Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Fennel the Cat Step 2 > Step 2 Peds > Flashcards

Step 2 Peds Flashcards

1
Q

SGA infants are at risk for what complications?

A

SGA infants are at risk for hypoxia, perinatal asphyxia, meconium aspiration, hypothermia, hypoglycemia, hypocalcemia, and polycythemia. Polycythemia results from increased EPO secretion in response to fetal hypoxia.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

PDT for laryngomalacia

A

collapse of supraglottic tissues on inspiration causes inspiratory stridor, peak at 4-8 months, dx laryngoscopy, management=reassurance, close f/u, likely GER tx, and supraglottoplasty in severe cases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Nontender abdominal mass associated with increased vanillylmandelic acid and homovanillic acid

A

neuroblastoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Most common type of tracheoesophageal fistula. Classic presentation?

A

Esophageal atresia with distal TEF (85%). Unable to pass the NG tube.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Mild illness and/or low grade fever-OK for vaccines?

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Current antibiotics-OK for vaccines?

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Prematurity-OK for vaccines?

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Tests to rule out abusive head trauma

A

optho exam, head CT + MRI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Neonate w meconium illeus might also have what disease?

A

Cystic fibrosis (Hirschsprung disease is associated w failure to pass meconium for 48 hours)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Billious emesis within hours of the first feeding

A

duodenal atresia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

2 month old baby w non billious projectile emesis. Dx? Appropriate steps in management?

A

Pyloric stenosis. Hydrate, correct metabolic abnormalities, then pyloromyotomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Most common primary immunodeficiency?

A

Selective IgA deficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Infant has high fever and rash onset as fever breaks

A

Febrile seizure due to roseola infantum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Boy w chronic respiratory infections. Nitroblue tetrazolium is negative. What is the immunodeficiency?

A

Chronic granulomatous disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Child has eczema, thrombocytopenia, and high level of IgA. What is the immunodeficiency?

A

Wiskott-Aldrich Syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

4 month old with life threatening Pseudomonas infection. What is the immunodeficiency?

A

Bruton’s x-linked agammaglobulinemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Acute phase treatment for Kawasaki disease?

A

High-dose ASA for inflammation and fever; IVIG to prevent coronary artery aneurysm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Treatment for mild and severe unconjugated hyperbillirubinemia?

A

mild: phototherapy
severe: exchange transfusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Sudden onset of mental status change, emesis and liver dysfunction. Parents gave baby some med for fever yesterday. Dx?

A

Reye syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Child lacks red eye reflex. Dx? increased risk of what cancer?

A

Retinoblastoma. Increased risk of osteosarcoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Vaccinations at 6 months?

A

Hep B, DTaP, HiB, IPV, PCV, rotavirus.

What is the immunodeficiency?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Infection of small airways with epidemics in winter and spring

A

RSV bronchiolitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Cause of neonatal RDS

A

surfactant deficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Colicy abdominal pain, billious vomting, sausage shaped mass in RUQ

A

Intussusception (also red currant jelly stools)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Vaccine schedule w mnemonic: Be / DR HIP / HHave2VeryManyPatients/DIM/Hurt Many Teens

A

Birth: Hep B
2, 4, 6: DtaP, Rotavirus, HiB, Hep B (2,6 only), IPV, PCV
12: HHave 2 Very Many Patients: HiB, Hep A, VZV, MMRV, PCV
4-6 yo: DTaP, IPV, MMRV
Teens: HPC, MCV, Tdap

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Congenital heart disease that causes secondary hypertension. What would you find on physical exam?

A

Coarctation of the aorta. Decreased femoral pulses.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Tx for otitis media

A

amox

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Most common pathogen that causes croup

A

parainfluenza virus type 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Homeless child small for his age, peeling skin, swollen belly

A

Kwashiorkor (protein malnutrition)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Defect in x-linked syndrome with mental retardation, gout, self-mutilation and choreoathetosis

A

Lesch-Nyhan syndrome (purine salvage problem with HGPRTase deficiency)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Newborn with machine like murmur. What drug do you give?

A

PDA. Indomethacin closes it.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Newborn w posterior neck mass and swelling of hands. Dx?

A

Turner syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Child w proximal muscle weakness, waddling gait and pronounced calf muscles.

A

Duchenne muscular dystrophy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

First born female in breech position found to have aysymmetric skin folds on newborn exam. Dx? Tx?

A

Developmental dysplasia of the hip. If severe, consider a Pavlik harness to maintain abduction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

11 yo african american boy w sudden onset of limp

A

Slipped capital femoral epiphysis. AP and frog-leg lateral radiographs

36
Q

An active 13 yo w anterior knee pain. Dx?

A

Osgood-Schlatter Disease

37
Q

Out of the R–>L heart defects, which one shows up within the first few hours of life w severe cyanosis?

A

Transposition of the great vessels (2 arteries are switched)

38
Q

Which one? Neisseria vs. chlamydia isolated on vaginal cx of child definitively indicates sexual abuse?

A

Nisseria. Chalymdia can be acquired from mother during delivery and can persist for up to 3 years

39
Q

What are the 3 L–>R shunts?

A

3D’s and C:

VSD, ASD, PDA + Coarctation

40
Q

Which heart defect has a fixed, widely split S2?

A

ASD

41
Q

In Eisenmenger syndrome, a left to right shunt leads to what?

A

Pulmonary hypertension and shunt reversal

42
Q

ASD and endocardial cushion defects are associated with what disorder?

A

Down syndrome

43
Q

PDA is associated with what disorder?

A

Congenital rubella

44
Q

Coarctation of the aorta is associated with what disorder?

A

Turner syndrome (many pts also have a bicuspid aortic valve

45
Q

Coronary artery aneurysm is associated with what disorder?

A

Kawasaki syndrome

46
Q

Congenital heart block is associated with what disorder?

A

Neonatal lupus

47
Q

Supraclavicular aortic stenosis is associated with what disorder?

A

Williams syndrome. Supraclavicular aortic stenosis is the least common form of left ventricular outflow tract obstruction. Williams syndrome is also characterized by unusual facial features, intellectual disabiity and hypercalcemia

48
Q

Conotruncal abnormalities are associated with what disorder?

A

Tetrakigt if Fakkit (overiding aorta), truncus arteriosus, DiGeorge syndrome, velocardiofacial syndrome

49
Q

Ebstein anomaly is associated with what disorder?

A

Lithium use during pregnancy

50
Q

Heart failure is associated with what disorder?

A

neonatal thyrotoxicosis

51
Q

Asymmetric septal hypertrophy and transposition of the great vessels is associated with what disorder?

A

Maternal diabetes

52
Q

Auscultation findings of ASD

A

Wide fixed split S2, systolic ejection murmur at LUSB, (increased flow across pulmonary valve). Mid-diastolic rumble at LLSB.

53
Q

Auscultation findings of VSD

A

Harsh holosystolic murmur at LLSB. Narrow S2 with increased pulmonic component. Mid-diastolic apical rumble (due to increased flow across the mitral valve).

54
Q

ECG findings of ASD

A

RVH. Right atrial enlargement, PR prolongation

55
Q

DDX for infants (0-4 weeks) presenting w shock-like symptoms?

A
  1. sepsis
  2. inborn errors of metabolism
  3. ductal-dependent congenital heart disease, usually left-sided lesions (as the duct is closing)
  4. CAH
56
Q

DiGeorge Syndrome: CATCH 22

A 
Cardiac Abnormalities (transposition)
Abnl face
Thymic aplasia
Cleft palate
Hypocalcemia
22q11 deletion
57
Q

What is the most common cyanotic heart disease of newborns?

A

Transposition of the great vessels?

58
Q

What is the most common cyanotic heart disease of children?

A 
Tetraology of Fallot
1. Overriding Aorta
2. VSD
3. RV outflow tract obsturction
4. RVH
Boot shaped heart
59
Q

Intial treatment for both transposition of great vessels and tetraology of Fallot?

A

PGE to keep the PDA open, but then surgical correction

60
Q

What are common signs of autism

A

No babbling by 12 motnsh, no two-word phrases by 24 months, impaired social interaction, restricted interests and insistence on routine.

61
Q

Age for delayed puberty in girls? boys?

A

girls=13, boys =14

62
Q

Characteristics of Edwards syndrome

A

Rocker bottom feed, low-set ears, micrognathia, clenched hands, prominent occiput, assc’d w congenital heart disease and horseshoe kidneys. death by 1 yo

63
Q

Characteristics of Patau syndrome

A

Micropthalamia, microcephalmia, cleft lip/palate, holoprosencephaly, punched out scalp lesions, polydactyly, omphalocele, assc’d w congenital heart disease. death witnin y yo

64
Q

Tall stature, gynecomastia, female hair distribution. Dx?

A

Kleinfelter syndrome (XXY), treat w testosterone

65
Q

PKU PDT

A

P/w intellectual disabilities, fair hair and skin, eczema, blond hair, blue eyes, and musty urine. Assc’d increased risk of heart disease. autosomal recessive
Dx w newborn screen
Tx decreased phenylalanine and increased tyrosine

66
Q

Fragile X P D T

A

P: large jaw, testes,and ears, autistic behavior
D: genetic: FMR1 gene
Tx none

67
Q

Fabry Disease PD? deficiency of? inheritance?

A

P : first sign is severe neuropathic limb pain, also presents with joint swelling. Other findings include renal failure, and an increased risk of stroke and MI (thromboembolic events). Skin infolgement takes the form of angiokeratomas and telangiectasias
Dx: XLR deficiency of alpha-glactosidase A that leads to accumulation of ceramide trihexoside in heart, brain, and kidneys

68
Q

Krabbe Disease PD? deficiency of? inheritance?

A

P: Charaterized by progressive CNS degeneration, optic atrophy, spasticity, and death within first 3 years of life. Autosomal recessive

D: visulazie globoid cells. Absence of glactosylceramide and galactoside (due to galactosylceramidase deficiency) leading to acculumation of falactocerebroside in the brain

69
Q

Gaucher Dz PD? deficiency of? inheritance?

A

P: Pancydopenia, early, rapid neurologic decline (infantile form) or adult form compatible with nl life span. Organomegaly of liver, spleen.

D: Autosomal recessive. Caused by a deficiency of glucocerebrosidase that leads to the accumulation of glucocerebroside in brain, liver, spleen, and bone marrow. Gaucher cells have a characteristic crinkled paper-like appearance w enlarged cytolasm.

70
Q

Nieman-Pick Disease PD? deficiency of? inheritance?

A

P: cherry red spot and HSM. Patients w type A die by 3 yo

D: autosomal recessive. Deficiency of sphingomyelinase that leads to buildup of sphingomyelin cholesterol in reticuloendothelial and parenchymal cells and tissues

Mne: No man PICKs (NiemanPick) with his sphinger.

71
Q

Tay-Sachs PD deficiency of? inheritance?

A

P: Infants may be nl until 3-6 months then weakness appears and development slows and regresses. An exaggerated statle respnse may be seen. P/w cherry red spot BUT NO HSM.
D: Autosomal recessive. 1/30 Ashkenazi jews are carriers.
Mne; Tax-Sax lacks heXosaminidase (leading to GM ganglioside accumulation

72
Q

Metachromatic leukodystrophy PD deficiency of? inheritance?

A

P: deymelination, ataxia, dementia

D: autosomal recessive. Deficiency of arylsulfatase A that leads to acculumation of sulfatide in brain, kidney, liver and peripheral nerves

73
Q

Hurler syndrome. deficiency of? inheritance?

A

Deficiency of alpha-L-iduronidase.

Pts present w corneal clouding, intellectual disabilities and gargoylism. Autosomal recessive

74
Q

Hunter syndrome. deficiency of? inheritance?

A

Deficiency of iduronate sulfatase. A mild form of hurler syndrome w NO CORNEAL CLOUDING. and mild intelectual disabilities. XLR.
Mne: Hunters need to see (no corneal clouding) to aim for the X

75
Q

Nearly all cases of meconium ileus are due to what genetic disease?

A

cystic fibrosis

76
Q

Most cases of pyloric stenosis occur between what months of life?

A

3 weeks-3 months

77
Q

Meckels rule of 2s? and PDT

A

Occurs in 2% of population, 2% symptomatic by age 2, 2x more common in boys, contains 2 types of tissue (gastric and pancreatic), 2 inches long, found within 2 feet of the ileocecal valve.
P: painless rectal bleeding, most cases discovered incidentally

D: technetium 99 pertechnetate scan

T: surgical excision

78
Q

Most common cause of bronchiolitis?

A

RSV

79
Q

Most common cause of croup?

A

Parainfluenza

80
Q

Kawasaki disease symptoms

A

CRASH and BURN
C: Conjunctivitis, sparing limbic area
R: Rash, primarily truncal, polymorphous, erythematous
A: Adeonapathy (unilateral), generally painful
S: strawberry tongue
H: hands and feed (red, swollen, flaky skin)
BURN: fever>40C/104F for 5 or more days

81
Q

Common bugs of meningitis for newborns? infants/children? adolescents?

A

newborns: GBS, E.Coli, Listeria
infants/children: Strep pneumo, Nisseria, Haemophilus
adolescents: Nisseria, Strep pneumo

82
Q

What are the risks for giving neonates CTX?

A

biliary sludging + kernicterus

83
Q

Most common childhood malignancy?

A

ALL, followed by CNS tumors and lymphoma

84
Q

What are the lab characteristics of tumor lysis syndrome?

A

hyperkalemia, hyperphosphatemia, hyperuricemia, and hypocalcemia (bc calcium is bound by phosphate that is released from the neoplastic cells). Corticosteroids may precipitate tumor lysis syndrome

85
Q

DDX of limp in Pediatric pt? STARTSS HOTT

A 
Septic joint
Trauma
Avascular necrosis
Rheumatoid arthritis/JIA
Tuberculosis
Sickle cell disease
Slipped caiptal femoral epiphysis

Henoch-Schonlein purpura
Osteomyelitis
Tumor
Toxic synovitis

86
Q

Selective IgA Deficiency. PDT.

A

The most common primary immunodeficiency syndrome.
Clinical features
Often asymptomatic
May manifest with sinusitis or respiratory infections (S. pneumoniae, H. influenzae), chronic diarrhea (Giardia), steatorrhea
Associated with gluten-sensitive enteropathy, inflammatory bowel disease
Diagnosis: serum IgA level < 7 mg/dL, with normal IgG and IgM levels
T:ABX
Sketch:
Great Bruton Play

Fennel the Cat Step 2 (15 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions