STIs Flashcards by Christian Linatoc

All of the following are TRUE about N. gonorrhoeae EXCEPT:

A. Non motile, Non spore forming
B. Aerobic, gram negative diplococcus
C. Optimal growth occurs at 35-37°C (95-98.6°F)
D. Optimal growth occurs pH 7.2-7.6 in an atmosphere of 3–5% carbon dioxide
E. None of the options

E. None of the options

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following distinguishes gonococci from other Neisseria spp?

A. Presence of PMNs
B. Gram negative diplococci
C. Inoculated on MTM agar
D. Fermentation of glucose only
E. All of the options
F. None of the options

D. Fermentation of glucose only

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

This is based on genetically stable requirements of strains for specific nutrients or cofactors as defined by an isolate’s ability to grow on chemically defined media.

A. Serotyping
B. Biotyping
C. Auxotyping
D. Autotyping
E. Genotyping

C. Auxotyping

Serotyping systems were based on specific monoclonal antibodies directed against a porin protein called PorB.

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following is the most abundant outer membrane protein of N. gonorrhoae?

A. LOS
B. Porin
C. Opa
D. H8
E. Tbp

B. Porin

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following epithelium does N. gonorrhoae primarily infect?

A. Squamous
B. Columnar
C. Stratified
D. Pseudostratified
E. All of the options

B. Columnar

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Acute pelvic inflammatory disease is collective term for which of the following?

A. Perihepatitis, Endometritis, Salpingitis
B. Endometritis, Peritonitis, Perihepatitis
C. Endometritis, Salpingitis, Peritonitis
D. Urethritis, Endometritis, Perihepatitis
E. Urethritis, Perihepatitis, Salpingitis

C. Endometritis, Salpingitis, Peritonitis

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Acute onset of polyarthralgia with fever is the most common initial symptom of which of the following?

A. Asymptomatic gonorrhea
B. Gonococcal ophthalmitis
C. Fitz-Hugh-Curtis syndrome
D. Disseminated Gonococcal Infection
E. Acute tonsillopharyngitis

D. Disseminated Gonococcal Infection

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following is an uncommon but fatal manifestation of DGI?

A. Meningitis
B. Acute endocarditis
C. Acute pericarditis
D. Suppurative arthritis syndrome

B. Acute endocarditis

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

All of the following are TRUE about Gram stain of gonorrhea EXCEPT:

A. Lower sensitivity than NAATs
B. In males, presumptive diagnosis of gonorrhea can be made by identification of gram-negative intracellular diplococci
C. Useful in diagnosis of pharyngeal gonorrhea
D. Sensitivity for diagnosing gonococcal
cervicitis and asymptomatic infections is low
E. None of the options

C. Useful in diagnosis of pharyngeal gonorrhea

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

In a suspected case of child sexual abuse, which of the following diagnostic procedure remains the recommended method of detection for N. gonorrhoeae?

A. Gram Stain
B. Culture
C. NAATs
D. Gram Stain + culture
E. Any of the options

B. Culture

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

All of the following are components of modified Thayer-Martin agar EXCEPT:

A. Vancomycin
B. Colistin
C. Nystatin
D. Trimethoprim
E. Daktarin
F. None of the options

E. Daktarin

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Microorganisms isolated from all of the following sites are should be inoculated on MTM agar EXCEPT:

A. Cervix
B. Rectum
C. Synovial fluid
D. Pharynx
E. None of the options

C. Synovial fluid

Normally sterile or minimally contaminated on NONSELECTIVE CHOCOLATE AGAR:
>Synovial fluid
>Blood
>CSF

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

NAATs are FDA-approved for use with all of the following EXCEPT:

A. endocervical/vaginal swab
B. rectal swab
C. male urethral swab
D. female and male first-catch urine
E. None of the options

B. rectal swab

NAATs are not FDA cleared for use with specimens from the:
> Rectum
> Pharynx
> Conjunctiva
> Joint fluid
> Blood
> CSF

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following diagnostic procedure remains the recommended method for testing for all other sample sites among prepubertal children?

A. Gram Stain
B. Culture
C. NAATs
D. Gram Stain + culture
E. Any of the options

B. Culture

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Persons who receive a diagnosis of gonorrhea should
be instructed to abstain from sexual activity for how many days after treatment?

A. 3 days
B. 5 days
C. 7 days
D. 11 days
E. 14 days

C. 7 days

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Children (weight equal and less than 45 kg) infected with anorectal gonorrhea is treated with which of the following?

A. Ceftriaxone single dose
B. Ceftriaxone for 7 days
C. Ceftriaxone plus azithromycin single dose
D. Ceftriaxone plus azithromycin for 7 days

A. Ceftriaxone single dose

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

How many PMNs per field in five 1000x oil immersion microscopic field are seen in establishing the presence of inflammatory discharge?

A. > 10
B. > 20
C. > 30
D. > 40
E. > 50

C. > 30

These are essential for genetic competence and transformation of N. gonorrhoeae, which permit horizontal transfer of genetic material between different gonococcal lineages in vivo.

A. Pili
B. Opa
C. Porin
D. H8
E. Tbp

A. Pili

This outer membrane protein contributes to intergonococcal adhesion.

A. Pili
B. Opa
C. Porin
D. H8
E. Tbp

B. Opa

Which of the following strains is often associated with disseminated gonococcal infection?

A. PorB.1A
B. PorB.1B
C. PorB.2A
D. PorB.2B

A. PorB.1A

PorB.1B - local genitals only

Which of the following induces T-cell proliferative responses in persons with urogenital gonococcal disease?

A. Pili
B. Opa
C. Porin
D. H8
E. Tbp

C. Porin

Which of the following is the first effective agents against gonorrhea?

A. Penicillin
B. Sulfonamide
C. Tetracycline
D. Cephalosporin

B. Sulfonamide

Resistance to fluoroquinolones is due to alterations in which of the following?

A. DNA ligase
B. DNA gyrase
C. DNA topoisomerase II
D. DNA topoisomerase IV
E. Two of the options
F. All of the options

E. Two of the options

DNA gyrase & DNA topoisomerase IV

This is the sole site of infection in only 5% of women with gonorrhea.

A. Pharynx
B. Vagina
C. Cervix
D. Rectum
E. Tonsils

D. Rectum

Risks of salpingitis and PID are highest during which stage of pregnancy? ``` A. First trimester B. Second trimester C. Third trimester D. Two of the options E. All of the options ```

A. First trimester

Which of the following is the most common manifestation of gonococcal infection in children beyond infancy? A. Anorectal gonorrhea B. Gonococcal cervicitis C. Gonococcal vulvovaginitis D. Suppurative arthritis

C. Gonococcal vulvovaginitis

Polyarthralgia in DGI affects all of the following joints EXCEPT: ``` A. Knees B. Elbows C. Axial skeleton D. Two of the options E. None of the options ```

C. Axial skeleton

Which of the following almost always results in an effective cure against uncomplicated gonorrhea? A. Ceftriaxone + Cefixime B. Ceftriaxone + Azithromycin C. Ceftriaxone + Spectinomycin D. Cefexime + Spectinomycin

B. Ceftriaxone + Azithromycin

All of the following are Chlamydia species EXCEPT: ``` A. C. trachomatis B. C. pneumoniae C. C. pscittaci D. C. pecorum E. None of the options ```

E. None of the options

All of the following are TRUE about Chlamydiae EXCEPT: ``` A. Gram negative B. With peptidoglycan layer C. Produce intracytoplasmic inclusions D. Non-motile, obligate intracellular bacteria E. None of the options ```

B. With peptidoglycan layer

Which of the following morphologic forms of Chlamydiae is the infectious form and adapted for extracellular survival? A. Elementary body B. Metabolically active body C. Replicating reticulate body D. Inclusion fusion body

A. Elementary body

All of the following are symptoms of NGU EXCEPT: ``` A. Purulent urethral discharge B. Dysuria C. Urethral itching D. Meatal erythema E. None of the options ```

A. Purulent urethral discharge

All of the following are symptoms of acute epididymitis EXCEPT: ``` A. Swelling B. Tenderness C. Fever D. Unilateral scrotal pain E. None of the options ```

E. None of the options - "STFU"

This is the initial manifestation of reactive arthritis in 80% of patients. ``` A. GU B. NGU C. PGU D. Both A and B E. All of the options ```

B. NGU

Which of the following is the most frequently involved in reactive arthritis? ``` A. Ankles B. Feet C. Knees D. Hip E. Any of the options ```

C. Knees

Cervicitis is usually characterized by the presence of mucopurulent discharge, with how many neutrophils per microscopic field? A. >10 B. >20 C. >30 D. >40

B. >20

Pap smear is a test to identify which of the following conditions? ``` A. Proctitis B. Cervicitis C. PID D. Perihepatitis E. Reactive arthritis ```

B. Cervicitis

Which of the following pathogens is the most commonly isolated from college women with dysuria, frequency, and pyuria? A. N. gonorrhoeae B. C. trachomatis C. S. saprophyticus D. M. genitalium

B. C. trachomatis

Which of the following conditions is characterized by painful inguinal lymphadenopathy beginning 2-6 weeks after exposure? A. Ocular trachoma B. LGV C. Urogenital infection D. Oculogenital serovars

B. LGV (Lymphogranuloma venereum)

Which of the following infections is characterized by lower abdominal pain, cervical motion tenderness, adnexal tenderness or masses? A. Epididymitis B. Cervicitis C. Salpingitis D. Urethritis

C. Salpingitis

All of the following are used for treatment of uncomplicated chlamydial infections EXCEPT: ``` A. Tetracycline B. Doxycycline C. Erythromycin D. Ofloxacin E. None of the options ```

E. None of the options ``` Uncomplicated = 7 days Complicated = 14 days LGV = 21 days ```

Which of the following drugs are contraindicated in pregnant women with chlamydial infections? ``` A. Tetracycline B. Doxycycline C. Erythromycin D. Ofloxacin E. None of the options ```

D. Ofloxacin / Fluoroquinolones