STIs and congenital infections Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
1
Q

What is the most common presentation of STIs and congenital infections?

A

Asymptomatic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Why is it crucial to culture bacteria?

A

To test suceptibility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the most infectious period of an infection?

A

Primary infection as there is no immune response yet (high pathogen load)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What does a high antibody avidity reflect?

A

-High affinity means a non-recent infection (time to select for antibodies and hypermutate)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Apart from antibody avidity how else can you differentiate a recent from non-recent infection?

A

Rising antibody titre that is 4x previous levels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are the symptoms for congenital rubella?

A
  • Deafness
  • Opthalmagia
  • CVD defects
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the most common congenital infection?

A

CMV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

A women presents with white vaginal discharge and vulvitis. What is your likely diagnosis?

A

Candida albicans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are the features of N. gonorrhoae?

A

Gram -ve dipplococci

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Why do you swab urethral and cervical areas when looking for N. gonorrhoae?

A

They like columnar cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

How do you test for syphilis?

A

EIA=tests for antibodies which tells you if antigen has/is there (current or past exposure)
RPR= Marker for acute infection (non-specific)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

How do you treat gonorrhoea?

A

Ceftriaxone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What causes syphilis?

A

Treponema pallidum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What causes chlaymdia?

A

Chlamydia trachomatis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

How do you treat chlamydia?

A

Macrolide eg azithromicin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

How do you treat candida albicans overgrowth?

A

Anti-fungals

17
Q

A patient has presented with hepatitis like symptoms. If they are suffering from an acute Hep B infection what would their test results show?

A
  • HBsAg +ve (virus present)
  • Anti HBc IgM +ve (virus present)
  • HBe Ag +ve (active replication + they are infectious)
  • Negative for Anti HBs because no immunity formed
18
Q

When is a patient classified as a chronic Hep B carrier?

A

If they have HBsAg after 6 months

19
Q

What does positive for anti-HBe mean?

A

a person has recovered from infection/chronic carrier

20
Q

A patient presents with painful blisters in and around their vagina. How are you going to confirm a diagnosis?

A
  • PCR for HSV

- Cell culture looking for cytopathic effect

21
Q

What can lead to HSV outbreaks?

A

cold, heat, stress, immunosuppresion

22
Q

What is the treatment of HSV?

A

Acyclovoir

23
Q

What are some complications of HSV infection?

A
  • Dissemination to other places

- Perinatal infection

24
Q

A pregnant woman presents with a rash and a mild fever. What are some possible infections that could produce these symptoms?

A
  • Rubella
  • Parvovirus
  • Enterovirus
25
Q

What are limiations of assays to detect specific antibodies?

A
  • variable duration of IgM antibodies

- False positives and negatives

26
Q

What are outcomes of infections in pregnancy with rubella virus

A
  • rubella congenital syndrome

- rubella congenital infection (less severe)

27
Q

A pregnant patient presents with no symptoms but leucocytosis and 50% lymphocytes (very high) on a routine blood test. What’s the most likely cause?

A

Asymptomatic CMV (most common congenital infection)

28
Q

What % of congenital CMV infections cause disease?

A

CMV infection causes symptoms in 10% of cases

29
Q

What treatment is available for CMV congenital infections?

A

Gancyclovoir for the baby

30
Q

In 2nd trimester screening what are the results for increased risk of trisomy 21?

A

Decreased alpha-fetoprotein and ostriol

Increased ß subunit of hCG and inhibin A

31
Q

What is a robertsonian translocation?

A

fusion of two acrocentric chromosomes