Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Step 2 Qbank > Step 2 Flashcards pt. 2 > Flashcards

Step 2 Flashcards pt. 2

1
Q

role of hCG during pregnancy

A

preserves corpus luteum during early pregnancy to maintain progesterone secretion until the placenta is able to produce progesterone on its own

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

salvage therapy

A

Treatment for disease when the standard therapy fails

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

schizophrenia CT findings

A

increased ventricular size on CT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

screening for 0-5 year olds

A

strabismus, amblyopia, and refractive errors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

sepsis ppx for splenectomy

A

anti-pneumococcal, H flu, and menin vaccines before operation, daily PO PCN 3-5 years s/p

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

serum sickness-like reaction

A

hypersensitivity reaction 1-2 weeks after administration of certain drugs (PCN, amox, TMP-SMX)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

severe pre-eclampsia

A

BP>160/110, protein excretion >5g/24hrs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

SGA complications

A

hypoxia, polycythemia, hypoglycemia, hypothermia, and hypocalcemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

shizoaffective disorder

A

presence of mood symptoms during the course of schizophrenia like symptoms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

shown to reduce the morbidity and mortality of measles

A

vitamin A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

sickle cell aplastic crisis

A

acute severe anemia with low/absent retics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

side effect: dihydropyridine Ca channel antagonists

A

peripheral edema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

single most preventable cause of fetal growth restriction in the US

A

smoking

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

steps in suspected meningitis in children

A

blood cx, lumbar puncture then abx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Stepwise treatment for ascites

A

1) sodium and water restriction, 2) spironolactone, 3) loop diuretic, 4) frequent abdominal paracentesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

steroid induced folliculitis

A

monomorphous pink papules and absence of comedones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

susceptibility bias

A

type of selection bias where treatment regimen is selected based on severity of their condition; negates the benefits of randomization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

tacrolimus toxicity

A

same as cyclosporin but no hirsutism or gum hypertrophy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

tamoxifen MOA

A

selective estrogen receptor modulator (antagonist in breast, partial-agonist in endometrium and osteoclasts)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

TB chemoppx for positive PPD

A

isoniazid for 9 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

test for macular degeneration

A

grid test, lines appear curved

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

tetanus ppx: minor/clean wound who has >3 toxoid doses

A

none

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

tetanus ppx: minor/clean wound who is unimmunized, uncertain or <3 toxoid doses

A

tetanus toxoid only

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

tetanus ppx: severe/dirty wound who has >3 toxoid doses

A

toxoid if latest booster given >5 years ago

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

tetnus ppx: severe/dirty wound who is unimmunized, uncertain or <3 toxoid doses

A

toxoid and Ig

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

thalassemia trait labs

A

microcytic anemia with mild reticulocyte elevation; RDW, MCHC, TIBC and ferritin levels normal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

The rest of descent

A

Lack of changing two hours for primigravid patients or one hour from multigravida patients

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

thyroid hormone changes during pregnancy

A

increased total T3/T4 (normal free) from HCG stim of TSH receptors and increased TGB concentration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

timing for gestational diabetes

A

24-28 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

to differentiate saline responsive/resistant metabolic alkalosis

A

saline responsive has a chloride <20

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

To familial disorders of conjugated hyperbilirubinemia

A

Dubin-Johnson and rotor syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

torus palatinus

A

congenital, benign bony growth of midline suture of the hard palate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

toxicity: cyclophosphamide

A

hemorrhagic cystitis, bladder carcinoma, sterility, and myelosuppression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

toxoplasmosis dx

A

multiple ring enhancing lesions, serology NOT specific

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

triad of congential rubella

A

sensorineural deafness, cardiac malformation, and cataracts; usually only occurs if infected first 4 weeks)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

trimethoprim electrolyte disturbance

A

hyperkalemia, blocks epithelial sodium channel in the collecting tubes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Turcot’s syndrome

A

association between brain tumors and FAP or HNPCC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

tx: absence seizures

A

ethosuxamide or valproic acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

tx: Actinomyces

A

Penicillin, high-dose for 6 to 12 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

TX: acute aortic dissection

A

Beta blockade

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

tx: acute limb ischemia

A

IV heparin then definitive tx (surgical, finbrinolysis, embolectomy)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

tx: acute MS flare

A

IV corticosteroids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

tx: amebic liver abscess

A

PO metronidazole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

tx: asymptomatic bacteriuria in pregnancy

A

7 days nitrofurantoin, amoxicillin, or first generation cephalosporin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

tx: benign intracranial HTN

A

acetazolamide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

tx: bipolar maintainence

A

moderate: atypical antipsychotics or monotherapy lithium or valproate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

severe: combo lithium or valproate plus atpyical antipsychotic

A

…

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

tx: blastomycosis

A

itraconazole or amphotericin B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

tx: candida vulvovaginitis

A

azole anti-fungal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

TX: cat scratch disease

A

usually resolves but can use 5 days of azithromycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

tx: central precocious puberty

A

r/o CNS lesion, GnRH agonist to prevent premature fusion of the epiphyseal plates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

tx: chalmydia

A

1 dose azithromycin or 7 day course of doxycycline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

TX: chronic hep B

A

Persistently elevated ALT levels, detectable serum HBS AG, HBE AG, and HPV DNA; treatment with interferon or the lamivudine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

TX: clubfoot

A

Stretching and manipulation of the foot followed by plaster cast, knowledgeable splints, we’re taping

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

TX: cradle cap

A

moisturizers, antifungals and topical steroids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

tx: dermatitis herpetiformis

A

gluten free diet and dapsone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

tx: DUB moderate, no active bleeding

A

progestin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

tx: DUB, mild

A

iron supplementation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

tx: DUB, moderate with uncontrolled bleeding or severe

A

estrogen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

TX: dumping syndrome

A

Dietary changes, octreotide in resistant cases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

tx: empiric neutropenia with fever

A

ceftazidime or cefepime

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

tx: endometrial hyperplasia without atypia

A

cyclic progestins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

TX: esophageal coins

A

Observed for 24 hours, if symptomatic remove with flexible endoscopy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

tx: ethylene glycol poisoning

A

fomeipzole or ethanol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

tx: excessive feto-maternal hemorrhage in the setting of Rh - mother

A

need to adjust and correct the dose of rho-gam

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

tx: fibromusclular dysplasia of renal artery

A

stent placement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

tx: first line asymptomatic bacteruria during pregnancy

A

amoxicillin, nitrofurantoin, and cephalexin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

tx: gastric mucosa-assocaited MALT

A

antibiotic therapy for the eradiction of H pylori

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

tx: GERD in infants

A

thickened feeds, positioning to decreased intraabdominal pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

tx: hairy cell leukemia

A

cladribine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

tx: HELLP syndrome

A

delivery if after 34 weeks, steroids/lung development if stable and under 34 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

tx: histoplasmosis

A

itraconazole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

tx: HIV dysphagia

A

empiric fluconazole

74
Q

tx: HIV dysphagia non-responsive to fluconazole

A

IV gancyclovir

75
Q

tx: hypercalcemia of immobilization

A

hydration, bisphosphinates

76
Q

tx: immune thrombocytopenia

A

corticosteroids for plt <30,0000

77
Q

tx: induce ovulation in PCOS

A

clomiphene citrate (estrogen analog)

78
Q

tx: inevitable abortion

A

suction curretage and rho-gam if Rh-negative

79
Q

tx: infant VSD

A

is small, observation (will sound much harsher)

80
Q

TX: inflamed, fluctuant lymph nodes

A

dicloxacillin, cephalexin or clindamycin

81
Q

tx: inpatient opiod withdrawal

A

oral or IM methadone

82
Q

tx: intrauterine fetal demise, coagulation abnormalities

A

induction of labor, low fibrinogen and platelets can indicate DIC

83
Q

TX: isolated duodenal hematoma

A

Conservatively with nasogastric suction and parenteral nutrition

84
Q

tx: kawasaki’s

A

ASA and IVIG w/in 10 days to prevent cardiac complications

85
Q

tx: lichen sclerosis

A

high-potency topical steroids

86
Q

TX: local impetigo

A

Topical mupirocin or oral erythromycin

87
Q

TX: Lyme Disease in children

A

Amoxicillin <8 years old

88
Q

tx: malignant otitis externa

A

ciprofloxacin

89
Q

TX: mastitis

A

Dicloxacillin or cephalosporins, continue breast-feeding from the affected breast

90
Q

tx: meniere’s disease

A

environmental and dietary modifications; low sodium diet

91
Q

tx: minimal change disease

A

empiric steroid therapy in any child with suggestive presentation

92
Q

tx: minor cat bites

A

amoxicillin/clavulanate for 5 days

93
Q

tx: morton neuroma

A

bilateral inserts

94
Q

tx: mucormycosis

A

aggressive surgical debridement plus early systemic chemotherapy

95
Q

tx: multiple brain mets

A

palliative whole brain radiation

96
Q

tx: narcolepsy

A

psychostimulants, scheduled daytime naps, combination antidepressants and psychostimulants

97
Q

tx: neonatal chalmydial conjunctivitis

A

PO erythromycin

98
Q

tx: neonatal gonococcal conjunctivitis

A

IV/IM ceftriaxone/cefotaxime

99
Q

tx: nocardia

A

TMP-SMX

100
Q

TX: overflow incontinence from epidural anesthesia

A

Intermittent catheterization

101
Q

tx: pertussis

A

macrolide antibiotics

102
Q

tx: polymyalgia rheumatica

A

low dose prednisone

103
Q

tx: post partum endometritis

A

IV clindamycin and gentamicin

104
Q

tx: pseudomonas

A

cefepime or pip/tazo

105
Q

tx: pulmonary edema from MI

A

diuretics necessary adjunct

106
Q

tx: RA

A

DMARD should begin ASAP, in active disease MTX the drug of choice

107
Q

tx: relapsing-remitting MS

A

Beta-interferon or glatiramer acetate

108
Q

TX: RV infarct

A

Fluid resuscitation, nitrates should be avoided

109
Q

tx: SCC of vagina in poor surigcal canditate

A

radiation, highly effective

110
Q

tx: SCFE

A

immediate surgical screw fixation

111
Q

tx: second line treatment depression

A

different SSRI (same class)

112
Q

tx: septic abortion

A

abx and gentle suction curettage (vigorous curettage associated with perforation)

113
Q

tx: severe SIADH

A

hypertonic saline

114
Q

tx: SIADH asymptomatic

A

fluid restriction and/or salt tablets

115
Q

TX: Sickle cell stroke

A

Exchange transfusion acutely

116
Q

TX: sinus braducardia

A

atropine–>pacing–>permanent pacemaker

117
Q

tx: symptomatic gallstones but no surgery

A

ursodeoxycholic acid; dissolves small radiolucent stones

118
Q

TX: symptomatic moderate or severe hypercalcemia

A

saline, calcitonin, and bisphosphonate

119
Q

TX: symptomatic Paget’s disease of the bone

A

Oral or IV amino bisphosphonates

120
Q

tx: syphilis in those allergic to PCN

A

2 weeks doxycycline or one dose azithromycin

121
Q

tx: tinea versicolor

A

selenium sulfide

122
Q

TX: Tourette’s syndrome

A

Typical antipsychotics such as haloperidol pimozide

123
Q

tx: trigeminal neuralgia

A

carbamazepine

124
Q

tx: uric acid stones

A

alkalinization of urine >6.5 with oral potassium bicarb or citrate

125
Q

tx: vaginismus

A

relaxation, Kegel exercises, insertion of objects to encourage desensitization

126
Q

TX: WPW

A

cardioversion or anti-arrhythmics like procainamide

127
Q

tx: X-linked agammaglobulinemia

A

IVIG

128
Q

tx:diabetic gastroparesis

A

prokinetic agents (metoclopramide, erythromycin, cisapride)

129
Q

tx:severe manic episode while being treated with mood stabilizer

A

aggressive combination of anti-psychotics and mood stabilizers in the hospital setting

130
Q

type 4 RTA pathophysiology

A

aldosterone deficiency or insensitivity, usually in the setting of diabetic nephropathy

131
Q

type of antibiotic: amikacin

A

aminoglycoside: nephrotoxic and drug levels must be monitored

132
Q

type of bilirubin that appears on urine dipstick

A

conjugated

133
Q

type of crystals in cystinuria

A

hexagonal crystals

134
Q

underlying malignancy of padget’s disease of the breast

A

adenocarcinoma

135
Q

vaccinations for HIV patients

A

influenza, TDAP, S. pneumo, hep A and hep B

136
Q

vaccinations for patients with chronic liver disease

A

hep A/B, influenza, pneumovax

137
Q

Valkmann’s ischemic contracture

A

final dequel of compartment syndrome in which dead muscle has been replaced with fibrous tissue

138
Q

vessels that bleeding during Mallory-Weiss tears

A

submucosal arteries of the distal esophagus and proximal stomach from increased intragastric pressure during vomiting

139
Q

VSD murmur

A

pansystolic murmur loud is that the left lower sternal border plus diastolic flow murmurs at the apex

140
Q

vulvar lesions that respond to trichloroacetic acid or podophyllin

A

HPV

141
Q

Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome

A

meningococcemia with sudden vasomotor collapse and skin rash due to adrenal hemorrhage

142
Q

weber test

A

tuning fork on middle of forehead; look where it localizes

143
Q

weight goal by 1st brithday

A

triple birth weight

144
Q

well known complication of giant cells/temporal arteritis

A

aortic aneurysms

145
Q

what composes the cauda equina

A

spinal nerves before they exit the spinal canal

146
Q

what primidone can precipitate when treating essential tremor

A

AIP, manifests as abdominal pain, neurologic and psychiatric symptoms

147
Q

when not to treat for GC/chlamydia simultaneously

A

when only one is confirmed by NAAT

148
Q

When to include prednisone to PCP treatment

A

When PaO2 is < 70

149
Q

when to suspect hemochromatosis

A

new onset diabetes, arthropathy, and hepatomegaly

150
Q

when to suspect trophoblastic disease

A

pregnant patients with severe vomiting

151
Q

when to tx HCV

A

elevated ALT, detectable HCV RNA, and histologic evidence of chronic hepatitis

152
Q

when to tx parkinson’s with trihexyphenidyl

A

younger patients where tremor is the primary symptom

153
Q

why CXR in children <2 look abnormal

A

thymic shadow

154
Q

why infants born to mothers with Graves are at risk of thyrotoxicosis

A

passage of thyroid stimulating Igs across the placenta

155
Q

why normal pregnancy has compensated respiratory alkalosis

A

Stimulatory effect of progesterone on the medullary respiratory center

156
Q

why there is malabsorption in Zollinger-Ellison syndrome

A

inactivation of pancreatic enzymes from increased stomach acid production

157
Q

winter’s formula

A

PaCO2 = 1.5(HCO3-) + 8

158
Q

Wiskott-Aldrich pathophysiology of thrombocytopenia

A

decreased platelet production

159
Q

injury associated with anterior shoulder dislocation

A

axillary nerve/artery

160
Q

HA, binocular palsies, periorbital edema, hypo/hyper-esthesia; can become bilateral; can be precipitated by uncontrolled infection of the skin

A

PR: venous sinus thrombosis

161
Q

hematologic complication of EBV infection

A

hemolytic anemia 2-3 weeks s/p symptom onset

162
Q

tx: BCC

A

Mohs surgery; 1-2mm of clear margins

163
Q

accumulated molecule in 21-hydroxylase deficiency

A

17-hydroxyprogesterone, presents with virilization and salt wasting

164
Q

dx: PKU

A

Guthrie test, qualitative coloration test

165
Q

subperiosteal hemorrhage; hours after birth; limited to one cranial bone

A

PR: cephalohematoma

166
Q

abnormal thyroid function test in acute, severe illness

A

PR: sick euthyroid syndrome

167
Q

tx: infections caused by a human bite

A

amox-clav; covers gram +, gram -, and anaerobes

168
Q

sx <2 night time awakenings, normal FEV1, no limitations to activity

A

PR: mild intermittent asthma

169
Q

how to remove a tick

A

tweezers as close to the skin ASAP

170
Q

> 40, indolent progressive anterior hip pain, worsened by activity, relieved by rest; non-tender, no systemic sx

A

PR: DJD

171
Q

RQ for carbohydrate metabolism

A

1

172
Q

RQ for lipid metabolism

A

0.7

173
Q

RQ for protein metabolism

A

0.8

174
Q

2-5 y/o; localized abdominal mass, hematuria

A

PR: Wilm’s tumor

175
Q

1 year old; abdominal mass, fever, hepatomegaly, HTN; crosses the midline

A

PR: neuroblastoma

176
Q

G6PD deficiency levels

A

during hemolytic episode, may be normal

177
Q

toxicity: didanosine

A

pancreatitis

178
Q

toxicity: abacavir

A

hypersensitivity

179
Q

toxicity: NRTIs

A

lactic acidosis

180
Q

toxicity: NNRTIs

A

Stephen’s Johnson syndrome

181
Q

toxicity: nevirapine

A

nephropathy

182
Q

toxicity: indinavir

A

crystal induced nephropathy

Step 2 Qbank (4 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions