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Z MD1 Intersystems > sterilisation and infection prevention > Flashcards

sterilisation and infection prevention Flashcards

1
Q

what are the 3 main types of transmission of organisms

A

contact (direct and indirect)
airborne
droplet

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2
Q

which pathogens can be transferred from direct person to person contact

A

scabies

HSV

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3
Q

what is the difference between droplet and airborne pathogens

A
  • droplet >5microns - drop to the ground by ~1m

- airborne <5microns - stay in the air

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4
Q

which pathogens are considered to be spread by droplets

A 
influenza
pertussis
SARS
neisseria m.
rhinovirus
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5
Q

which pathogens are considered to be spread by the airborne route of transmission

A

TB
measles
varicella
measles

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6
Q

what are the 4 types of isolation precautions

A

standard precautions
contact precautions
droplet precautions
airborne precautions

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7
Q

when are standard precautions used

A

used for all patients at all times regardless of patient diagnosis or presumed infectious status

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8
Q

what is standard precautions

A

gloves, gowns, goggles/face shield when working with body fluids, non-intact skin and mucous membranes

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9
Q

what do you do for contact precautions

A
  • using gowns and gloves for all patient contact

- patient in a single room

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10
Q

which types of diseases would you do contact precautions

A
  • diarrhoea
  • excessive wound drainage
  • multidrug resistant organisms
  • respiratory viruses
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11
Q

what do you do for droplet precautions

A
  • using surgical masks for all patient contact

- single room for patient

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12
Q

what do you do for airborne precuations

A
  • negative pressure ventilation room

- N95 mask for all patient contact

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13
Q

what is the definition of sterilisation

A

the process of killing or removing all viable organisms, including viruses, bacteria, fungi and spores

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14
Q

what is the definition of disinfection

A

the process that eliminates many or all pathogen microorganisms on inanimate objects with the exception of bacterial spores

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15
Q

what is the definition of cleaning

A

the removal of visible soil from objects and surfaces

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16
Q

what is the spaulding classification

A

a classification of objects into critical, semicritical and noncritical disinfection depending on the objects use

17
Q

which objects are “critical”

A

those that enter normally sterile tissue –> need to be sterile

18
Q

which objects are semicritical

A

objects that touch mucous membranes or skin that is not intact –> need to be disinfected

19
Q

which objects are noncritical

A

objects that touch only intact skin –> require low level disinfection only

20
Q

what do you use to sterilise an object

A
  • usually steam

- for heat sensitive objects - other ways (hydrogen peroxide etc)

21
Q

what is asepsis

A

free from infection or infectious material

22
Q

what is ANTT

A

a technique used to prevent contamination of equipment and skin breaches by microorganisms that could cause infection

23
Q

what is in skin preps

A

combination of alcohol and chlorhexidine or alcohol and iodine

24
Q

what is the difference in action between chlorhexidine and iodine

A

chlorhexidine is not inactivated in the presence of organic material, while iodine is

25
Q

what is the most common source of nocosomial infection

A

patients own microbiota

26
Q

what is sterility assurance

A

the probability that the instrument is sterile

27
Q

What is the D value for a sterilisation procedure

A

the rate of kill - the time to reduce microbiota population 10 fold

28
Q

what is the antibiotic that is used as a surrogate for methicillin for “methicillin resistance testing”

A

cefoxitin

29
Q

what are the most common organisms causing endocarditis

A 
staph aureus
strep viridans
enterococci
strep pyogenes
staph epididermis
30
Q

which patients are the most susceptible to endocarditis

A

those with damaged valves

31
Q

what four things do you need to know to design an appropriate sterilisation process for a particular instrument

A
  • type and level of contamination
  • rate of biocidal action of agent (D value)
  • level of sterility assurance required
  • will the item survive the process
32
Q

why does a patient develop pseudomonas colitis

A

AB treatment –> kills rest of the microbiota in the gut –> then able to grow and produce toxins –> mucosal damage

33
Q

which nosicomial organisms respond well to alcohol-based hand hygiene programs, and which do not

A 
do = MRSA and gram-negative infections
don't = C. difficile, pseudomonas
34
Q

what is the thought around the source of VRE

A
  • about half arise de novo by microbiota passing on Tn1540 (Resistance plasmid)
  • direct patient contact

Z MD1 Intersystems (10 decks)

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