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Step 2 Qbank > Step 2 Flashcards > Flashcards

Step 2 Flashcards

1
Q

4 Ts of mediastinal masses

A

Find mobile, teratoma, thyroid neoplasm, and terrible lymphoma

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2
Q

ACA stroke syndrome

A

contralateral motor and sensory deficits that are more pronounced in the lower limb than the upper limb

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3
Q

Acid-base status in adrenal insufficiency

A

Non-anion hyperkalemic and hyponatremic metabolic acidosis

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4
Q

adenomyosis

A

presence of endometrial glands in the uterine muscle

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5
Q

affects of increase of pH on ionized calcium

A

causes more to be bound to albumin

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6
Q

aldosterone in central adrenal insufficiency

A

relatively preserved in these patients

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7
Q

ALL cell characteristics

A

PAS positive material, TdT staining positive in 95%

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8
Q

amiodarone toxicitiy

A

pulmonary fibrosis, thyroid dysfunction, hepatotoxicity, corneal deposits, and skin discoloration

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9
Q

analgesia nephropathy

A

chronic analgesia use causes papillary necrosis in the kidneys

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10
Q

antibody: primary billiary cirrhosis

A

anti-mitochondiral antibody

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11
Q

antipsychotic that disrupts thermoregulation and body shivering

A

fluphenazine IM for poor compliance

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12
Q

aortic stenosis murmur

A

crescendo-decrescendo murmur at the LLSB

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13
Q

APGAR scores that require further evaluation and resuscitation

A

<7

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14
Q

ARDS dx criteria

A

bilateral infiltrate, PCWP <200

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15
Q

area of the intestine that the D-xylose test evaluates

A

proximal small intestine (celiac’s disease)

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16
Q

associated with dermatomyositis

A

internal malignancies; MC ovarian

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17
Q

atypical antipsychotic to most likely cause EPS

A

risperidone

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18
Q

azathioprine toxicity

A

dose related diarrhea, leukopenia, and hepatotoxicity

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19
Q

Background or simple diabetic retinopathy

A

Microaneurysms, hemorrhages, exudates, and retinal edema

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20
Q

Baker cyst

A

excessive fluid production by inflamed synovium, occurs in RA, osteoarthritis, and cartilage tears

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21
Q

Basic labs after diagnosis of hypertension

A

UA, chemistry panel, lipid profile, baseline EKG

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22
Q

best test for detection of fetal chromosomal abnormalities in first trimester

A

CVS

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23
Q

best test: primary amenorrhea with presence of uterus

A

FSH

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24
Q

best way to monitor respiratory status in GBS

A

vital capacity

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25
Q

biliary consequence of TPN

A

causes gallbladder stasis and predisposes gallstone formation/bile sludging

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26
Q

blastomycosis cutaneous findings

A

verrucous or ulcerativew

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27
Q

breastfeeding contraindications

A

Active untreated TB; HIV; active illicit drug/EtOH abuse

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28
Q

bronchial breath sounds

A

have full expiratory phase

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29
Q

BUN and creatinine changes during pregnancy

A

Increase in renal plasma flow and glomerular filtration rate

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30
Q

calcification in fate necrosis

A

coarse (micro in malignancy)

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31
Q

Calcium oxalate stone predispositions

A

Small bowel disease, surgical resection or chronic diarrhea; leads to malabsorption of that is the bile salts

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32
Q

cardiac consequences of hemochromatosis

A

dilated or restrictive cardiomyopathy, conduction defects

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33
Q

cardiac manifestations of Friedrich Ataxia

A

necrosis and degeneration of muscle fiber; can lead to t-wave inversion/myocarditis

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34
Q

carpal tunnel pathophysiology

A

deposition of mucopolysaccharide protein complexes in the sheathes of the median nerve

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35
Q

cause of amaurosis fugax

A

retinal emboli from the ipsilateral carotid

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36
Q

Cause of ascending aortic aneurysms

A

cystic medical necrosis of connective tissue disorder

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37
Q

cause of calcium oxalate crystal in urine

A

ethylene glycol poisoning

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38
Q

cause of central primary amenorrhea (low FSH)

A

pituitary

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39
Q

cause of heat stroke

A

thermoregulation failure

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40
Q

cause of hydatid cysts

A

echinococcus granulosus

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41
Q

cause of hyponatremia in central adrenal insufficiency

A

excessive ADH production from the posterior pituitary

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42
Q

cause of hypotension after epidural

A

sympathetic fiber block that results in vasodilatation of the lower extremity vessels

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43
Q

cause of premature adrenarche

A

premature androgen secretion of the adrenal gland

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44
Q

cause of primary dysmenorrhea

A

increased levels of prostagladins during the breakdown of endometrium

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45
Q

cause of secondary amenorrhea

A

estrogen deficiency

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46
Q

cause of sickle cell aplastic crisis

A

infections; e.g. parvo

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47
Q

cause of synringomylia

A

cavitation of the central cord

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48
Q

causes of exudative effusions

A

infection, malignancy, PE, connective tissue disease, and iatrogenic causes

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49
Q

Causes of hypercalcemia in malignancy

A

osteolytic mets, increase PTH-related protein, increased 1,25 vit D and increased IL6

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50
Q

Causes of hypoparathyroidism

A

Postsurgical, autoimmune, defective calcium sensing

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51
Q

causes of macrocytic anemia with hypersegmented neutrophils

A

folic acid or cobalamin deficiencies

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52
Q

CD-19 cells

A

B-lymphocytes

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53
Q

CD-3 cells

A

T-lymphocytes

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54
Q

celiac’s disease antibody

A

anti-endomysial

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55
Q

Cervical mucous during the ovulating phase

A

profuse, clear and thin; will stretch 6cm and exhibit ferning

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56
Q

change in L-thyroxine in patients receiving HRT

A

increases due to increased liver enzyme production, increased TBG, and increased volume of distribution of thyroid hormone

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57
Q

characteristic microscpoic findings for membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis

A

dense intramembranous deposits that stain for C3

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58
Q

clopidogrel indications in CAD

A

1 year s/p UA/NSTEMI, 30 days s/p bare metal stents, 1 year s/p drug eluting stents

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59
Q

CN that controls corneal sensation

A

V1 branch of trigeminal

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60
Q

coccidioides cutaneous findings

A

erythema multiforme and erythema nodosum

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61
Q

collagen affected in OI

A

type I

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62
Q

common association with carpal tunnel syndrome

A

hypothyroidism

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63
Q

common complication of coronary catheterization

A

hematoma formation in soft tissues or extension to the retroperitoneal space

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64
Q

common consequence of treated Hodgkin’s lymphoma with chemotherapy and radiation

A

3.2% develop secondary malignancy

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65
Q

Common extrapulmonary manifestation of mycoplasma pneumonia

A

Erythema multiforme

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66
Q

common injury after tonic-clonic seizure

A

posterior dislocation of the shoulder

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67
Q

complete placenta previa management

A

Cesarean section

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68
Q

Complication of the first two years of menarche

A

Cycles are irregular, complicated by menorrhagia and are anovulatory

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69
Q

complication of untreated vesicoureteral reflex

A

UTIs, pyelo, and progressive renal scarring

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70
Q

complications of acute pancreatitis

A

pleural effusion, ARDS, ileus, and renal failure

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71
Q

Condition characterized by defective mineralization of bone

A

osteomalacia

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72
Q

Condition characterized by defective mineralization of bone and growth plate cartilage

A

Rickets

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73
Q

Condition characterized by disordered skeletal remodeling

A

Paget’s disease of the bone

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74
Q

Conditions other then taponade that have pulses paradoxus

A

Severe asthma or COPD

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75
Q

confirmatory testing: muscular dystrophy

A

muscle biopsy, CK for screening

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76
Q

confirmatory tests for SLE

A

anti-Smith or anti-dsDNA

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77
Q

contraindication to breastfeeding

A

maternal HIV infection

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78
Q

Cri-du-chat deletion

A

5p

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79
Q

cyclosporin toxicity

A

nephrotoxicity, hyperkalemia, HTN, gum hypertrophy, hisutism, and tremor

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80
Q

cystinuria screening

A

cyanide nitroprusside test

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81
Q

damage that occurs in ethylene glycol poisoning

A

kidney damage

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82
Q

damage that occurs in methanol poisoning

A

eye damage

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83
Q

ddx: anterior mediastinum mass

A

thymoma

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84
Q

ddx: elevated peak pressure with elevate plateau pressure

A

decreased pulmonary compliance: edema, atelectasis, PNA, or right mainstem intubation

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85
Q

ddx: elevated peak pressure with normal plateau pressure

A

pathological process causing increased resistance of airways: bronchospasm, mucous plug, biting ET tube

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86
Q

ddx: Howell-Jolly bodies

A

absence of spleen, splenic infarct, infiltrative d/o of spleen, or splenic congestion

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87
Q

ddx: middle mediastinum mass

A

bronchogenic cysts, tracheal tumors, pericardial cysts, lymphoma, lymph node enlargement, and aortic aneurysms

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88
Q

DDx: normotensive patients with hypokalemia and metabolic alkalosis

A

diuretics, vomiting, Bartter synfrom, Gitelman syndrome

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89
Q

ddx: posterior mediastinum mass

A

meningocele, enteric cysts, lymphomas, diaphragmatic hernias, esophageal tumors, and aortic aneurysms. ALL neurogenic tumors

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90
Q

definitive syphilis dx

A

dark field microscopy, patients may not have formed antibodies for serologic testing

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91
Q

device to use with pulmonary foreign body

A

rigid broncoscopy

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92
Q

differentiate types of COPD

A

chronic bronchitis: normal DLCO, emphysema: decreased DLCO

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93
Q

digoxin toxicity

A

nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, vision changes, and arrhythmias

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94
Q

DPL indication

A

hemodynamically unstable with inconclusive FAST examination

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95
Q

drug category: trihexyphenidyl

A

anticholinergic

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96
Q

drug contraindicated during ACS

A

dihydropyridine CCBs because the cause peripheral vasodilation and reflex tachycardia leading to worsening ischemia

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97
Q

drug to increase appetite and weight in cancer related anorexia/cachexia

A

progesterone analogs (megestrol acetate)

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98
Q

drugs that cause folic acid deficiency

A

phenytoin (impaired absorption), methotrexate, TMP-SMX (antagonize)

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99
Q

drugs that cause interstitial nephritis

A

cephalosporins, PCN, sulfonamides, NSAIDs, rifampin, phenytoin and allopurinol

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100
Q

drugs that increased the risk of bleeding in those taking warfarin

A

acetaminophen, NSAIDs, amiodarone, and antibiotics

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101
Q

dx: adult parvo

A

Anti-B19 IgM

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102
Q

dx: ALL

A

bone marrow bx

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103
Q

dx: CLL

A

flow cytometry

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104
Q

DX: developmental dysplasia of the hip

A

< 6 months: ULS

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105
Q

> 4-6 months: X-ray

A

…

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106
Q

dx: endometriosis

A

laparoscopy

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107
Q

dx: esophageal perforation

A

gastrografin esophography

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108
Q

dx: esophageal rupture

A

water-soluble contrast esophagram

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109
Q

dx: histoplasmosis

A

antigen detection in urine or serum

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110
Q

dx: major depressive disorder

A

5/8 symptoms x 2 weeks, significant functional impairment

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111
Q

dx: melanoma

A

excisional biopsy

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112
Q

dx: primary hyperaldosteronism

A

PA:PRA level >30

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113
Q

dx: pyloric stenosis

A

ULS

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114
Q

dx: SBP

A

paracentesis with PMN >250 and positive ascites cultures

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115
Q

dx: vasovagal syncope

A

upright tilt table testing

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116
Q

dx: Zollinger-Ellison syndrome

A

serum gastrin levels > 1000

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117
Q

dysfunctional uterine bleeding

A

heavy vaginal bleeding that occurs in absence of structural or organic disease

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118
Q

earliest renal abnormality in diabetes

A

glomerular hyperfiltration

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119
Q

ECG changes in coarctation

A

LVH, increased GRS voltage and ST- and T-wave changes

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120
Q

eczema herpeticum

A

primary HSX associated with atopic dermatitis

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121
Q

electrolyte abnormality in SAH

A

hyponatremia, cerebral salt wasting syndrome

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122
Q

elevated in CAH 21-hydroxylase deficiency

A

17-hydroxyprogesterone

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123
Q

elevated in folic acid and cobalamin deficiencies

A

homocysteine

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124
Q

endocrine disease that causes proximal myopathy

A

hyperthyroidism

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125
Q

epi: FSGS

A

AA, obesity, heroin use, and HIV

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126
Q

epi: stress fractures

A

athletes/nonathletes who increase physical activity, female runners with oligomenorrhea and poor eating habits

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127
Q

factoral study design

A

randomization into 2 interventions with additional study of 2 or more variables

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128
Q

Familial conjugate hyperbilirubinemia with dark granular pigment in hepatocytes

A

Dubin-Johnson

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129
Q

features of bacterial sinusitis

A

sx >10 days, severe sx, fever>39, purulent discharge/face pain, >5 days worsening after improving URI sx

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130
Q

first line agents for HTN in pregnancy

A

labetalol and methyldopa (ACEi and ARBs teratogenic)

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131
Q

first line therapy for controlling stable angina symptoms

A

beta-blockers

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132
Q

first line tx HTN in pregnancy

A

methyldopa, central acting alpha agonist

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133
Q

first renal change in diabetes that can be quantitated

A

thickening of the glomerular basement membrane

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134
Q

first step in management: suspected congenital diaphragmatic hernia

A

Placement of orogastric tube

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135
Q

first step in primary amenorrhea evaluation

A

is there at uterus present

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136
Q

first step in suspected child abuse

A

full PE

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137
Q

first step in thrombosis of a central line

A

removal of catheter

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138
Q

Friedrich Ataxia inheritance pattern

A

AR; trinucleotide repeats

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139
Q

Gaucher’s deficient enzyme

A

beta-glucosidase

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140
Q

GBS screening in pregnancy

A

35 to 37 weeks gestation

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141
Q

goal of colposcopy during pregnancy

A

exclusion of invasive cancer

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142
Q

Gold standard for evaluating cervical incompetence

A

Transvaginal ultrasound

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143
Q

greatest risk factor for future suicide attempts

A

past history of suicide attempts

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144
Q

hallmark of prolonged seizures

A

cortical laminar necrosis

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145
Q

Hallmark ventricular aneurysm EKG findings

A

Persistent ST elevation after recent MI and deep Q waves in the same leads

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146
Q

hearing tests suggestive of conductive hearing loss

A

bone conduction>air conduction on Rinne test

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147
Q

height goal by first birthday

A

50% increase

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148
Q

hemi-neglect lesion

A

non-dominant parietal lobe

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149
Q

hemophilic arthropathy

A

iron deposition and synovial thickening with fibrosis

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150
Q

Henoch-Schonelein purpura predisposition

A

children susceptible to intussusception

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151
Q

Hep E in pregnant women

A

progression to fulminant hepatitis, especially in 3rd trimester

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152
Q

hereditary spherocytosis pathophys

A

AD inheritance of abnormal ankryin gene leading to abnormal scaffolding

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153
Q

histoplasma endemic areas

A

Mississippi and Ohio River Valleys and Central America

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154
Q

how acyclovir causes nephropathy

A

precipitates in renal tubules causing obstruction and acute renal failure

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155
Q

how dipyridamole works for perfusion scanning

A

redistribution of blood flow to ‘non-diseased’ segments by inducing coronary steal

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156
Q

how immunizations should be given with pre-term children

A

given at chronological age, must weigh at least 2 kg before given hep B vaccine

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157
Q

how long to continue antidepressant when treating episode

A

6 months following the patient’s response

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158
Q

how to differentiate Bartter/Gitleman from diuretics/vomiting

A

> 20-40 urine Cl

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159
Q

how to differentiate COPD from asthma

A

bronchodilator response test

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160
Q

how to differentiate emoblic vs. thrombotic limb ischemia

A

acute onset vs. insidious onset

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161
Q

How to differentiate leukemoid reactions from chronic myeloid leukemia

A

leukocyte alkaline phosphatse high in leukemoid, low in CML

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162
Q

How to prevent chlamydial conjunctivitis during birth

A

Maternal prenatal testing, or erythromycin ointment is not effective

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163
Q

how to start opioid pain management

A

begin with short acting doses, then titrate up to longer acting doses

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164
Q

How trichomonas changes the vaginal milieu

A

Disrupts normal vaginal pH, increases it between 5-6

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165
Q

Howell - Jolly bodies

A

Nuclear remnants of red blood cells usually removed by the spleen

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166
Q

Howell-Jolly bodies

A

nuclear remnants within RBCs, typically removed by the spleen

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167
Q

hypertrophic osteoarthropathy

A

clubbing and sudden onset of arthropathy in a chronic smoker

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168
Q

hyposthenuria

A

In sickle cell disease and sickle cell trait, kidneys impaired ability to concentrate urine

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169
Q

imaging: hydatid cysts

A

eggshell calcification of hepatic cysts on CT

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170
Q

Immunofluorescent findings in bullous phemphigoid

A

pruritis, tense bullae, urticarial class, IgG and C-3 distributed linearly along the basement membrane zone

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171
Q

important in achalasia workup

A

endoscopy to r/o esophageal cancer

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172
Q

important management step in androgen insensitivity

A

gonadectomy after completion of puberty to avoid risk of testicular carcinoma

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173
Q

important screening for cirrhosis dx

A

endoscopy for varices, ascites prevention, and liver ULS q 6 months for HCC

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174
Q

important tx in CML with Philadelphia chromosome

A

tyrosine kinase inhibitor

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175
Q

increased risk of seborrheic dermatitis

A

Parkinson’s and HIV

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176
Q

increased risk with RA

A

osteopenia and osteoporosis

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177
Q

indicated before trastuzumab initiation

A

echocardiogram because risk of cardiotoxicity, especially in those with low EF

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178
Q

indicates poor prognosis in CLL

A

thromnocytopenia

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179
Q

Indication for steroids in PCP

A

PaO2 < 70, A-a gradient > 35

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180
Q

indication: metformin in PCOS

A

impaired glucose tolerance

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181
Q

Indication: pica especially for ice

A

Iron deficiency anemia

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182
Q

Indications for aortic valve replacement

A

Symptomatic; severe AS undergoing CABG or other valvular surgery; poor LV systolic function or hypertrophy

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183
Q

indications for bladder/renal ULS in children

A

<24 months with febrile UTI, recurrent UTI, fmhx of urological disease, HTN, poor growth, lack of response to appropriate tx

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184
Q

indications for carotid endarterectomy

A

symptomatic 70-99% occlusions, asymptomatic 60-99%

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185
Q

indications for endometrial biopsy in endometrial bleeding

A

> 35, HTN, diabetes or obesity present

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186
Q

indications for endoscopy for dyspepsia

A

> 55 with alarm symptoms: weight loss, dysphagia, or persistent vomiting

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187
Q

indications for external cephalic version

A

> 37 weeks, no contraindications to vaginal delivery and fetal well being established

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188
Q

indications for GBS ppx in unknown status

A

18 hours, GBS bacteruria during pregnancy, hx prior GBS sepsis baby

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189
Q

indications for hospitalization for anorexia nervosa

A

dehydration, electrolyte disturbance, bradycardia, severe weight loss

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190
Q

indications for parathyroidectomy in asymptomatic hyperparathyroid patients

A

Ca>1mg upper limit of normal, <T-2.5, reduced renal function

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191
Q

initial manifestation of hypocalcemia

A

hyperactive DTRs

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192
Q

Innervation: common peroneal nerve

A

Muscles of the interior and lateral leg; sensation to anterolateral leg and dorsum foot

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193
Q

Innervation: for moral nerve

A

Anterior compartment of the thigh, responsible for knee extension and hip flexion

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194
Q

Innervation: obturator nerve

A

New York compartment of the thigh; controlled abduction of the thigh; sensation over the medial side

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195
Q

Innervation: tibial nerve

A

Posterior compartment of the thigh and leg; flexion of the knee and digits, and plantar flexion of the foot

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196
Q

instructions for laryngomalacia

A

hold child upright for 1/2 hour after feeding, never feed lying down

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197
Q

instructions for sildenafil when patient on alpha blocker

A

given with at least 4 hour interval to reduce risk of hypotension

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198
Q

iron overload infection predispostion

A

listeria and yersinia enterolitica

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199
Q

JAK2 mutation association

A

PCV

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200
Q

Jones criteria for rheumatic fever

A

major- carditis, migratory polyarthritis, Sydenham chorea, subcutaneous nodules and erythema marginatum

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201
Q

Klumpke palsy

A

traction of C8, T1; hand paralysis; ipsilateral horners

202
Q

lab indications for thyroid testing

A

hyperlipidemia, unexplained hyponatremia, elevated serum muscle enzymes

203
Q

labs of osteomalacia

A

vit D deficiency, low-normal calcium, low phosphate, increased PTH, elevated all phos

204
Q

labs: central precocious puberty

A

basal LH increased with GnRH stimulation

205
Q

labs: hereditary spherocytosis

A

Low to normal MCV, increased MCHC (because of dehydration), negative coombs test

206
Q

labs: PIGN

A

UA: hematuria, RBC casts, proteinuria

207
Q

Serum: C3 complement levels low

A

…

208
Q

lactation suppression

A

tight-fitting bra, avoid nipple manipulation and ice packs/analgesics to relieve pain

209
Q

Lactose intolerance labs

A

Positive hydrogen breath test, positive stool test for reducing substances, low stool pH and increased stool osmotic gap

210
Q

legionella tx

A

azithromycin or levofloxacin

211
Q

lesch-nyhan inheritance pattern

A

X-linked recessive

212
Q

Light’s criteria

A

protein fluid/protein serum >0.5, LHD ratio >0.6, or LDH is 2/3 upper limit of normal serum

213
Q

live vaccines not contraindicated in HIV

A

MMR and varicella if CD4>200

214
Q

location of Broca’s area

A

dominant posterior frontal lobe

215
Q

location that most medulloblastomas develop

A

cerebellar vermis

216
Q

long term risk in turner’s syndrome

A

osteoporosis from lower estrogen levels

217
Q

lung cancer with least smoking association

A

adenocarcinoma, peripheral

218
Q

lung disease in cystic fibrosis abx

A

penicillin/cephalosporin + aminoglycoside

219
Q

MAC ppx in HIV CD4<50

A

azithromycin

220
Q

major cause of anemia in patients with ESRD

A

EPO deficiency

221
Q

malignancy risk with Hashimoto’s

A

thyroid lymphoma

222
Q

malignant hypertension

A

in patients with long term HTN, associated with retinal hemorrhages, exudates, and papilledema

223
Q

manifestations of systemic sclerosis

A

GERD, right heart failure, and HTN from involvement of esophagus, pulmonary arteries and kidneys

224
Q

Maternal quadruple screen in down syndrome

A

Increased levels of beta hCG and inhibin a, decreased levels of MSAFP and estriol

225
Q

MC cause of unilateral, acute lymphadenitis

A

S aureus

226
Q

MC complication of sickle cell trait

A

painless hematuria

227
Q

MC complication supracondylar fracture in the pediatric population

A

Radio artery compression, must assess radial artery pulse when fracture is reduced

228
Q

MC epiglottitis in adults

A

H flu and S. pyogenes

229
Q

MC form of glomerulopathy associated with HIV

A

focal segmental glomerulosclerosis

230
Q

MC injured nerve in association with fracture of midshaft humerous

A

radial nerve, runs on posterior surface of humerous

231
Q

MC kidney stone

A

Calcium oxalate

232
Q

MC locations of hypertensive ICH

A

basal ganglia, thalamus, pons and cerebellum

233
Q

MC malignant tumor of the eyelid

A

BCC

234
Q

MC manifestations of polycythemia in newborns

A

respiratory distress, poor feeding, and neurologic manifestations

235
Q

MC organ injury in blunt trauma

A

splenic laceration

236
Q

MC predisposing factor to aortic dissection

A

HTN

237
Q

MC side effects of EPO for anemia tx

A

worsening HTN, HA, and flu like sx

238
Q

MC side effects of levodopa/carbidopa

A

hallucinations, confusion, agitation, dizziness, somnolence and nausea

239
Q

MC site for ulnar nerve entrapment

A

elbow, medial epiconylar grove

240
Q

MC site of actual skeleton involvement of us

A

cervical spine

241
Q

MC site of hypertensive hemorrhages

A

putamen, internal capsule lies adjacently

242
Q

MC thyroid nodule

A

benign colloid nodules

243
Q

MC valular abnormality in non IVDU

A

mitral valve prolapse

244
Q

MC valvular abnormality in IVDU

A

mitral regurgitation

245
Q

MCC abnormal MSAFP

A

gestational age error

246
Q

MCC complication of PUD

A

hemorrhage

247
Q

MCC congenital hypothyroidism in USA

A

thyroid dysgenesis

248
Q

MCC constrictive pericarditis

A

radiation, viral, cardiac surgery

249
Q

MCC constrictive pericarditis in developing countries

A

TB

250
Q

MCC constrictive pericarditis in US

A

viral, radiation, then cardiac surgery

251
Q

MCC death in dialysis patients

A

CV disease

252
Q

MCC death in renal transplant patients

A

CV disease

253
Q

MCC death s/p MI

A

reentrant ventricular arrhythmia (ventricular fibrillation)

254
Q

MCC foot drop

A

neuropathy, L5 radiculopathy, and traumatic damage to the common peroneal nerve

255
Q

MCC hip pain in children

A

Transient synovitis

256
Q

MCC megaloblastic anemia in alcoholics

A

folate deficiency

257
Q

MCC mitral regurgitation

A

mitral valve prolapse from myxomatous degeneration of the mitral valve leaflets

258
Q

MCC mucopurulent cervicitis

A

Chlamydia trachomatis

259
Q

MCC nephrotic syndrome in adults that is not from systemic disease

A

membranous nephropathy and FSGS

260
Q

MCC nephrotic syndrome in children

A

minimal change disease

261
Q

MCC nephrotic syndrome renal thrombosis

A

membranous glomerulonephritis

262
Q

MCC nephrotic syndrome with Hodgkin’s lymphoma

A

Minimal change disease

263
Q

MCC of communicating hydrocephalus in children

A

SAH

264
Q

MCC of glomerulonephritis in adults

A

IgA nephropathy; several days after URI

265
Q

MCC of orbital cellulitis

A

bacterial sinusitis

266
Q

MCC painless hematuria in adults

A

bladder tumors

267
Q

MCC pulmonary complications in systemic sclerosis

A

interstitial fibrosis

268
Q

MCC purpura in children

A

thrombocytopenia, clotting factor deficiencies and vasculitis; if nor thrombocytopenia, then think vasculitis

269
Q

McMurray’s sign

A

indicative of middle mediscus tear, palpable or audible snap occuring while slowly extending the leg at the knee from full flexion

270
Q

measles types of virus

A

paramyxovirus

271
Q

mechanism behind urinary retention in anti-cholinergics

A

failure of detrusor contraction, controlled by PNS input from pelvic splanchnic

272
Q

Mechanism impaired in the post-splenectomy patients

A

Anti-body mediated opsonization in phagocytosis

273
Q

mechanism of hypercalcemia in malignancy

A

production of PTH related peptide

274
Q

medical treatment for ALS

A

Riluzole: glutamate inhibitor

275
Q

metal that causes allergic contact dermatitis

A

nickelm type IV hypersensitivity

276
Q

method to decreased contrast induced nephropathy

A

non-ionic contrast

277
Q

microprolactinoma

A

<10mm

278
Q

mild pre-eclampsia

A

BP>140/90, protein excretion >.3g/24hrs

279
Q

missed abortion

A

dead fetus still retained in the uterus; disappearance of nausea and vomiting in early pregnancy

280
Q

Most common cause of travelers diarrhea

A

E. Coli

281
Q

most common deficiency of CAH

A

21-hydroxylase

282
Q

most common type of pediatric supratentorial and intratentorial tumors

A

benign astrocytomas

283
Q

most consistent reversible risk factor for pancreatic cancer

A

cigarette smoking

284
Q

most effective fetal weight estimation parameter in suspect FGR

A

abdominal circumference

285
Q

Most important risk factor in SCC

A

sunlight exposure

286
Q

most likely mass of the rostral midbrain

A

pinealoma or germinoma

287
Q

most reliable sign for spinal osteomyelitis

A

tenderness to gentle percussion over the spinous process

288
Q

most serious potential sequelae of kawasaki’s disease

A

coronary artery aneurysms

289
Q

most serious side effect of hydroxychloroquine therapy for SLE

A

retinopathy, eye exams q 6 months

290
Q

most specific arrhythmia for digitalis toxicity

A

atrial tachycardia with AV block (increased ectopy and increased vagal tone)

291
Q

Most specific marker for diagnosis of acute hepatitis B

A

IgM anti-HBc

292
Q

most specific test for androgen-producing adrenal tumors

A

DHEA-S

293
Q

most useful indicator for dehydration

A

BUN/Cr ratio

294
Q

murmur from acute aortic dissection

A

aortic root dilatation–>aortic regurgitation

295
Q

must do in all patients with clavicular fracture

A

careful neuro-vascular examination to r/o injury to underlying brachial plexus and subclavian artery

296
Q

must do in young patients with systemic hypertension

A

evaluation for the presence of coarctation

297
Q

MVP murmur

A

mid systolic click over the apex, short systolic murmur at the apex if regurg present, squatting decreases the murmur

298
Q

mycophenolate toxicity

A

marrow suppression

299
Q

negative TB test in those with no risk factors and who are healthy

A

<15mm

300
Q

nephrotic disease associated with hep B

A

membranous glomerulonephritis

301
Q

nephrotic syndrome associated with african americans and HIV

A

focal segmental glomerulosclerosis

302
Q

new clubbing in patients with COPD

A

indicative of development of lung cancer

303
Q

next best step: solitary pulmonary nodule on CXR

A

CT scan

304
Q

next best test after abnormal MSAFP levels

A

ultrasound to confirm GA, defect fetal anomalies, detect multiple gestation and confirm viable pregnancy

305
Q

next step: CIN I in low risk lesion on Pap smear

A

repeat Pap at 6 and 12 months, or repeat HPV in 12 months, if positive again, repeat colposcopy

306
Q

next step: high clinical suscpicion of PE

A

early empiric anticoagulation prior to confirmatory testing

307
Q

Next step: LISL in young/high risk women

A

colposcopy

308
Q

Next step: proteinuria, isolated in children

A

repeat dipstick on 2 different occasions

309
Q

next step: pt with PAD symptom but normal ABI

A

exercise testing with post-excercise ABI

310
Q

next step: pyelonephritis that does not respond to 2-3 days of tx

A

ULS or other imaging techiques

311
Q

next step: recurrent chalazion

A

histopathologic investigation, increased risk of underlying sebaceous carcinoma; BCC also common malignancy of the eyelid

312
Q

next step: simple renal cyst

A

benign, no further evaluation

313
Q

Next step: threatened abortion

A

f/u ULS in one week after it has been determined that fetus is still alive

314
Q

NF-1 characteristics

A

cafe-au-lait spots, macrocephaly, feeding problems, short stature, learning disability

315
Q

NF-2 characteristics

A

acoustic neuromas and cataracts

316
Q

normal BPP score

A

8-10; only repeat 1-2x/week in those with high risk pregnancies

317
Q

nutritional deficiency that is heat sensitive

A

folic acid

318
Q

One of the few conditions that presents with bilateral trigeminal neuralgia

A

Multiple sclerosis

319
Q

only region of bladder covered by peritoneum

A

dome of the bladder, most susceptible to injury

320
Q

Optic complication of neurofibromatosis type one

A

Optic glioma in 15%

321
Q

order of frequency of brain mets by primary cancer

A

Lung>Breast>unknown>melanoma>colon

322
Q

ototoxic drugs

A

aminoglycosides, chemotherapy, ASA and loop diuretics (high doses)

323
Q

outflow obstructions in HOCM

A

septal hypertrophy and systolic anterior motion of the mitral valve

324
Q

Paget disease of bone labs

A

normal calcium and phosphate, increased alk phos and urinary hydroxyproline

325
Q

Parinaud’s syndrome

A

paralysis of vertical gaze associated with pupillary disturbances and eyelid retraction

326
Q

Parinaud’s syndrome lesion

A

rostral midbrain at level of the superior colliculus and CN III (Collier’s sign)

327
Q

part of DTaP vaccination that causes reactions

A

pertussis component

328
Q

pathophys: immobilization hypercalcemia

A

increased osteoclastic bone resorption

329
Q

Pathophysiology between hypothyroidism and hyperprolactinemia

A

Prolactin production inhibited by dopamine, simulated by serotonin and TRH

330
Q

Pathophysiology of aspirin sensitivity syndrome

A

Pseudo - allergic reaction, from prostaglandin and leukotriene misbalance insusceptible individuals

331
Q

pathophysiology of membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis type II

A

antibody against C3 convertase, leading to persistent complement activation

332
Q

PCT associations

A

hep C infection, substance ingestion (etoh, estrogens)

333
Q

peak airway pressure formula

A

resistive pressure + plateau pressure

334
Q

persistent complex bereavement disorder

A

12 months of depressive symptoms and loss of function after the death of a loved one

335
Q

pH consistent with transudative effusion

A

> 7.2, <7.2 indicates pleural inflammation

336
Q

physiologic leukorrhea

A

copious vaginal discharge that is white/yellow, non malodorous, and occurs in the absence of other symptoms or findings on the vaginal exam

337
Q

plateau pressure formula

A

elastic pressure + PEEP

338
Q

pleural fluid characteristics in esophageal rupture

A

low pH, high amylase

339
Q

post-exposure ppx for varicella

A

immunocompetent: vaccine, immunocompromised: VZIG w/in 10 days of exposure

340
Q

post-tictal acid/base disturbance

A

normal to have anion gap acidosis that resolves 60-90 min after the seizure

341
Q

postoperative cholestasis

A

prolonged surgery, hypotension, extensive blood loss into tissues, massive blood replacement

342
Q

ppx in chloroquine resistant malaria locations

A

mefloquine (sub-saharan africa and india)

343
Q

ppx in rheumatic fever

A

continuous abx ppx to prevent recurrent strep pharyngitis and limit the progression of rheumatic disease

344
Q

CNS stimulation, GI disturbance, cardiac

A

PR theophylline toxicity

345
Q

sudden onset of eye pain, photophobia, and mid-dilated pupil

A

PR: acute glaucoma

346
Q

fever, CP, leukocytosis and widened mediastinum on CXR s/p cardiac surgery

A

PR: acute mediastinitis

347
Q

females, episodic, abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, diarrhea and sweating, no photosensitivity

A

PR: AIP

348
Q

RA, enlarged kidneys and hepatomegaly, amyloid deposits on polarized light

A

PR: amyloidosis nephrotic syndrome

349
Q

premature, low birth weight; diminished RBC production, shortened RBC lifespan, blood loss; iron deficiency not the cause

A

PR: anemia of prematurity

350
Q

false positive VRDL, prolonged PTT, and thrombocytopenia

A

PR: antiphospholipid antibody syndrome (APS)

351
Q

Normal internal genitalia with ambiguous external genitalia, deficiency in and then it converts androgens to estrogens

A

PR: aromatase deficiency

352
Q

late exposure to maternal factor, normal head size, decreased abdominal circumference

A

PR: asymmetric IUGR

353
Q

Down syndrome; increased mobility between the atlas and access; behavioral changes, torticollis, urinary incontinence, and vertebrobasilar symptoms; upper motor neuron symptoms

A

PR: Atlantoaxial instability

354
Q

recurrent infections after passing 6 months, impaired ability destroying encapsulated organisms, lack of IgA predisposes giardia infection

A

PR: B cell deficiencies

355
Q

tetany, night blindness, neuropathy, dermatitis, arthritis, and hepatic injury

A

PR: bacterial overgrowth

356
Q

multi-systemic inflammatory condition, recurrent ulcers, skin lesions; seen in Turkish, Asian, and Middle Eastern population

A

PR: Behcet’s syndrome

357
Q

slurred speech, unsteady gait, and drowsiness, no nystagmus, no pinpoint pupils, no respiratory depression

A

PR: benzo overdose

358
Q

AV block, bradycardia, hypotension, wheezing, and potential cardiogenic shock

A

PR: beta blocker overdose

359
Q

isolated, round, smooth, ring-enhancing intracranial lesion on CT in immuncompetent patient with known extra cranial infection

A

PR: brain abscess

360
Q

parasthesias of first 3.5 digits, occasionally thenar eminence atrophy

A

PR: carpal tunnel syndrome

361
Q

hyperextension injury, elderly, spondylosis; weakness >upper extrmities, than lower, localized deficit of pain and temperature sensation

A

PR: central cord syndrome

362
Q

mucopurulent urethral discharge, absent bacteriruia, and hx of multiple sex partners

A

PR: Chlamydial urethritis

363
Q

waxing and waning transaminase levels, but few symptoms

A

PR: chronic hep C

364
Q

The equinus and varus of the calcaneum and talus, varus of the mid foot, and adduction of the forefoot

A

PR: clubfoot

365
Q

seborrheic dermatitis; pupular, scaly; eyebrows, nasolabial folds, and scalp

A

PR: cradle cap

366
Q

palpable purpura, glomerulonephritis, non-specific systemic symptoms, arthralgias, hepatosplenomegaly, peripheral neuropathy, and hypocomplementemia, most have hep C

A

PR: cryoglobulinemia

367
Q

Travelers in tropical regions, pruritic elevated serpiginous skin lesions; contact through sand

A

PR: cutaneous larva migrans

368
Q

inflammatory changes in the medical canthal region of the eye; usually staph or beta-hemolytic strep

A

PR: dacryocystitis

369
Q

new mothers who hold infants with outstretched thumbs; abductor pollicis longus and extensor pollicis brevis tendons affected, passive stretch elicits pain

A

PR: De Quervain tenosynovitis

370
Q

Macrocytic pure red aplasia associated with congenital anomalies such as short stature, webbed neck, cleft lip, shielded chest and triphalangeal phones

A

PR: diamond Blackfan syndrome

371
Q

palatal ulcers, hepatosplenomegaly and pancytopenia, Mississippi and ohio river basins

A

PR: disseminated histoplasmosis

372
Q

bloody diarrhea, abdominal pain, lack of fever, no travel history

A

PR: E coli diarrhea

373
Q

micrognathia, microcephaly, rocker bottom feet, overlapping fingers, absent palmar creases, VSD

A

PR: Edward’s syndrome

374
Q

dysparenunia, dysmenorrhea, and dyschezia

A

PR: endometriosis

375
Q

hypocalcemia, calcium oxalate deposition in kidneys; flank pain, hematuria, ARF, anion gap acidosis

A

PR: Ethylene glycol poisoning

376
Q

autosomal recessive inheritance, bone marrow failure, poor growth, morphological abnormalities, macrocyclic anemia

A

PR: fanconi’s anemia

377
Q

small body size, microcephaly, digital hypoplasia, nail hypoplasia, hirsutism, cleft palate and rib anomalies

A

PR: fetal hydantoin syndrome

378
Q

chronic, widespread pain d/o with fatigue, poor sleep and depression; multiple trigger points of tenderness

A

PR: fibromyalgia

379
Q

combination of neurologic (ataxia, dysarthria), skeletal (scoliosis, feet deformities) and cardiac (hypertrophic cardiomyopathy)

A

PR: Friedreich ataxia

380
Q

Ashkenazi Jews, adolescents, anemia, easy bruising, thrombocytopenia, bone pain, erlenmeyer flask deformity on distal femur

A

PR: Gaucher’s disease

381
Q

adult-onset asthma symptoms after meals, exercise, or lying down

A

PR: GERD induced asthma

382
Q

pain, swelling, and decreased ROM at the involved site; radiograph with osteolytic lesions (soap bubble) in epiphyseal regions of long bones

A

PR: giant cell tumor of bone

383
Q

mild DM or hyperglycemia, necrotic migratory erythema, diarrhea, anemia, and weight loss, glucagon >500pg/mL

A

PR: glucagonoma

384
Q

hypoglycemia, lactic acidosis, hyperuricemia, and hyperlipidemia; doll-like facies, thin extremities, short stature, protuberant abdomen

A

PR: glucose-6-phosphatase deficiency

385
Q

Triad of systemic vasculitis, upper and lower airway granulomatous inflammation, and glomerulonephritis; nasal cartilage destruction and vasculitic cutaneous lesions are common

A

PR: Granulomatosis with polyangitis (Wegener’s)

386
Q

excessive amounts of estrogen; precocious puberty in young/post-menopausal bleeding in elderly; must differentiate from excessive androgens

A

PR: granulosa cell tumor

387
Q

Marfan’s features, mental retardation, thromboembolic events, downward this location of the lens

A

PR: homocystinuria

388
Q

IgA-mediated vasculitis of small vessels, results in rashes, arthralgias, abdominal pain and renal disase

A

PR: HSP

389
Q

Low calcium and elevated phosphorus in the presence of normal renal function

A

PR: hypoparathyroidism

390
Q

dry and rough skin with horny plates over the extensor surfaces of limbs

A

PR: ichthyosis vulgaris

391
Q

prolonged premature rupture, maternal fever, leukocytosis, uterine tenderness or tachycardia

A

PR: intraamnotic infection

392
Q

Intermittent bloody discharge from one nipple, benign, masses not appreciated

A

PR: intraductal papilloma

393
Q

IC paitnet, fever, cough, dyspnea, or hemoptysis, CXR cavitary lesion, CT pulmonary nodules with halo sign with air crescent

A

PR: invasive aspergillosis

394
Q

children, isolated thrombocytopenia after viral infection

A

PR: ITP

395
Q

Solitary painful, but it long bone lesion with overlying swelling and hypercalcemia in children

A

PR: Langerhans cell histiocytosis

396
Q

Asian patient, insensate hypopigmented patch of skin; skin biopsy shows acid-fast bacilli

A

PR: leprosy

397
Q

all age groups, testosterone and possible estrogen production, inhibition of FSH and LH levels

A

PR: leydig cell tumors

398
Q

AA pregnant, bilateral solid ovarian massess, hirsutisim and virilization; benign and self limited

A

PR: lutemoa of pregnancy

399
Q

3 Ps: precocious puberty, pigmentation (cafe au lait spots) and polyostic fibrous dysplasia

A

PR: McCune Albright syndrome

400
Q

forceful torsion of the knee with foot planted; popping sound and severe pain; McMurray’s sign

A

PR: medical meniscus tear

401
Q

congential foot deformity, feet that overcorrect both passively and actively into abduction; mild cases spontaneously correct

A

PR: metatarsus adductus

402
Q

hypotension, non-responsive to fluids with normal/elevated CVP/PCWP, evidence of injury on the anterior chest

A

PR: myocradial contusion

403
Q

AD inheritance, delayed muscle relaxation, temporal wasting, emaciated extremities

A

PR: myotonic muscular dystrophy

404
Q

afebrile, irritative voiding symptoms

A

PR: non-inflammatory chronic prostatitis

405
Q

African-American; gradual loss of peripheral vision, eventual tunnel vision; optic disc cupping

A

PR: open angle glaucoma

406
Q

Autosomal dominant, diffuse telangiectasias, recurring expenses, and widespread AV malformations

A

PR: Osler-Weber-Rendu syndrome

407
Q

blue sclerae, hearing loss, recurrent fractures and opalescent teeth

A

PR: osteogensis imperfecta

408
Q

Osteoclast dysfunction, mosaic pattern of lamellar bone, increased alkaline phosphatase, femoral bowing

A

PR: Paget’s disease

409
Q

hemolytic anemia, venous thrombosis and diminished hematopoiesis

A

PR: paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria (PNH)

410
Q

accessory conduction pathways through AV node, vagal maneuvers and medications that reduce conduction through AV node resolve PSVT

A

PR: paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia (PSVT)

411
Q

splenomegaly, pruritis with hot baths, gout attacks

A

PR: PCV

412
Q

mucocutaneous blistering that is flaccid, intercellular IgG deposits, anti-bodies against desmoglein

A

PR: pemphigus vulgaris

413
Q

hyperviscosity (dizziness/HA), pruritus (especially after shower), and splenomegaly; dx confirmed with JAK2 mutation

A

PR: polycythemia vera

414
Q

Decreased estrogen, increased FSH and LH; FSH elevation in the setting of >3 months of amenorrhea woman under each 40

A

PR: primary ovarian failure

415
Q

inflammation, fibrosis, and stricturing of bile ducts, associated with UC, unexplained fever and cholestatic LFTs

A

PR: primary sclerosing cholangitis

416
Q

urethritis, conjunctivitis, mucocutaneous lesions, enthesitis, and asymmetric oligoarthritis

A

PR: reactive arthritis

417
Q

nonspecific, sore throat, hyperemic/edematous OP membranes, chelitis, stomatitis, glossitis, normocytic-normochromic anemia, seborrheic dermatitis, and photophobia

A

PR: riboflavin deficiency

418
Q

Secondary pneumonia complicating a viral upper respiratory infection, necrotizing bronchopneumonia resulting in pnematocoeles

A

PR: S aureus PNA

419
Q

lack close friends, odd behavior, and magical thinking

A

PR: schizotypal personality disorder

420
Q

dry eyes, mouth, dental carries, difficulty swallowing, anti-SSA/SSB

A

PR: Sjogren syndrome

421
Q

forward slip of vertebrae (L5/S1); back pain, neurologic dysfunction, palpable step off

A

PR: Spondylolithesis

422
Q

post-influenza PNA, nursing homes, IVDU, CF

A

PR: Staph PNA

423
Q

repetitive overhead motions; pain with active ROM, passive internal rotation, and forward flexion at the shouder

A

PR: subacromial bursitis

424
Q

rapid, progressive ascending paralysis, absence of fever, absence of sensory abnormalities and normal CSF

A

PR: tick paralysis

425
Q

microcephaly, hepatosplenomegaly, deafness, chorioretinitis, and thrombocytopenia

A

PR: TORCH infections

426
Q

IBD with worsening sx, signs of sepsis, xray with dilated colon

A

PR: toxic megacolon

427
Q

follicular conjucntivitis, pannus (neovascularization) in the cornea, major cause of worldwide blindness

A

PR: Trachoma

428
Q

GI complaints followed by triad of periorbital edema, myosotis, and eosinophilia subungal splinter hemorrhages and conjunctival/retinal hemorrhages

A

PR: trichinellosis

429
Q

cyanotic congenital heart disease, LAD, 90% VSD, 30% TGA, associated defects necessary for survival

A

PR: Tricuspid atrestia

430
Q

Middle-aged adults, superficial unilaterally hit pain exacerbated by external pressures upper-level bye

A

PR: trochanteric bursitis

431
Q

malabsorption, living in endemic area > 1 month, blunting of villi with infiltration of chronic inflammatory cells

A

PR: tropical sprue

432
Q

hyperphosphatemia, hypocalcemia, hyperkalemia, and hyperuricemia

A

PR: tumor lysis syndrome

433
Q

Antepartum hemorrhage with fetal heart changes progressing from tachycardia to bradycardia, become sinusoidal pattern; occurs suddenly after ruptured membranes

A

PR: vasa previa

434
Q

sudden loss of vision, onset of floaters, fundus is hard to visualize

A

PR: vitreous hemorrhage

435
Q

Multisystemic, arthralgias, weight loss, fever, diarrhea and abdominal pain; PAS - positive material in the lamina propria of small intestine

A

PR: Whipple’s disease

436
Q

choric steroids, EtOH, hemoglobinopathies; progressive hip/groin pain without restriction of ROM, MRI gold standard

A

PR:avascular necrosis of the hip

437
Q

PR:pelvic abscess

A

lower abdominal pain, malaise, low-grade fever and tender pelvic mass on rectal exam

438
Q

Pre-proliferative diabetic retinopathy

A

Cotton wool spots

439
Q

predisposes to anaphylactic reaction to transfusion

A

IgA deficiency

440
Q

preferred diagnostic tool in aortic dissection

A

TEE

441
Q

preferred hormonal contraception for lactating mothers

A

progestin only because does not affect milk production/volume and not associated with thrombosis

442
Q

pregnancy complications in patients with anoerxia nervosa or previous dx

A

miscarriage, IUGR, hyperemesis gravidarum, premature birth, and postpartum depression

443
Q

ophthalmoplegia, pain with EOM, proptosis, and vision impairment

A

presentation specific to orbitial cellulitis

444
Q

arthritis of the MCP, PIP, wrist and ankle joints

A

presentation: adult parvo

445
Q

primary amenorrhea, bilateral inguinal masses, and breast development without pubic/axillary hair

A

presentation: androgen insensitivity

446
Q

burst fracture of vertebra, total motor loss below the lesion, loss of pain/temperature, intact proprioception

A

presentation: anterior cord syndrome

447
Q

slow growing papule with pearly, rolled borders and overlying telangiectasia

A

presentation: BCC

448
Q

onset of HA, focal neuro deficits after and episode of acute otitis media

A

presentation: brain abscess

449
Q

male infant, recurrent PNA and otitis media, serum Igs and circulating B-cells decreased

A

presentation: Bruton’s agammaglobulinemia

450
Q

dysphagia, severe pain, heavy salivation and mouth burns, no alteration in consciousness

A

presentation: caustic ingestion

451
Q

ipsilateral ataxia, nystagmus, intention tremors, and loss of coordination

A

presentation: cerebellar tumors

452
Q

infant presents with cyanosis that is aggregated by feeding and relieved by crying

A

presentation: choanal atresia

453
Q

s/p bone marrow transplant with lung and intestinal involvement

A

presentation: CMV pneumonitis

454
Q

HIV, AMS, EBV DNA in CSF, solitary weakly ring enhancing lesion

A

presentation: CNS lymphoma

455
Q

HTN, mild hypernatremia, hypokalemia, and metabolic alkalosis

A

presentation: Conn’s syndrome

456
Q

hepatomegaly, ascites, and increased JVP due to decreased diastolic filling

A

presentation: constrictive pericarditis

457
Q

cyanotic heart disease, anomalies of the craniofacial skeleton, absent thymus, absent parathyroid glands, recurrent infections

A

presentation: DiGeorge syndrome

458
Q

fever, pharyngitis, and lymphadenopathy that is symmetric and posterior

A

presentation: EBV

459
Q

chronic pelvic pain worse premenstrual, dysmenorrhea, and pain with intercourse/defecation

A

presentation: endometriosis

460
Q

dysmenorrhea, heavy menses, and enlarged uterus

A

presentation: fibroid uterus

461
Q

child, nocturnal pain, no obvious PE or lab findings

A

presentation: growing bone pain

462
Q

hypogonadism, arthropathy, diabetes, and hepatomegaly

A

presentation: hereditary hemochromatosis

463
Q

preterm infants with respiratory distress and hypoxia not responding to oxygen therapy

A

presentation: hyaline membrane disease

464
Q

chronic, associated with pelvic pain worsened by bladder filling or intercourse accompanied by urgency, frequency and nocturia

A

presentation: interstitial cystitis

465
Q

male adolescent with epistaxis, localized mass, and bony erosions to the back of the nose

A

presentation: juvenile angiofibroma

466
Q

cooling towers, cough, severe, GI sx, confusion, intracellular poor gram stain

A

presentation: legionella

467
Q

< 1 month, bilious vomiting, abdominal distention and passage of bloodstained stools

A

presentation: midgut volvulus

468
Q

fatigable muscle weakness that involves the extraocular and bulbar muscles

A

presentation: myasthenia gravis

469
Q

central scotoma, afferent pupillary defect, changes in color perception and decreased visual acuity

A

presentation: optic neuritis

470
Q

constant visceral epigastric pain radiating to back, jaundice, and anorexia with weight loss

A

presentation: pancreatic cancer

471
Q

> 50, neck pain, shoulder pain, pelvic girdle pain >1 month, morning stiffness and ESR >40

A

presentation: polymyalgia rheumatica

472
Q

6 weeks within surgery, eye pain, decreased visual acuity, swollen eyelids/conjunctiva, hypopyon, corneal edema and infection

A

presentation: postoperative endophthalmitis

473
Q

painless blisters, increased skin fragility on dorsal hands, facial hypertrichosis and hyperpgimentation

A

presentation: prophyria cutanea tarda

474
Q

tachypnea, tachycardia, and hypoxia 24 hrs w/in injury, patchy alveolar infiltrate

A

presentation: pulmonary contusion

475
Q

renal insufficiency with hyperkalemia and non-anion gap metabolic acidosis

A

presentation: RTA type 4

476
Q

euvolemic hyponatremia, decreased serum osmolarity, elevated urine osmolalirity, increased urine sodium concentraion, failure to correct with normal saline infusion

A

presentation: SIADH

477
Q

hyperviscosity of blood owing to excess IgM production

A

presentation: Waldenstrom’s macroglobulinemia

478
Q

thrombocytopenia with eczema skin lesions and history of multiple bacterial infections

A

presentation: Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome

479
Q

Runners, pain between 3rd and 4th toe, reproducible by palpation, clicking sensation while palpating

A

presentation:morton neuroma

480
Q

adequate hydration and oral hygiene

A

prevention: parotitis

481
Q

Proliferative or malignant diabetic retinopathy

A

Consists of newly formed vessels

482
Q

pseudocyesis

A

rare, women present with all signs of pregnancy, normal endometrial stripe, negative pregnancy test

483
Q

qualities of a benign murmur

A

asymptomatic, normal S2, <2 grade, no clicks, normal pulses, no other abnormalities

484
Q

rare neurological side effect of isoretinoin A

A

pseudotumor cerebri

485
Q

Reaction when taking amoxicillin with EBV infection

A

Polymorphism maculopapular rash

486
Q

reason for low glc in exudative effusions

A

high metabolic activity of leukocytes within the pleural fluid

487
Q

reason for pain in PE

A

pulmonary infarction

488
Q

relation between NPV and sensitivity

A

as sensitivity increased, NPV increases

489
Q

relation between PPV and specificity

A

as specificity increases, PPV increases

490
Q

renal disease that hep C leads to

A

membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis

491
Q

required in all patients with new onset lupus nephritis

A

renal biopsy

492
Q

response phase

A

50% reduction in baseline severity of psychiatric illness

493
Q

reversible risk factors for PACs

A

tobacco and EtOH

494
Q

Reye’s syndrome histo-pathology

A

extensive fatty vacuolization of the liver without inflammation

495
Q

Risk factor for RDS maternally

A

Diabetes

496
Q

risk factor that leads to highest risk of stroke

A

HTN

497
Q

Risk factors for brain abscess

A

Congenital heart disease, head trauma, infections of job - mouth, meningitis, and cranial instrumentation

498
Q

risk for untreated hyperthyroid disease

A

rapid bone loss from increased osteoclastic activity; cardiac tachyarrhythmias

499
Q

Risk of DES in pregnancy

A

Female offspring increased risk of clear-cell adenocarcinoma of the vagina and cervix

500
Q

risk of lidocaine in ACS treatment

A

increased risk of asystole

Step 2 Qbank (4 decks)

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