Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Step 2 stuff > Step 2 stuff > Flashcards

Step 2 stuff Flashcards

1
Q

WAGR

A

Wilms tumor- doesn’t cross midline
Aniridia
GU abnormalities
Mental retardation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

CATCH-22

A 
Cardiovascular abnormalities
Abnormal facies
Thymic aplasia
Cleft palate
HypoCa
22q11 del
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

VACTERAL

A 
vertebral
Anal
Cardiac
Trachea
Esophagus
Renal
Limb
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Causes of PEA= 5H’s and 5T’s

A 
Hypovolemia
Hypoxia
H+ ions: Acidosis
Hyper/HypoK
Tablets- drug OD or ingestion
Tamponade- cardiac tamponade
Tension pneumothorax
Thrombosis- coronary thrombosis, Pulmonary embolism
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Rate control in A.fib

A

Diltiazem

Beta blockers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Quad scrn for DS

A

MSAFP- dec
Estriol- dec
Inhibin A- inc
HcG- Inc

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Quad scrn for trisomy 18

A

AFP- dec
Estriol- dec
Inhibin- dec
HcG- dec

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Reactive NST=

A

2 accel > or = 15 BPM in if over 32 weeks of 10 if less than 32 weeks for > 15 secs over 20 min period

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

a positive CST (contraction stress testing) means

A

deliver baby

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

a negative CST means

A

baby is ok

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Things tested during biophysical profile

A 
Fetal Tone
Tetal Breathing
Fetal Movement
Amniotic fluid vol
NST
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

modified BPP includes

A

BPP + AFI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

when is OGTT preformed in preg

A

weeks 24-28

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Classic triad of pre-ecplampsia

A

HyPE

HTN, proteinuria, Edema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

HELLP syndrome

A

Hemolysis
Elevated liver enzymes
low platelets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

positive pregnancy test with inappropriate hCG doubling + empty uterus on US

A

Ectopic pregnancy- tx methotrexate or surgical with salpingectomy or salpingostomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

When to give RhoGAM

A

Give at 28 weeks- Rh neg mother and: father is RH+ or unknown.
Postpartum: Rh + baby w/ Rh neg mother
Rh neg mothers who have: abortion, ectopic preg, amniocentesis, vaginal bleeding, placenta previa/ placental abruption. Type and screen is critical. follow beta hcg closely for 1 year to prevent preg.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Fever > 38, uterine tenderness, and malodorous lochia

A

Pospartum endometritis- give clinda and gent, add amp if complicated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Precocious puberty, osteolytic bone lesions, cafe- au lait spots

A

Mccune Albright syndrome- stimulation of ovarian aromatase to produce estrogen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

3 causes of primary amenorrhea w/ secondary sex characteristics

A

Mullerian agenesis- absence of 2/3 of vagina, uterine abnormalities
Complete androgen insensitivity- have breasts, lack pubic hair 46 XY

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

MCC of primary amenorrhea

A

constitutional growth delay- short stature with bone age <12, and normal growth velocity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

noncyclical pain, menorrhagia, enlarged uterus

A

Adenomyosis- tx = NSAIDs + OCP and progestins, endometrial ablation, hysterectomy is only definitive tx, can rarely progress to endometiral cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Tx for vWD is

A

desmopressin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Acute causes of pelvic pain

A 
A ROPE
Appendicitis
Ruptured ovarian cyst
Ovarian torsion or abscess
PID
Ectopic preg
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Major causes of death in TSS

A

ARDS, intractable hypoTN, DIC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Tumor markers in Epithelial Ovarian cancer

A

CA- 125

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Tumor markers in Endodermal Sinus tumor

A

AFP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Tumor markers in Embryonal Carcinoma

A

AFP, hCG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Tumor markers in Choriocarcinoma

A

hCG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Dygerminoma

A

LDH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Graunlosa cell tumor

A

Inhibin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Hemoptysis (lower Resp) + Hematuria (Renal)

A

Goodpastures Syndrome- Anti GBM Ab

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Sinusitis (Upper Resp) + Hemoptysis (lower reap) + Hematuria (Renal)

A

Wegners granulomatosis= c-ANA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Anti mt- Ab

A

Billiary cirrhosiis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Anti parietal cell Ab

A

Pernicious anemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Anti Smooth muscle Ab

A

autoimmune hepatitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Back or Chest Pain (lytic bone lesions- worse with activity) + Anemia + thrombocytopenia + HyperCa + RF

A

Multiple Myeloma- confirm w/ bone marrow bx.

Have monoclonal protein in serum or Urine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Facial Plethora + Splenomegaly in the setting of high counts in all cell lines predominantly RBC

A

Multiple myeloma- low EPO, elevated Alk phos, common tosis of all cell lines due to Fe deficiency (microcytosis). Often have itching after hot bath

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Foreigner or foreign travel with new onset seizures that is otherwise healthy

A

Neurocysticercosis- tx is albendazole with gluccocorticoids, occasinally sx. dx with abnormal head CT and immunoblot from LP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

In ventilated pt- unilateral opacification + shift of mediastinal structures to the opposite side=

A

Obstruction via mucous plug- tx and prevent with suction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Cirrhosis + Platypnea + Orthodexia=

A

Heptaopulmonary Syndrome- complication of renal failure

42
Q

In the setting of PE can an echo be helpful

A

Yes to evaluate for Right heart strain which would strongly indicate a PE, leading to a CT angio for further eval

43
Q

Sensineural hearing loss + hematuria + Lenticonus=

A

Alport syndrome- XR defect in type IV collagen- most have absence of alpha-5 chain, may be alpha 3 or 4.

44
Q

How is Alport syndrome dx

A

immunohistochemical skin assay demonstrating lack of alpha 5 chain from type IV collagen

45
Q

Lab abnormalities in rhabdo

A

Hyper- K, PO4, uricemia.
HypoCa
Elevated CK-MM, LDH, aldolase, aminotransferase.
UA + for blood w/o RBC on microscopy.
Metabolic acidosis from- PO4, sulfate, uric acid, and lactic acid

46
Q

Beneficial diet in RF

A

supplement Ca

47
Q

INH AE

A

Hepatotoxicity and Anion gap metabolic lactic acidosis

48
Q

Pathophysiology of RTA 1

A

no distal tubular acid secretion

49
Q

Nephrocalcinosis and nephrolithiasis are features of which RTA

A

1

50
Q

Which RTA has a U/A with alkalotic urine and low serum H

A

1

51
Q

RTA with a low serum K

A

1 and 2

52
Q

how is RTA 1 diagnosed

A

acid load test

53
Q

treatment for RTA 1

A

Oral HCO3

54
Q

Pathophys of RTA 2

A

no proximal tubular HCO3 absorption. Associated with Acetazolamide.

55
Q

Which RTA has osteomalacia and rickets, osteolytic bone lesions

A

2

56
Q

U/A of RTA2

A

alkalotic urine with decreased urine output

57
Q

diagnosis of RTA 2

A

HCO3 load test- level remain low

58
Q

treatment of RTA2

A

1) Volume restriction

2) High dose HCO3 +/- thiazide

59
Q

pathophys of RTA 4

A

adrenal/ aldosterone deficiency

60
Q

Which RTA has hyperkalemia

A

4

61
Q

U/A of RTA 4

A

Na excretion with K-H retention

62
Q

Diagnosis of RTA 4

A

Na restriction- will still show high urine Na

63
Q

tx of RTA 4

A

fludracortisone

64
Q

low Urine output and low urinary Na in the setting of cirrhosis or billiard obstruction

A

Hepatorenal syndrome- requires liver transplant

ESLD –> renal vasoconstricion —> DCT conserves Na

65
Q

HTN + hematuria + bilateral cystic kidneys=

A

Adult polycystic kidney disease- autosomal dom. AKPD-2 has better prognosis then 1

66
Q

Extra or intra glomerular hematuria: color is pink/red, clots- present (may not be), port <500 mg.day, RBCs have normal morphology, RBC casts are absent

A

Extraglomerular- ie trauma to kidney or urologic tract, nephrolithiasis, cystitis, cancer of kidney or urologic tract

67
Q

Extra or intraglomerular hematuria: Color is red/ smoky brown/ or coca cola, absent clots, protein >500 mg/day, dysmorphic RBC’s, and RBC casts may be present.

A

Intraglomeruluar- glomerular disease i.e. glomerulonephritis, vasculitis, and glomerulopathies

68
Q

HTN + hematuria + proteinuria (<2+)

A

Nephritic syndrome- MC in adults= IgA nephropathy, PSGN, Rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis, SLE. Most accurate test is Kidney bx

69
Q

In the setting of testicular mass- U/s shows homogenous hypoechoic mass=

A

Seminoma

70
Q

In the setting of testicular mass- U/S shows cystic mass with Ca =

A

Non Seminoma- elevated AFP

71
Q

Tx of Uric acid stones

A

Fluid, NSAIDs, Alk urine w/ Kcitrate or KHOC3 .

Uric acid stones (even larger ones) rarely require lithotripsy

72
Q

ST segment depression, T wave flattening, U waves

A

hypoK- weakness, cramping, fasiculations, paralysis, tetany, rhabdo, hypoTN, paralytic illeus.
Can also cause arrhythmias and AV block

73
Q

Effect of Epi on K

A

increases cellular uptake, therefore beta blockers can cause hyper K.

74
Q

Causes of HyperCa- CHIMPANZEES

A 
Ca supplementation
HyperPTH/HyperTH
Iatrogenic (thiazides)/ Immobility (ICU)
Milk-Alkalai syndrome
Paget's disease
Adrenal insufficiency/Acromegaly
Neoplasm- breast, SqCC, Mult Myeloma
Zollinger Ellison Syndrome- MEN 1
Excess vitamin A
Excess vitamin D
Sarcoidosis or other granulomatis diseases
Tx with IV hydration and furosemide
75
Q

EKG findings in hyper Ca

A

shortened QT interval

76
Q

EKG findings in HypoCa

A

prolonged QT interval

77
Q

Electrolyte abnormalities associated with Hypo Mg

A

HypoCa and HypoK (diarrhea)- neither will correct without correcting underlying Mg

78
Q

EKG in HypoMG

A

prolonged PR and QT

79
Q

anion gap metabolic acidosis- MUDPILES

A 
Methanol (formic acid)
Uremia
DKA
Paraldehyde or Phenformin
Iron tablets, INH
Lactic Acidosis- mesenteric ischemia
Ethylene glycol (oxalic acid)
Salicylates
80
Q

Indications for Dialysis- AEIOU

A

Acidosis
Electrolyte abnormalities- HyperK
Ingestion- Salicylates, Theophylline, methanol, barbiturates, LI, Ethylene glycol
Overload- fluid
Uremic symptoms- pericarditis, encephalopathy, bleeding, nausea, pruritis, myoclonus

81
Q

in setting of AKI- hyaline casts=

A

volume depletion, can be a normal finding

82
Q

Red cell casts/ dysmorphic RBC’s

A

glomerulonephritis

83
Q

White cell casts. eosinophils

A

Allergic interstial nephritis, arthroembolic disease

84
Q

muddy brown casts, granular casts, renal tubular casts

A

Acute tubular necrosis

85
Q

White cells, White cell casts

A

Pyelonephritis

86
Q

Loop diuretics that aren’t sulfa’s

A

Ethacrynic acid

87
Q

Type of diuretic that causes ototoxicity

A

loop diuretics

88
Q

Equal diastolic pressures in all 4 heart chambers =

A

constrictive pericarditis

89
Q

Most specific auto Ab for lupus

A

Anti dsDNA- can be used to follow progression of dz

Anti-Smith

90
Q

Most sensitive autoAb for SLE

A

ANA

91
Q

Anticentromere Ab

A

CREST

92
Q

Antihistone ab

A

drug induced lupus- hydrazine, procainamide

93
Q

Antijo-1 ab

A

Dermatomyositis

94
Q

Anti-Ro Ab

A

Sjogrens syndrome
subacute cutaneous lupus
neonatal lupus erythematous

95
Q

At what Na level is 3% Saline indicated in hypoNa

A

<110 or AMS, seizure or coma. Rate of correction should not exceed 0.5-1 mEq/L/hr. and should stop when symptoms resolve

96
Q

Arthritis that involves Herberdeens (PIP) and Brouchards (DIP) nodes

A

OA

97
Q

foul smelling/ green frothy vaginal discharge with punctate hemorrhages (strawberry cervix)

A

Trichomonas- KOH wet mout for dx, tx is metronidazole

98
Q

Unexplained CHF that is predominantly diastolic dysfunction, echo w/ inc vent wall thickness, and normal ventricular cavity dimensions. Especially in the absence of hypoTN + low voltage EKG

A

Cardiac amyloidosis

99
Q

Hypertensive urgency

A

severe HTN >180/120 w/ no ssx or acute end organ damage

100
Q

Malignant HTN

A

severe HTN with retinal hemorrhages, exudate, or papilledema

101
Q

Hypertensive encephalopathy

A

severe HTN with cerebral edema and non localizing neurologic ssx

Step 2 stuff (7 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions