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Repro > BPH & Prostate Cancer > Flashcards

BPH & Prostate Cancer Flashcards

1
Q

All of the following is required in normal male sexual function EXCEPT:

A. Intact libido
B. Penile erection
C. Ejaculation
D. Detumescence
E. None of the options
A

E. None of the options

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2
Q

Erectile response is mediated by which of the following?

A. Central innervation
B. Psychogenic innervation
C. Peripheral innervation
D. Reflexogenic innervation
E. Any of the options
A

E. Any of the options

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3
Q

Parasympathetic nerve fibers to the penis arise from what spinal segments?

A. S1-S4
B. S2-S4
C. T11-L2
D. T10-L2
E. T10-L1
A

B. S2-S4

Sympathetic: T11 - L2

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4
Q

All of the following mediate vascular contraction EXCEPT:

A. Endothelin1
B. Rho kinase
C. Norepinephrine
D. Nitric oxide
E. None of the options
A

D. Nitric oxide

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5
Q

All of the following is TRUE about ejaculation EXCEPT:

A. Stimulated by parasympathetic NS
B. Contraction of the epididymis, vas deferens, seminal vesicles, and prostate
C. Seminal fluid entering the urethra
D. Two of the options
E. None of the options
A

A. Stimulated by parasympathetic NS

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6
Q

This refers to a persistent and painful erection.

A. Premature ejaculation
B. Ejaculation
C. Tumescence
D. Detumescence
E. Priapism
A

E. Priapism

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7
Q

Incidence of ED is higher among men with all of the following medical conditions EXCEPT:

A. DM
B. Obesity
C. LUTS secondary to BPH
D. Hypertension
E. None of the options
A

E. None of the options

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8
Q

All of the following are causes of ED EXCEPT:

A. Psychogenic
B. Endocrinologic
C. Neurogenic
D. Arteriogenic
E. None of the options
A

E. None of the options

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9
Q

All of the following account for >80% of cases of ED in older men EXCEPT:

A. Diabetes
B. Atherosclerosis
C. Use of drugs associated with ED
D. Diminished libido
E. None of the options
A

D. Diminished libido

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10
Q

Which of the following is the most common organic cause of ED?

A. Drug-induced
B. Diminished filling pressure
C. Disturbance of blood flow
D. High glycemic index
E. Any of the options
A

C. Disturbance of blood flow

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11
Q

All of the following are TRUE when there is an increased in NO release EXCEPT:

A. Increase in cyclic GMP
B. Increase in intracellular Calcium ions
C. Smooth-muscle relaxation
D. Erection
E. None of the options
A

B. Increase in intracellular Calcium ions

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12
Q

Which of the following drugs is/are the most frequently cause of ED in men?

A. Thiazide diuretics
B. Alpha blockers
C. Beta blockers
D. Calcium channel blockers
E. Two of the options
F. All of the options
A

E. Two of the options

Thiazide diuretics & Beta blockers

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13
Q

All of the following may cause ED by suppressing gonadotropin production EXCEPT:

A. Estrogen
B. GnRH agonists
C. H2 antagonists
D. Spironolactone
E. None of the options
A

E. None of the options

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14
Q

Which of the following SSRIs has the highest risk of sexual dysfunction?

A. Fluoxetine 
B. Sertraline 
C. Paroxetine
D. Citalopram 
E. Any of the options
A

C. Paroxetine; and Escitalopram

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15
Q

Which of the following is more easily administered standardized questionnaires to assess ED?

A. IIEF
B. IIEF-5
C. SHIM
D. Any of the options

A

D. Any of the options

IIEF-5 = SHIM

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16
Q

Which of the following conditions will you consider is you have detected fibrotic plaques upon PE of the penis?

A. BPH
B. Prostate cancer
C. Peyronie's disease
D. Dupuytren's disease
E. Testicular cancer
A

C. Peyronie’s disease

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17
Q

Which of the following tests will you consider if you want to test the neurologic function of the male genitalia?

A. Doppler ultrasound
B. Penile angiography
C. Biothesiometry
D. Cavernosometry
E, Simple stamp test
A

C. Biothesiometry

18
Q

All of the following are approved as oral agents for treatment of ED EXCEPT:

A. Sildenafil
B. Tadalafil
C. Vardenafil
D. Avanafil
E. None of the options
A

E. None of the options

19
Q

Which of the following PDE-5 inhibitors has the longest half life of 17.5 hours?

A. Sildenafil
B. Tadalafil
C. Vardenafil
D. Avanafil

A

B. Tadalafil

20
Q

Which of the following PDE-5 inhibitors has the fastest onset of action

A. Sildenafil
B. Tadalafil
C. Vardenafil
D. Avanafil

A

D. Avanafil

21
Q

Which of the following is the most common side-effect of PDE-5 inhibitors?

A. Headache
B. Facial flushing
C. Dyspepsia
D. Nasal congestion

A

A. Headache

22
Q

Which of the following PDE-5 inhibitors is associated with transient altered color vision (blue halo effect)?

A. Sildenafil
B. Tadalafil
C. Vardenafil
D. Avanafil

A

A. Sildenafil

Tadalafil = loin pain

23
Q

Which of the following is contraindicated in men under PDE5-i therapy?

A. Alpha blockers
B. Nitrates
C. Beta blockers
D. Calcium channel blockers
E. All of the options
A

B. Nitrates

24
Q

Which of the following is the possible adverse effect of oral androgen preparations (17 alpha-alkylated derivatives)?

A. Renal toxicity
B. Hepatotoxicity
C. Cardiotoxicity
D. Cardiomyopathy
E. All of the options
A

B. Hepatotoxicity

25
Q

Which of the following treatment would you opt to choose if the patient fails to respond to oral agents?

A. Increase dosage of PDE-5i oral agents
B. Consider Vacuum Constriction Devices (VCD)
C. Change to intraurethral alprostadil
D. Consider long acting testosterone esters (enanthate and cypionate)
E. Surgery

A

C. Change to intraurethral alprostadil

26
Q

Infertility is the inability to conceive after how many months of unprotected sex?

A. 6
B. 8
C. 12
D. 16
E. 20
A

C. 12

27
Q

All of the following are risk factors associated with infertility EXCEPT:

A. Smoking
B. Alcohol consumption
C. Caffeine
D. Obesity
E. None of the options
A

E. None of the options

28
Q

Which of the following is attributed with the most FEMALE infertility causes?

A. Amenorrhea
B. Ovulatory dysfunction
C. Tubal defect
D. Endometriosis
E. Any of the options
A

C. Tubal defect

Amenorrhea/ovulatory dysfunction = 32%
Tubal defect = 34%
Endometriosis = 15%
Other = 7%

29
Q

Which of the following is attributed with the most MALE infertility causes?

A. Primary hypogonadism
B. Secondary hypogonadism
C. Disordered sperm transport
D. Unknown cause
E. Any of the options
A

D. Unknown cause

Primary = 30-40%
Secondary = 2%
Disordered sperm transport = 10-20%
Unknown = 40-50%

30
Q

Which of the following sperm count would you consider in finding for a sperm donor?

A. 15-20 x 10^6/mL
B. 10-15 x 10^6/mL
C. <10 x 10^6/mL
D. Any of the options

A

C. <10 x 10^6/mL

31
Q

All of the following are protective factors against prostate cancer EXCEPT:

A. α-linoleic acid
B. Isoflavonoid genistein
C. Isothiocyanate sulforaphane
D. Statin drugs
E. None of the options
A

A. α-linoleic acid

32
Q

All of the following are TRUE about PSA EXCEPT:

A. Prostate-cancer specific
B. Bound PSA is rapidly eliminated from the blood by glomerular filtration
C. Bound PSA has an estimated half-life of 12-18h
D. PSA testing was approved by FDA for early detection of BPH and prostate cancer
E. Two of the options
F. All of the options

A

F. All of the options

33
Q

Which of the following is most frequently used to assess the primary tumor in prostate cancer?

A. CT scan
B. TRUS
C. T1-weighted MRI
D. T2-weighted MRI
E. Any of the options
A

B. TRUS (Transrectal ultrasound)

34
Q

Which of the following is used to demonstrate the internal architecture of the prostate and seminal vesicles?

A. CT scan
B. TRUS
C. T1-weighted MRI
D. T2-weighted MRI
E. Any of the options
A

D. T2-weighted MRI

T1-weighted MRI: peiprostatic fat/venous plexus, perivesicular tissues, lymph nodes, and bone marrow

35
Q

Which of the following stages of prostate cancer is characterized by tumor confined within the prostate?

A. T0
B. T1
C. T2
D. T3
E. T4
A

C. T2

Tx = Primary tumor cannot be assessed
T0 = No evidence of primary tumor
T1 = Clinically inapparent tumor, NEITHER palpable nor visible by imaging
T2 = Tumor confined within prostate
T3 = Tumor extends through prostate capsule and may invade the SEMINAL VESICLES
T4 = Invades adjacent structures
36
Q

Which of the following is used to excise the prostate cancer completely with a clear margin, to maintain continence and preserve potency?

A. Neoadjuvant hormonal treatment
B. Radical prostatectomy
C. Orchiectomy
D. External beam radiation therapy
E. Brachytherapy
A

B. Radical prostatectomy

37
Q

Which of the following drugs is used to achieve castrate levels of testosterone within 48 h without the initial rise in serum testosterone?

A. Leuprolide 
B. Goserelin
C. Degarelix
D. Docetaxel
E. Any of the options
A

C. Degarelix

Testosterone lowering-agents/ GnRH agonist/antagonist:

Leuprolide, goserelin, degarelix

38
Q

Which of the following drugs were approved to block the flare associated with the rise in serum T associated with GnRH agonist/antagonist therapy?

A. Bicalutamide
B. Leuprolide 
C. Buserelin
D. Docetaxel
D. Triptorelin
A

A. Bicalutamide; and Nilutamide = Antiandrogen

39
Q

Which of the following drugs was the first systemic therapy shown to prolong life in metastatic castration-resistant prostate cancer?

A. Paclitaxel
B. Docetaxel
C. Cabazitaxel
D. Abraxane

A

B. Docetaxel

40
Q

Which of the following procedures would you opt to choose if hematuria is documented and you want to assess the urinary outflow tract before surgery?

A. Pressure-flow studies
B. Uroflowmetry
C. Cystoscopy
D. Surgical therapy

A

C. Cystoscopy

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