradise drag increases with more airspeed

108
Q

What is stability?

A

How well a plane returns to equilibrium

USE PICTURE FOR EXAMPLE

109
Q

What is adverse yaw?

A

When turning to one side the airplane would want to yaw to the opposite

110
Q

What are differential Ailerons?

A

When the ailerons move upwards and downwards at different heights to balance adverse yaw

111
Q

What is load factor?

A

How much the wings are supporting expressed in G’s

112
Q

What is the load factor is the DA-40?

A

+3.8 G’s -> -1.52 G’s

113
Q

When does Load factor increase?

A

Climbing and turning while maintains straight and level flight

114
Q

Does Load factor increase or decrease stall speed?

A

Increase stall speed

115
Q

What is a stall?

A

Loss of lift caused by hitting critical angle of attack

116
Q

How do you recover from a stall?

A

Decrease angle of attack

117
Q

What is a spin?

A

When one wing is more stalled then the other, and it’s a condition of a stall

118
Q

What is the spin recovery?

A 
Throttle .. Idle
Rudder .. Full opposite
Elevator .. full forward 
Ailerons .. Neutral
Flaps .. UP

When rotation stops:

Rudder .. neutral
Elevator .. pull carefully
Normal flight attitude

119
Q

What are the left turning tenancies?

A

Torque
P-factor
Gyroscopic Precession
Spiraling Slipstream

120
Q

What is torque?

A

The right turning direction of the engine and propeller forces the left side of the plane down towards the runway. The left tire has more friction with the ground than the right tire making your aircraft want to turn left.

121
Q

What is P-factor?

A

The downward moving propeller blade takes a bigger bite of air than the upward moving blade

122
Q

When is P-factor most prounouced?

A

When flying at high angle of attack

Taking off in a tailwind airplane

123
Q

What is spiraling slipstream?

A

Happens when the prop is moving fast and the plane in moving slow like takeoff.

Air accelerated behind the prop goes into a corkscrew pattern and hits the left side of the aircraft tail creating a yaw motion.

124
Q

What is Coriolis Force?

A

Move meant of weather due to the Earths rotation

125
Q

What are the types of air masses?

A 
mP (Maritime Polar)
cP (Continental Polar)
mT (Maritime Tropic)
cT (Continental Tropic) 
cA (Continental Arctic)
126
Q

What is a stationary front?

A

A front that is stationary with a mixture of cold/warm front weather

Doesn’t move much and affects local weather for days

127
Q

What is an occluded front?

A

When cold air catches warm front

128
Q

What are the 2 types of occluded front?

A

Cold front Occlusion

Warm front occlusion

129
Q

What is a cold front occlusion?

A

Cold air from cold front is colder than the air below the warmer air

130
Q

What is a warm front occlusion?

A

Where cold air under warm front is colder than cold air from cold front

Worse weather

131
Q

What is humidity?

A

Percentage of moisture in the air

132
Q

What are the types of fog?

A

Upslope
Radiation
Advection
Steam

133
Q

What is upslope fog?

A

When fog forms after going up a mountain

134
Q

What is radiation fog?

A

forms overnight as the air near the ground cools and stabilizes. When the cooling causes the air to reach saturation, fog will form

135
Q

What is addiction fog?

A

Forms as warmer, moist air moves over a cold ground

136
Q

What is steam fog?

A

AKA sea smoke

Forms when cold, dry air moves over warm water

137
Q

What is stability? (weather)

A

How atmosphere resists vertical motioN

138
Q

What are the lapse rates

A

WET: 1 degree C / 1000 feet

DRY: 3 degrees C / 1000 feet

139
Q

What is condensation nuclei?

A

How rain/clouds form

Dirt int he middle of the particle

140
Q

When can Icing happen?

A

0 degrees Celsius and visible moisture

141
Q

What are the types of icing?

A

Clear
Rime
Mixed

142
Q

What is clear icing?

A

Forms after impact when the remaining liquid flows over the aircraft and freezes smoothly

143
Q

What is Rime icing?

A

Milky white ice that forms. Forms on the leading edge

144
Q

What is common areas of wind shear?

A

Temperature inversions, fronts, thunderstorms

145
Q

How long are AIRmets valid for?

A

6 hours

146
Q

What are the different types of Airmets?

A

Sierra (IFR)
Zulu (Icing)
Tango (Turbulence)

147
Q

How long are SIGmets good for?

A

Valid for 4 hours

148
Q

How long are convective signets issued for?

A

2 hours

149
Q

How can you update weather in flight?

A

FSS
ASOS/AWOS/ATIS
Visually
ATC

150
Q

Best economy vs best power?

A
151
Q

What is absolute altitude?

A

Altitude AGL

152
Q

What is pressure altitude?

A

True altitude corrected for non standard pressure

153
Q

What is density altitude?

A

True altitude corrected for non standard temperature

154
Q

What is the preflight actions?

A

91.103

Notoms
Weather
Known ATC delYS
Runway Distances
Alternate airports
Fuel requirements
Takeoff/landing distances

Private Pilot (4 decks)

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