STIs Flashcards
You are GP working in a sexual health clinic at the local university. A 19 year old female has come in today for an STI check, having just met a new partner. She tests positive for C. trachomatis. You explain to her that she, unfortunately, has chlamydia, and she asks what this means for her. Which of the following statements is incorrect.
Select one:
In women, the cervix is the most commonly infected anatomic site, and a proportion of women may also have an infection of the urethra.
Untreated, cervical infection can ascend to cause pelvic inflammatory disease and its sequelae of infertility and chronic pain.
Pelvic inflammatory disease due to C. trachomatis is associated with higher rates of subsequent tubal infertility, ectopic pregnancy, and chronic pelvic pain when compared with pelvic inflammatory disease caused by gonorrhea.
Symptomsof a C.tromatis cervicitis are very specific; a change in vaginal discharge, intermenstrual vaginal bleeding, and post-coital bleeding.
Symptomsof a C.tromatis cervicitis are very specific; a change in vaginal discharge, intermenstrual vaginal bleeding, and post-coital bleeding.
Serena van der Woodsen, an 18-year-old female, goes to her GP to get an STI test as she had unprotected sex a few weeks ago on a one night stand, but has no symptoms of any STIs that she’s aware of. The GP gives her instructions on how to collect the test herself and sends off the test. She is diagnosed with chlamydia trachomatis and is given a course of antibiotics. If Serena hadn’t been checked, which of the following is NOT a complication of untreated Chlamydia infection?
Select one:
Perihepatitis
Salpingitis
Endometritis
Reactive arthritis
Gastritis
Gastritis
Eliza is a 26 year old female who visits her GP after being contacted by a recent partner that is concerned he has chlamydia. What symptoms is she likely to be experiencing and what would be the best next steps?
Select one:
If she has chlamydia, Eliza is most likely experiencing some abnormal discharge with itch, the most appropriate way to test her would be with a high vaginal swab preformed during a speculum exam. If this comes back positive then the most appropriate treatment would be penicillin.
If she has chlamydia, Eliza is most likely experiencing some abnormal discharge with itch. You could give her a self swab to preform. If this comes back positive then the most appropriate treatment would be penicillin.
If she has chlamydia, Eliza is likely asymptomatic, You could give her a self swab to preform. If this comes back positive then the most appropriate treatment is doxycycline.
If she has chlamydia, Eliza is likely asymptomatic, the most appropriate way to test her would be with a high vaginal swab preformed during a speculum exam. If this comes back positive then the most appropriate treatment is azithromycin.
If she has chlamydia, Eliza is likely asymptomatic, the most appropriate way to test her would be with a high vaginal swab preformed during a speculum exam. If this comes back positive then the most appropriate treatment is azithromycin.
A 26-year-old woman presents with vaginal discharge, dysuria and pelvic pain. After taking a vaginal swab, and using the nucleic acid amplificationtest (NAAT), C. trachomatis is diagnosed. Which of the following options is NOT a treatment option?
Select one or more:
A.
Azithromycin given immediately
B.
Doxycycline for 7 days
C.
Metronidazole
D.
Nystatin
E.
Both C and D
E.
Both C and D
A young queer identifying man presents to his local GP with generalised abdominal pain, dairrhoea, and loss of appetite for the last 3 or 4 days. On further exploration of his symptoms it is learnt that he also has smelly, fatty stools, and has been feeling very fatigued over the last few days.This patient is also on PrEP (Pre-Exposure Prophylaxis for HIV) and as part of his regular check-ups for this medication the GP completes a sexual health check-up. The GP learns that he had unprotected sex with another male 10 days prior to his symptoms starting.The GP suspects that he may have contracted an STI which is the cause of his symptoms. Which medication will the GP prescribe in this situation?
Select one:
Vancomycin
Ceftriaxone
Penicillin
Metronidazole
Metronidazole
Peter, an 18 year old fresher at university presented to his GP. His last sexual encounter was 3 days ago and Peter has been experiencing a tingling in his penis. There has been a considerable amount of yellowy/whitish discharge, it burns when he urinates and his testicles are painful and swollen.What is the likely causative organism of this presentation?
Select one:
Treponema Pallidum (Syphilis)
Staphylococcus aureus
Neisseria Gonorrhoea
Genital herpes (HSV)
Neisseria Gonorrhoea
A 25 year old man presents to the GP with dysuria and urethral discharge. Subsequent laboratory analysis of a urethral swab reveals infection by neisseria gonorrhoea. What should be used to treat infection by neisseria gonorrhoea?
Select one:
Metronidazole
Ceftriaxone
Azithromycin
Doxycycline
Ceftriaxone
Connor is a 19 year old man who comes to your GP practice complaining of 3 days of a burning sensation when he urinates. In the last day his left testicle has become painful and swollen. He tells you he had unprotected sex five days ago.On examination, the urinary meatus of Connor’s penis appears red and irritated and he has tender lymph nodes in his groin. His left testicle is moderately swollen and tender to palpate. You also notice a whitish discharge present on the front of his underwear.Which of the following is UNLIKELY to be the causative organism?
Select one:
U. urealyticum
T. vaginalis
N. gonorrhoea
E. coli
C. trachomatis
T. vaginalis
Mr F is a 21 year old male who presents with a 2 day history of white discharge on his underpants, and pain upon urination. He had unprotected vaginal sex a few days previously, and his inguinal lymph nodes are tender. He has no testicular pain/swelling and no genital ulcers or warts. Select the best option for appropriate antibiotic management.
Select one:
Ceftriaxone + Doxycycline Or Azithromycin
Ceftriaxone alone
Ciprofloxacin
Penicillin
Ceftriaxone + Doxycycline Or Azithromycin
A 23 year old female presents to your GP clinic with dysuria, purulent vaginal discharge and some spotting on her underwear after intercourse. She tells you that a sexual partner that she had unprotected sex with 2 weeks ago called her saying that he thinks he may have gonorrhea. He said that she should get checked which is why she booked this appointment, before becoming symptomatic in the interim. You decide to treat empirically rather than waiting for the result. What is the best treatment option for this patient?
Select one:
IM penicillin
Single dose oral azithromycin
Both single dose IM ceftriaxone and 7 days of doxycycline
Oral Nitrofurantoin
Single dose IM ceftriaxone
Both single dose IM ceftriaxone and 7 days of doxycycline
Alison is a 23 year old woman who is sexually active. She has been contacted by a recent male sexual partner who has informed her that he has been diagnosed with gonorrhoea and that she should probably get tested.Alison wants to know if she needs to be tested, because she only had unprotected sex with this person once. That was just over two weeks ago and she isn’t showing any symptoms. Which of the following is appropriate to tell Allison?
Select one:
You can perform a diagnostic test now and await the results before deciding to treat
If you examine her and she has no vaginal discharge then it is unlikely she has gonorrhoea
If she has gonorrhoea you can treat her immediately and she will no longer transmit the infection from today
Gonorrhoea takes a long time to become active in the body so you won’t be able to diagnose or treat her just yet
The test for gonorrhoea is a non invasive urine sample that you will send to the lab for results
You can perform a diagnostic test now and await the results before deciding to treat
A young man presents to your GP clinic with a 3 day history of discharge from his penis and dysuria. He notes that he had unprotected sex with a stranger in the weekend 5 days ago. You send the discharge to the lab and they tell you they saw extracellular gram negative diplococci on microscopy. What is the most likely causative organism?
Select one:
chlamydia trachomatis
Neisseria gonorrhoea
Neisseria meningitidis
Herpes simplex virus
Neisseria gonorrhoea
A 21 year old lady comes into your clinic for an STI check. You give the patient the below information. Which is false?
Select one:
Chlamydia is usually asymptomatic
A full STI screen is a vulvovaginal swab for chlamydia and gonorrhoea
Tubo-ovaian abscess is a possible complication
A treatment option is a course for 7 days of doxycycline
A full STI screen is a vulvovaginal swab for chlamydia and gonorrhoea
Seirra Burgess presents to her GP with: fever, malaise, vulvar tingling, burning and pruritus. Physical examination reveals: multiple, painful, red, shallow ulcerations with small vesicles(1-3mm diameter) on her vulva.What is the most likely sexually transmitted disease?
Select one:
Treponema pallidum
Herpes simplex virus
Escherichia coli
Human papillomavirus
Chlamydia Trachomatis
Herpes simplex virus
A 23 year old female presents to her GP with a 3 day history of increased, smelly vaginal discharge. She has no other symptoms. She has recently engaged in vaginal intercourse with a new partner, and they only sometimes use condoms. The GP gets her to take a high vaginal swab and sends it for microscopy and culture. Which of the following conditions would NOT be identified by swab microscopy and culture?
Select one:
Trichomonas vaginalis
Neisseria gonorrhoea
Bacterial Vaginosis
Chlamydia trachomatis
Chlamydia trachomatis
