STI's Flashcards

1
Q

what are some resourced for information/patient education on STI’s?

A

PHAC STBBI guides
communicable disease control manual
CPS - STI’s
DynaMed
RxFiles - anti-infectives

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

define an STI

A

infection passed from one person to another through sexual activity, including vaginal, oral or anal sex as well as genital skin-to-skin contact. Some STI’s are spread through blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what are the 3 categories of STIs?

A

viral
bacterial
parasitic/fungal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

examples of a viral STI

A

HPV
HIV
HSV
hep B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

examples of bacterial STIs

A

chlamydia
gonorrhea
syphilis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

example of parasitic/fungal STI

A

trichomoniasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

which STI can be spread through the blood?

A

syphilis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what does STBBI stand for?

A

sexually transmitted and blood-borne infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what are the risk factors for STI’s?

A

multiple partners
anon or casual sex partners
unprotected sex
previous sti
substance use
use of meds for ED
social environments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

which populations are effected more by STIs?

A

indigenous people
gay, bisexual people
transgender
youth and young adults
people who use drugs
prostitutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

how can we help prevent STIs?

A

assessing and discussing risk
educating about signs and symptoms
help ppl recognize and minimize risk
offering vaccination when indicated
providing treatment, follow up and counseling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

where can someone be tested for STIs?

A

primary care provider
public health
hospital

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what are the barriers to seeking testing?

A

underestimate personal risk
perception that STIs are not serious
fearful of procedures
self-conscious about genital exam
stigma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

how can notify a partner about an STI?

A

the individual
health care provider
MHO (medical health officer)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

which STIs can be prevented by barrier protection?

A

HIV
HBV
chlamydia
gonorrhea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what is barrier protection?

A

external condoms
internal condoms
dental dams

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

which STIs do condoms NOT provide complete protection?

A

syphilis
HPV
HSV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what are the goals of therapy?

A

treat the infection
abolish symptoms
decrease spread to sexual partners
decrease vertical transmission to newborns
reduce transmission of HIV
decrease probability of complications

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what are the potential complications of STIs?

A

infertility
chronic pain
sepsis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

which medications are free of charge in SK for STIs?

A

amoxicillin
azithromycin
cefixime
doxycycline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

how are STIs spread?

A

contact with semen, vaginal fluid or other body fluids during vaginal, anal or oral sex without a condom
skin-to-skin contact during sexual activity
sharing toys

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

which STI can be transmitted through breastfeeding?

A

HIV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

pregnancy complications with chlamydia

A

preterm birth
conjuntivitis and pneumonia in newborn

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

pregnancy complications with gonorrhea

A

endometritis and pelvic sepsis
ophthalmia neonatorum and systemic infection in newborn

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

pregnancy complications with syphilis

A

systemic symptoms
fetal loss

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

when should pregnant ppl be tested for STIs?

A

early in pregnancy
again in the third trimester if ongoing risk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

syndromes of STIs

A

cervicitis
epididymitis
pelvic inflammatory disease
proctitis
urethritis
vaginitis
anogenital ulcers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

cause of trichomoniasis

A

thrichomonas vaginalis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

symptoms of trichomoniasis

A

pruritis
odor
off-white or yellow, frothy discharge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

treatment for trichomoniasis

A

metronidazole 2g PO single dose OR
500mg PO BID for 7 days
*need to treat sexual partners

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

what is the bacteria that causes chlamydia?

A

chlamydia trachomatis (gram negative)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

why might chlamydia be under-treated?

A

because the majority of people with infection are asymptomatic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

symptoms of chlamydia

A

most are asymptomatic
dysuria - painful to pee
urethritis -> dyspareunia(painful sex)
cervicitis - abnormal bleeding/discharge, dyspareunia
proctitis - pain, diarrhea, bleeding, discharge
conjunctivitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

female complications with chlamydia

A

pelvic inflammatory disease
ectopic pregnancy
infertility
chronic pelvic pain
reiter syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

male complications with chlamydia

A

epididymo-orchitis
reiter syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

what is the preferred treatment for chlamydia?

A

doxycycline 100mg BID x 7 days
OR
azithromycin 1g in a single dose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

what is the alternative treatment for chlamydia?

A

levofloxacin 500mg QD x 7 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

what is the treatment of chlamydia for pregnant and lactating people?

A

azithromycin(normal)
amoxicillin
erythromycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

counselling points for doxycycline for chlamydia

A

take with food
taking with iron or calcium may decrease absorption
photosensitivity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

counselling points for azithromycin for chlamydia

A

GI upset - can use prophylactic antiemetics to help with nausea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

when would you have to redose azithromycin for chlamydia?

A

if the person throws up within an hour of taking it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

how long should you abstain from sexual activity without barrier protection after treatment?

A

until treatment of person and partners is complete and symptoms have resolved (7 days after one dose therapy, end of multiple-dose therapy)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

when is a test of cure(TOC) recommended?

A

when symptoms persist
compliance is suboptimal
preferred treatment was not used
prepubertal
pergnancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

when is repeat screening recommended?

A

3 months post-treatment due to risk of reinfection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

what causes lymphogranuloma venereum(LGV)?

A

chlamydia trachomatis genotypes L1, L2, L3 which are more invasive than non-LGV genotypes

46
Q

what does LGV affect?

A

lymph tissue

47
Q

what are the stages of LGV?

A

primary
secondary
tertiary

48
Q

what is the preferred treatment for LGV?

A

doxycycline 100mg BID x 21 days

49
Q

what is an alternate treatment for LGV?

A

azithromycin 1g once weekly x 3 weeks

50
Q

what causes gonorrhea?

A

neisseria gonorrhoeae

51
Q

what can happen when gonorrhea is left untreated?

A

can become chronic

52
Q

what are the most common STIs in Canada?

A

most common: chlamydia
2nd most common: gonorrhea
3rd most common: syphilis

53
Q

symptoms of gonorrhea in females

A

*often asymptomatic
vaginal discharge
lower abdominal pain
dysuria
cervical discharge
bartholinitis
dyspareunia
rectal pain and discharge with proctitis

54
Q

symptoms of gonorrhea in males

A

urethral discharge
dysuria
urethral itch
testicular pain, epididymitis
rectal pain and discharge with proctitis

55
Q

female complications with gonorrhea

A

pelvic inflammatory disease
infertility and risk of ectopic pregnancy
chronic pelvic pain

56
Q

male complications with gonorrhea

A

epidiymo-orchitis

57
Q

general complications of gonorrhea

A

disseminated gonococcal infection (DGI) = spectrum including arthritis, tenosynovitis, dermatitis, endocarditis, meningitis
reactive arthritis
perihepatitis

58
Q

what is the preferred treatment for gonorrhea?

A

ceftriaxone 250mg IM single dose PLUS azithromycin 1g PO single dose
OR (for anogenital)
cefixime 800mg PO single dose PLUS azithromycin 1g PO single dose

59
Q

what is the alternate treatment for anogenital gonorrhea?

A

ceftriaxone 250mg IM single dose PLUS doxycycline 100mg BID x 7 days
OR
cefixime 800mg PO single dose PLUS doxycycline 100mg BID x 7 days

60
Q

what is the alternate treatment for pharyngeal gonorrhea?

A

cefixime 800mg PO single dose PLUS azithromycin 1g PO single dose

61
Q

counseling points for gonorrhea

A
  • cross-sensitivity between penicillins and second or third-generation cephalosporins is low
  • resistance is a concern - encourage adherence, treating all partners
  • azithromycin can be taken with food to minimize nausea or anti-emetics
62
Q

when are TOC cultures recommended for gonorrhea?

A

within a week for all positive sites and repeat screening is recommended 6 months post-treatment

63
Q

what causes syphilis?

A

treponema pallidum

64
Q

symptoms of primary syphilis

A

painless lesion (chancre)
regional lymphadenopathy
3 weeks (3-90 days)

65
Q

symptoms of secondary syphilis

A

rash
fever
malaise
lymphadenopathy
mucous lesions
condyloma lata
alopecia
meningitis
headaches
uveitis
retinitis
2-12 weeks (2 weeks to 6 months)

66
Q

symptoms of early latent syphilis

A

asymptomatic (positive serology)
< 1 year

67
Q

symptoms of late latent syphilis

A

asymptomatic (positive serology)
>/= 1 year

68
Q

symptoms of cardiovascular syphilis

A

aortic aneurysm
aortic regurgitation
coronary artery ostial stenosis
10-20 years

69
Q

symptoms of gumma syphilis

A

tissue destruction of any organ
1-46 years (most cases 15 years)

70
Q

symptoms of neurosyphilis, ocular syphilis

A

can be asymptomatic
headaches
vertigo
personality changes
dementia
ataxia
otic symptoms
ocular symptoms
early: within first year
late: 1-20 years

71
Q

what are the tertiary stages of syphilis?

A

cardiovascular syphilis
gumma
neurosyphilis, ocular syphilis

72
Q

symptoms of early congenital syphilis

A

2/3 may be asymptomatic
anemia
rhinitis
onset < 2 years

73
Q

symptoms of late congenital syphilis

A

anemia
neurosyphilis
bone involvement
hutchinson’s teeth
persistence > 2 years after birth

74
Q

what is the preferred treatment for primary, secondary and early latent syphilis?

A

benzathine penicillin G-LA 2.4 million units IM single dose

75
Q

what is the alternate treatment for primary, secondary and early latent syphilis?

A

doxycycline 100mg BID x 14 days

76
Q

what is the preferred treatment for late latent, cardiovascular syphilis, and gumma?

A

benzathine penicillin G-LA 2.4 million units IM weekly for 3 doses

77
Q

what is the alternate treatment for late latent, cardiovascular syphilis, and gumma?

A

doxycycline 100mg BID x 28 days

78
Q

counseling points for syphilis

A
  • abstain from sexual contact until lesions are completely healed and it has been 7 days since they received their final dose of treatment
  • condoms should be advised
  • no TOC - treatment response based on symptom resolution
79
Q

what is a Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction?

A
  • acute febrile reaction accompanied by headache, myalgia, chills and rigors
  • occurs within 1st 24 hours of syphilis therapy - reaction to therapy
  • manage with NSAID
  • may induce early labour or cause fetal distress in pregnancy
80
Q

what is the most common STI in the world?

A

HPV

81
Q

what are the low-risk types of HPV and what can they lead to?

A

6 and 11
may lead to anogenital warts, cervical lesions, and rare conditions such as recurrent respiratory papillomatosis

82
Q

what are the high-risk types of HPV and what can they lead to?

A

16 and 18
may lead to cancer - cervical, oropharyngeal, vulva, vagina, penis, anus

83
Q

HPV genital wart symptoms

A

asymptomatic
itchiness
discomfort during intercourse
bleeding with intercourse or shaving
warts on genitals

84
Q

HPV cancer symptoms

A

cervical cancer - little to no discomfort, hence regular screening
lesions can bleed, itch, cause pain

85
Q

what is the treatment for anogenital warts?

A

Topical and ablative
imiquimod cream (immune modulator)
- 3.75% cream daily and wash off after 8 hours OR
- 5% cream 3x/week apply and wash off after 6-10 hours
sinecatechins 10% ointment (extract of dried green tea leaves)
- apply 0.5cm strand TID, washing off not needed

86
Q

counselling for HPV treatment

A

avoid contact with healthy skin
refrain from sexual activity while undergoing treatment

87
Q

side effects of HPV treatments

A

skin reactions: itching, tenderness, erythema, ulceration

88
Q

what vaccines are available for HPV?

A

gardasil 9
cervarix - type 16 and 18

89
Q

what cause HSV?

A

herpes simplex virus type 1 and 2

90
Q

what is HSV-1 primarily associated with?

A

oral infection but may cause genital herpes

91
Q

what is HSV-2 primarily associated with?

A

genital infection but may also present orally as a result of oro-genital transmission (rare)

92
Q

how is HSV transmitted?

A

unprotected sex and via delivery of baby

93
Q

what does genital herpes increase risk of?

A

acquisition of HIV by two-fold

94
Q

where does HSV reside?

A

intracellularly within hots cell ganglia for life

95
Q

symptoms of primary infection of HSV

A

extensive, painful, bilateral vesiculo-ulcerative genital or anal lesions
fever, malaise, myalgia, headache (76%)
tender inguinal lymphadenopathy (80%)

96
Q

what is the duration of a primary infection of HSV?

A

17-20 days

97
Q

symptoms of recurrences after primary infection of HSV

A

prodromal symptoms for 1-2 days
unilateral localized small patch painful genital vesicles and ulcers
systemic symptoms - 5-12%

98
Q

what is the duration for a recurrence of HSV?

A

9-11 days

99
Q

symptoms of non-primary infection of HSV

A

dont last as long
less severe
less extensive

100
Q

what are the complications of non-primary infections of HSV?

A

meningitis
extragenital lesions

101
Q

what is the duration of a non-primary infection of HSV?

A

16 days

102
Q

what is the primary treatment for genital herpes?

A

acyclovir 200mg 5x/day x 5-10 days OR
famciclovir 250mg TID x 5 days OR
valacyclovir 1000mg BID x 10 days
*topicals not effective

103
Q

what is the primary treatment in pregnancy for genital herpes?

A

acyclovir 200mg QID x 5-10 days

104
Q

what is the primary treatment for severe genital herpes?

A

IV acyclovir 5mg/kg infused over 60 minutes q8h, convert to oral therapy once significantly improved

105
Q

what is the treatment for recurrent genital herpes?

A

valacyclovir 500mg BID or 1g daily x 3 days OR
famciclovir 125mg BID x 5 days OR
acyclovir 200mg 5x/day x 5 days

106
Q

what is the suppressive therapy for genital herpes?

A

acyclovir 200mg 3-5x/day or 400mg BID OR
famciclovir 250mg BID OR
valacyclovir 500mg daily(<9/yr) or 1000mg daily(>9/year)

107
Q

what is the suppressive treatment of genital herpes in pregnancy?

A

acyclovir 200mg QID OR
acyclovir 400mg TID OR
valacyclovir 500mg BID

108
Q

what is neonatal herpes?

A

occurs when baby is delivered through an infected vagina
initial symptoms ~4 weeks of age
results in genreralized systemic infection involving liver, other organs, CNS and skin

109
Q

what is the treatment for neonatal herpes?

A

acyclovir 45-60mg/kg/day IV in three equal 8-hourly infusions, each over 60 minutes for 14-21 days

110
Q

counseling for HSV

A

antivirals decrease severity/duration but don’t prevent recurrences
use as early as possible
abstain from sexual contact during symptomatic episodes
always use a condom as asymptomatic viral shedding can occur

111
Q

what causes monkeypox?

A

orthopoxvirus

112
Q

what are the symptoms of mpox?

A

rash
lymphadenopathy
systemic symptoms
self-resolving within 2-4 weeks