STD Flashcards

1
Q

What is the most common reportable STD in US

A

Chlamydia

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2
Q

Chlamydia Incidence (Who, what age, what race, what region?)

A

Females, 15-24, Black (d/t access to care), South

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3
Q

Risk factors for Chlamydia

A

new or multiple sex partners, a history of STIs, presence of another STI, and lack of barrier contraception. The presence of columnar epithelial cells on the ectocervix, referred to as ectopy, is a condition that may increase susceptibility to chlamydial infection; oral contraceptive use contributes to ectopy.

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4
Q

RIsk of untreated Chlamydia

A

pelvic inflammatory disease, chronic pelvic pain, fallopian tube scarring, and infertility

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5
Q

Why doesn’t Chlamydia pop up on a gram stain?

A

Chlamydia trachomatis is an obligate intracellular bacterium with a cell wall and ribosomes similar to those of gram-negative organisms. The C. trachomatis cell wall is unique in that it contains an outer lipopolysaccharide membrane, but it lacks peptidoglycan; The absence of peptidoglycan explains why the organism is not seen with standard Gram’s staining and why beta-lactam antimicrobials are not effective for treatment.

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6
Q

What is the infectious form and replicating form of C. trachomatis?

A

elementary body is the infectious form and the reticulate body is the replicative form.

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7
Q

Most common findings in men and women with Chlamydia?

A

Asymptomatic

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8
Q

Later (uncomplicated) Chlamydia complications in women

A

Cervicitis is asymptomatic in most cases. When symptoms are present, they can be nonspecific, such as vague discomfort or spotting. Signs on pelvic examination may include mucopurulent endocervical discharge and spontaneous or easily induced endocervical bleeding

Urethral infection with chlamydia in women is usually asymptomatic, but it can cause “dysuria-pyuria” syndrome, or an “acute urethral syndrome”, mimicking acute cystitis. Symptoms may include dysuria and urinary frequency, especially in young women with a recent, new sex partner. Since women with symptomatic chlamydia urethritis have a clinical presentation similar to women with urinary tract infection, the potential exists to miss the diagnosis of chlamydia if testing is not performed in this setting, which will likely result in untreated chlamydia as most treatments for urinary tract infection will not effectively treat chlamydia.

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9
Q

Later untreated complications of Chlamydia

A

Perihepatitis (Fitz-Hugh-Curtis Syndrome)
Untreated pelvic infection in women with C. trachomatis can cause inflammation of the liver capsule, which is commonly referred to as perihepatitis or the Fitz-Hugh-Curtis Syndrome. Perihepatitis is characterized by right upper quadrant pain, nausea, vomiting, and fever, which are generally accompanied by evidence of PID on physical examination

PID have subclinical infection, some present with lower abdominal pain along with bimanual findings of cervical motion tenderness, with or without uterine or adnexal tenderness

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10
Q

Other Chlamydia manifestations in men and women

A

Conjunctivitis
Infection of the eye with C. trachomatis can occur in adults as a result of autoinoculation from secretions from another site of infection, such as the genital tract. The signs and symptoms are unilateral eye discomfort with hyperemia. The secretions may be mucopurulent, but are more typically clear to cloudy.

Oropharyngeal Infection
Oropharyngeal infection with C. trachomatis most frequently is asymptomatic in both men and women.[31] It can also present as acute tonsillitis, acute pharyngitis or abnormal pharyngeal sensation syndrome. When clinical signs and symptoms are described, the presentation can range from minimally symptomatic disease (i.e. dry or pruritic throat) to exudative tonsillopharyngitis. Chlamydial tonsillopharyngitis is marked by generalized pharyngeal and tonsillar hyperemia with possible addition of swollen anterior pillars and uvula, as well as diffuse purulent exudate on the tonsils.[32]

Proctitis and Proctocolitis
Infection with C. trachomatis OmpA types D through K in the rectal region is usually asymptomatic, but can lead to proctitis or proctocolitis, which can manifest as rectal pain, mucoid or hemorrhagic discharge, fever, and/or tenesmus.[33] Diagnosis can be supported via anoscopy findings (mucopurulent discharge, pain, and spontaneous or induced bleeding). This infection can occur in men or women practicing receptive anal intercourse. Women may also be infected rectally as a result of local spread of the infection from cervical secretions. Chronic infection can rarely cause scarring and fistula formation. Lymphogranuloma venereum more often presents as proctitis or proctocolitis, and therefore additional diagnostic methods are required to differentiate LGV from nonLGV strains of C. trachomatis.[34,35]

Lymphogranuloma venereum (LGV)
LGV is caused by C. trachomatis serovars L1, L2, or L3; it is an uncommon infection in the United States, but sporadic cases and outbreaks have been reported among MSM, most of whom have HIV infection. Although most cases of LGV in the United States are rectal infections, LGV can present with a distinct genital infection syndrome. Signs and symptoms include multiple, enlarged, matted, tender inguinal lymph nodes that may be suppurative and are usually bilateral. Systemic signs and symptoms, such as fever, chills, or myalgia, also may be present.[34] A self-limited genital ulcer sometimes occurs at the site of inoculation. Specimens from genital sites and lymph nodes can be obtained in an attempt to identify C. trachomatis by a nucleic acid amplification test. Nucleic acid testing does not distinguish standard strains of C. trachomatis from LGV strains. The duration of therapy is longer for infections caused by LGV strains (21 days) versus non-LGV chlamydia strains (7 days).[2]

Reactive Arthritis

Figure 10. Reiter’s Syndrome and Circinate Balanitis
Reactive arthritis, previously referred to as Reiter’s syndrome, is a post-inflammatory autoimmune disease that can result from urogenital chlamydia infection. The characteristics of the syndrome include conjunctivitis, urethritis, oligoarthritis, and skin lesions (keratoderma blennorrhagica) and circinate balanitis (Figure 10). Some studies have reported the presence of chlamydia antigens and DNA within the joints.[36] This complication infrequently occurs, but when it does, the onset is typically 3 to 6 weeks after urogenital chlamydia infection and it can occur even in persons who receive effective treatment for chlamydia infection. Reactive arthritis affects predominantly males, particularly those positive for HLA-B27, and it usually resolves within 3 to 6 months. Reactive arthritis may not respond to antimicrobial treatment, but symptoms usually respond to non-steroidal anti-inflammatory agents.

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11
Q

In adults in the United States, Chlamydia trachomatis conjunctivitis occurs most often as a result of which one of the following:

A

Autoinoculation from an individual’s genital infection

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12
Q

Chlamydial infections in infants and kids

A

-consequence of inadequate prental care:
Conjunctivitis
For infants, conjunctivitis is the most common clinical condition resulting from perinatal transmission of chlamydia. Ocular infection with C. trachomatis results from exposure of the neonate to infected secretions from the mother’s genital tract during birth and the exposure may also involve mucous membranes of the oropharynx, urogenital tract, and rectum. Inclusion conjunctivitis occurs 5 to 14 days after delivery. The signs range from mild scant mucoid discharge to severe copious purulent discharge, chemosis, pseudomembrane formation, erythema, friability, and edema. Neonatal ocular prophylaxis with silver nitrate solution or antibiotic ointments for prevention of gonorrhea transmission does not prevent perinatal transmission of C. trachomatis from mother to infant. A chlamydial etiology should be considered for all infants aged 30 days or younger who have conjunctivitis.

Trachoma
Trachoma is the leading cause of preventable blindness in the world and is caused primarily by C. trachomatis serotypes A, B, Ba, and C.[37] Trachoma is found in select regions of the world, mostly in the Middle East and Southeast Asia. The disease is most often contracted person-to-person through hand (or fomite) contact with an infected eye, followed by autoinoculation. Most cases of trachoma occur in the setting of poor sanitary conditions and some cases result from fly transmission.[38] Trachoma is not an STD. The process begins as a follicular conjunctivitis, which, if untreated, progresses to an entropion wherein the eyelid turns inward and lashes ulcerate the corneal surface over time. The disease is diagnosed clinically and treatment with single-dose azithromycin is usually effective. This disorder is not a sexually transmitted disease and it is not transmitted from mother-to-child during birth.

Pneumonia
Chlamydia pneumonia in infants occurs 4 to 12 weeks after delivery. Notably, infection of the nasopharynx is thought to be a precursor condition that is usually asymptomatic, but can progress to pneumonia. The signs are cough, congestion, and tachypnea. Infants are usually afebrile, and rales are apparent with auscultation of the lungs.

Urogenital Infection
Urogenital infections in preadolescent males and females are usually asymptomatic and can be the result of vertical transmission during the perinatal period.[2] Genital or rectal infection can persist for as long as two to three years, so infection in young children may be the result of perinatally-acquired infection. Sexual abuse is a major concern when chlamydia (or any STI) is detected in preadolescent males or females. The STI evaluation in a case of suspected abuse should be performed by, or in consultation with, an expert in the assessment of child sexual abuse. Only tests with high specificity should be used because of the legal and psychosocial consequences of a false-positive diagnosis.

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13
Q

In the United States, which one of the following is the most common clinical condition caused by chlamydial infection among neonates (younger than 1 month of age)?

A

Perinatal eye infection causing inclusion conjunctivitis

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14
Q

What diagnostic test do we use for Chlamydia?

A

Nucleic acid amplification tests (NAATs) amplify nucleic acid sequences (either DNA or RNA) that are specific for the organism being detected. Similar to other nonculture tests, NAATs can detect live or non-viable organisms.

In women, vaginal swab superior than urine

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15
Q

Which one of the following statements best describes the reporting requirements for a person diagnosed with Chlamydia trachomatis infection in the United States?

A

Reporting is required in all states

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16
Q

SCREENING FOR CHLAMYDIAL INFECTION TEST USED?

A

Screening for chlamydia in asymptomatic persons has been found to significantly reduce the incidence of chlamydia–associated PID.

routine screening for chlamydia should utilize NAAT as the diagnostic test; the United States FDA has cleared NAATs for chlamydia testing on (1) male and female urine samples, (2) male and female rectal and throat samples; (3) clinician-collected endocervical, vaginal, and male urethral samples, and (4) self-collected vaginal swabs if obtained in a clinical setting.

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17
Q

Screening for chlamydial indications:

A

Women Who Have Sex with Men: The high frequency of asymptomatic infection among young women combined with greater risk for morbidity led to the recommendation by the CDC and the USPSTF that all sexually active females younger than 25 years of age undergo annual screening for chlamydial infection.[2,4] More frequent screenings may be appropriate for sexually active adolescents and women with recent C. trachomatis infections. In addition, women 25 and older should undergo routine screening if they are considered to have increased risk for chlamydial infection, such as a new sex partner, more than one sex partner, a sex partner with concurrent (overlapping) partners, or a sex partner who has been diagnosed with an STI. Women diagnosed with chlamydia should have repeat testing approximately 3 months after completing treatment.

Women Who Have Sex with Women: The CDC recommends that chlamydia screening for sexually active women who have sex with women should be based on the same recommendations as for sexually active women who have sex with men.[50]
Pregnancy: At the first prenatal visit, screen all pregnant women younger than 25 and those older than 25 who have increased risk of acquiring chlamydial infection.[50] Identified factors associated with increased risk for chlamydial infection include a new sex partner, more than one sex partner, a sex partner with concurrent (overlapping) partners, or a sex partner who has been diagnosed with an STI. Retest for chlamydial infection during the third trimester in women younger than 25 and in women older than 25 who have increased risk of acquiring chlamydial infection. Pregnant women diagnosed with chlamydia should have a test-of-cure 3 to 4 weeks after completing treatment, and they should have repeat testing for chlamydia approximately 3 months after completing treatment.

Men Who Have Sex Only with Women: Routine screening for chlamydial infection is not recommended by either the CDC or the USPSTF for sexually active men who have sex only with women.[2,4] The CDC recommends considering screening for chlamydia in sexually active young men who only have sex with women in populations with a high prevalence of chlamydia, including those seen at adolescent clinics, correctional facilities, and STD clinics.[2]

Men Who Have Sex with Men: The CDC recommends routine chlamydia screening in sexually active men who have sex with men at least annually; the screening should consist of testing genital and rectal sites exposed during sexual activity, regardless of a history of condom use during sexual exposure.[50] Routine testing of oropharyngeal testing for chlamydia infection is not recommended. More frequent screening at 3- to 6-month intervals is indicated for men who have sex, including those with HIV infection, if risk behaviors persist or their sexual partners have multiple partners. The USPSTF does not recommend routine screening for chlamydia in men who have sex with men.[4]
Transgender Men and Transgender Women: The CDC recommends that screening for chlamydia in transgender men and transgender women should be based on age, current anatomy, and sexual practices.[50]

Persons with HIV Infection: The CDC recommends performing routine screening for chlamydia for persons with HIV infection who are sexually active; testing for chlamydia should be performed at the initial evaluation and at least annually thereafter (more frequent screening may be indicated based on risk).[51] The testing should consist of obtaining samples from the anatomic sites of sexual exposure, with the exception that routine screening for oropharyngeal chlamydia infection is not recommended.

Correctional Facilities: The CDC recommends performing routine screening for chlamydial infection at the initial intake in a correctional facility for all women 35 year of age and younger and men younger than 30 years of age

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18
Q

Which one of the following is most consistent with current CDC recommendation for screening for chlamydial infection?

A

Routine annual screening for all sexually active females younger than 25 years of age

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19
Q

T or F? No recommendations for routine chlamydia screening in men?

A

True. There is no recommendation for routine screening for chlamydial infection in males, although it is reasonable in male populations who have a higher risk of acquiring chlamydial infection.

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20
Q

Chlamydia tx.

A

First-line therapy for urogenital infection

Azithromycin 1 gram orally in a single dose

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21
Q

Chlamydia partner management

A

Which one of the following statements is TRUE for CDC recommendations for the management of sex partners of a patient diagnosed with urogenital chlamydia infection?
You chose this option correctly:
All sex partners during the 60 days preceding the onset of symptoms should be referred for treatment

Partners with exposure greater than 60 days preceding the onset of symptoms or diagnosis of chlamydia do not need to be routinely screened or treated.

Referral and treatment should occur for the most recent partner, even if this contact occurred more than 60 days prior. Similarly, all symptomatic contacts should be referred, regardless of time since diagnosis

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22
Q

What is a contraindication to expedited partner therapy in chlamydia?

A

contraindicated in a female partner who have current signs or symptoms that are suggestive of PID. Female partners who have current signs and symptoms suggestive of PID should undergo prompt evaluation by a health care provider.

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23
Q

When can someone with chlamydia resume sex?

A

7 days after 1 dose azithromycin or after 7 days of doxy or until all symptoms gone and partner is treated

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24
Q

POSTTREATMENT FOLLOW-UP in chlamydia

A

The CDC does not recommend routine test-of-cure after completing therapy for chlamydia in nonpregnant persons, but all females and males should return for repeat testing approximately 3 months after receiving treatment for chlamydia due to the substantial risk of reinfection during the 3-month period following initial diagnosis of chlamydial infection

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25
Q

TREATMENT OF CHLAMYDIAL INFECTIONS DURING PREGNANCY

A

azithromycin 1 gram orally in a single dose.

Doxycycline is pregnancy category D because of potential toxicity for fetal bone development and possible discoloration of teeth in the unborn baby;

Erythromycin estolate is contraindicated during pregnancy because of hepatotoxicity risk.

The alternative regimens in pregnancy are amoxicillin, erythromycin base, or erythromycin ethylsuccinate

Pregnant women should have a test-of-cure performed 3 weeks after completion of therapy. Women younger than 25 years of age and those at increased risk for chlamydial infection also should be retested during the third trimester.

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26
Q

NEONATES WITH OPHTHALMIA NEONATORUM

A

recommended regimen for the neonate is erythromycin base or ethylsuccinate 50 mg/kg/day orally divided into 4 doses daily for 14 days =An association between oral erythromycin and infantile hypertrophic pyloric stenosis has been reported in infants less than 6 weeks of age who were treated with this drugThus, infants treated with erythromycin should be followed for signs and symptoms of infantile hypertrophic pyloric stenosis

Data on the use of other macrolides (azithromycin and clarithromycin) f limited. azithromycin, 20 mg/kg/day orally, one dose daily for three days may be effective. This regimen is considered a recommended alternative to erythromycin. However, use of azithromycin in the neonatal period has also been associated with a higher risk of infantile hypertrophic pyloric stenosis, particularly if given in the first 2 weeks of life

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27
Q

INFANT PNEUMONIA

A

or infants with pneumonia caused by C. trachomatis, the recommended treatment is a 14-day course of erythromycin base or erythromycin ethylsuccinate; azithromycin, which is much easier to administer and requires only a 3-day course, is considered an alternative regimen

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28
Q

CHLAMYDIAL INFECTIONS IN INFANTS AND CHILDREN

A

weight less than 45 kg?
erythromycin base or erythromycin ethylsuccinate 50 mg/kg/day orally divided into 4 doses daily for 14 days.

younger than 8 years of age and weighing 45 kg or greater,
azithromycin 1 gram orally in a single dose.

Children older than 8 years of age
azithromycin 1 gram orally in a single dose or doxycycline 100 mg twice daily for 7 days.

A follow-up visit with chlamydia culture is recommended approximately 2 weeks after completion of treatment to evaluate for treatment effectiveness.[

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29
Q

Gonnorhea Incidence

A

Men rates increased d/t MSM.
Ages 20-24
in Black/Alaskan populations

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30
Q

GONOCOCCAL ANTIMICROBIAL SUSCEPTIBILITY

A

Ceftriaxone is the preferred agent and widely used to treat gonorrhea. Fortunately, rates of resistance to ceftriaxone have remained less than 0.5%. In contrast, fluoroquinolone resistance with Neisseria gonorrhoeae is highly problematic and rates of ciprofloxacin are approximately 30%.

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31
Q

Microbiology and Pathogenesis

A

Neisseria gonorrhoeae is a gram-negative diplococcus that binds preferentially to mucus-secreting epithelial cells. Although N. gonorrhoeae can bind to other cell types, it utilizes its surface structures to bind to the urogenital epithelial cells.

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32
Q

What is the rate of male-to-female transmission of Neisseria gonorrhoeae via semen per episode of vaginal intercourse?

A

50-70%
The estimated rate of male-to-female transmission of Neisseria gonorrhoeae is 50-70% per episode of vaginal intercourse. Female-to-male genital transmission is estimated to be about 20% per episode. Rectal intercourse and fellatio have not been quantified, but are likely efficient modes of transmission. Cunnilingus appears to carry much lower risk, though transmission can occur.

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33
Q

Gonorrhea Risk Factors

A
Multiple or new sex partners
Inconsistent or incorrect condom use
Living in an urban area where gonorrhea prevalence is high
Being adolescent (especially female)
Having a lower socio-economic status
Using drugs including alcohol (in association with higher risk sex)
Exchanging sex for drugs or money
African American race
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34
Q

GENITAL INFECTION IN MEN

A

Urethritis
Urethritis is a common manifestation of gonorrhea in men. Most men develop overt, symptomatic urethritis,
purulent or mucopurulent urethral discharge accompanied by dysuria.
The discharge may also be clear or cloudy. T

he incubation period ranges from 1-14 days, with most men becoming symptomatic within 2-5 days after exposure

Anorectal Infections
Anorectal infection most often occurs in men who have sex with men, Most patients with anorectal infection are asymptomatic, although proctitis can occur. Symptoms of proctitis include anal irritation, painful defecation, constipation, scant rectal bleeding, painless mucopurulent discharge, anal pruritus, and tenesmus.

Complications of Genital Infection in Men
Men with untreated gonococcal genital infection can develop epididymitis, with typical symptoms of unilateral testicular pain and swelling, and epididymal tenderness. Notably, up to 70% of epididymitis caused by a sexually transmitted pathogen are due to Chlamydia trachomatis. Other less common complications associated with gonococcal infection in men include inguinal lymphadenitis, penile edema, periurethral abscess or fistula, accessory gland infection (Tyson’s glands), balanitis, urethral stricture, and prostatitis, and rarely perirectal abscess.

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35
Q

clinical sign and symptoms of urethritis caused by infection with Neisseria gonorrhoeae in men?

A

Most men complain of urethral discharge
In contrast to chlamydial urethritis, which is more frequently asymptomatic, most men with urethritis due to Neisseria gonorrhoeae infection complain of urethral discharge and/or urethral discomfort.

Epididymitis is a possible complication of genitourinary gonococcal infection, but most men with gonorrhea do not develop epididymitis. Coinfection with Chlamydia trachomatis does not significantly alter the clinical presentation of urethritis caused by N. gonorrhoeae.

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36
Q

GENITAL INFECTION IN WOMEN

A

Cervicitis
Symptomatic gonococcal infection in women most often manifests as cervicitis and/or urethritis, but at least 50% of women with genital gonococcal infection are asymptomatic. Symptoms of cervicitis: nonspecific vaginal discharge, intermenstrual bleeding, dysuria, lower abdominal pain, and dyspareunia. Clinically, examination of the cervix may show mucopurulent or purulent cervical discharge and easily bleed with minimal contact.
The incubation period in women is variable, but symptoms, when they do occur, usually develop within 10 days of the exposure. 70-90% of women with genital gonococcal infection have laboratory evidence of urethral infection (urethritis); dysuria may be present, but these women frequently do not have specific urethral symptoms.

Anorectal Infections
Anorectal gonococcal infection is uncommon in women, but can occur via anal intercourse. Anorectal infection has been reported in women with gonococcal cervicitis who do not acknowledge rectal sexual contact, presumably these infections result from perineal contamination with infected cervical secretions.

Complications in Genital Infection in Women
There are several complications associated with gonorrhea in women:

Accessory gland infections: Infection of female sex accessory glands (Bartholin’s glands or Skene’s glands) is often a unilateral infection. Occlusion of the ducts of these glands due to inflammation may result in the formation of an abscess.
Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID): If cervical gonococcal infection ascends to the endometrium and/or fallopian tubes, PID may develop, typically causing symptoms that include lower abdominal pain, vaginal discharge, dyspareunia, intermenstrual bleeding, and fever.
Perihepatitis (Fitz-Hugh-Curtis Syndrome): In situations where gonococcal infection ascends from the cervix, infection may produce inflammation of the liver capsule and the adjacent peritoneum. Most women with perihepatitis have associated PID, but perihepatitis can occur independently. Gonococcal perihepatitis is characterized by right upper quadrant pain, and may be accompanied by abnormal liver function tests.

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37
Q

what are known potential complications of genitourinary gonococcal infection in women?

A

Pelvic inflammatory disease, accessory gland infection, and perihepatitis (Fitz-Hugh-Curtis Syndrome)
Well-described complications of genitourinary infection with Neisseria gonorrhoeae include pelvic inflammatory disease, accessory gland infection, and perihepatitis (Fitz-Hugh-Curtis Syndrome).

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38
Q

3 additional syndromes of gonnorhea seen in men and women

A

Pharyngeal Infection
most often asymptomatic. The pharynx may be the sole site of infection iExudative pharyngitis is rare. Symptoms :pharyngitis, tonsillitis, fever, and cervical adenitis.
Ocular Infection
presents as conjunctivitis. initially develop a mild non-purulent conjunctivitis, that, if untreated, typically progress to marked conjunctival redness, copious purulent discharge, and conjunctival edema Less often, the manifestations include an ulcerative keratitis. Untreated gonococcal conjunctivitis can cause complications that may include corneal perforation, endophthalmitis, and blindness.

Disseminated Gonococcal Infection
multiple cutaneous lesions on the feet
Disseminated gonococcal infection, a systemic gonococcal infection, occurs infrequently/more common in women. associated strains that have a propensity to produce bacteremia without associated urogenital symptoms. patients with complement deficiency have greater risk of developing disseminated gonococcal infection. Clinical manifestations of disseminated gonococcal infection include skin lesions arthralgia, tenosynovitis, arthritis hepatitis, myocarditis, endocarditis, and meningitis.

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39
Q

INFECTION IN CHILDREN

A

Perinatal infections most often occur during childbirth when the neonatal conjunctiva, pharynx, respiratory tract, or anal canal may become infected. Conjunctivitis (ophthalmia neonatorum) is preventable by ocular antimicrobial prophylaxis in the newborn

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40
Q

LABORATORY DIAGNOSIS

A

The approach to diagnostic testing for N. gonorrhoeae has evolved from traditional cultivation to widespread use of nucleic acid amplification tests (NAATs)
Gram’s stain, another non-culture test, is used for the diagnosis of urethral gonorrhea in symptomatic males. Culture is still recommended if antimicrobial resistance is a concern, especially in cases of treatment failure.

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41
Q

Routine screening for gonococcal infection in women is recommended in order to decrease morbidity

A

Urethral infections caused by N. gonorrhoeae among men usually produce symptoms that cause them to seek curative treatment soon enough to prevent sequelae, but transmission to others may occur in this interim. Among women, gonococcal infections are commonly asymptomatic until complications (such as pelvic inflammatory disease with resultant risk for infertility and ectopic pregnancy) have occurred.

42
Q

SCREENING FOR GONOCOCCAL INFECTION

A

Sexually Active Women Who Have Sex with Men: The CDC and the USPSTF recommend (1) annual screening younger than 25 years of age, and (2) annual screening for N. gonorrhoeae in sexually active women age 25 years and older if they are considered to have increased risk for gonococcal infection. repeat testing approximately 3 months after completing treatment.
Women Who Have Sex with Women: current screening guidelines for sexually active women who have sex with men.[30]
Women Who are Pregnant: The CDC recommends screening at the first prenatal visit for (1) women younger than age 25 and (2) women age 25 years and older who are at increased risk for gonorrhea . A repeat test for gonococcal infection should be performed during the third trimester for those at continued risk. Pregnant women diagnosed with N. gonorrhoeae infection should have repeat testing approximately 3 months after completing treatment[30]

Men Who Have Sex with Men: The CDC recommends annually, the sites tested should correspond with sites involved in sexual activity with other men during the prior year ] The USPSTF does not recommend routine screening for gonorrhea in men, including men who have sex with men.[29]

Persons with HIV: The CDC recommends initial evaluation and at least annually thereafter

Persons in Correctional Facilities: The CDC screening at the initial intake in a correctional facility for women 35 years of age and younger and men younger than 30 years of age.

43
Q

UNCOMPLICATED INFECTIONS OF THE CERVIX, URETHRA, AND RECTUM

A

single intramuscular dose of ceftriaxone 500 mg( if <150kg, 1g if

44
Q

UNCOMPLICATED INFECTIONS OF THE CERVIX, URETHRA, AND RECTUM in PREGNANT WOMEN

A

For pregnant persons, oral azithromycin 1 gram should be used in place of doxycycline.

45
Q

IF ceftriaxone IS NOT AVAILABLE?

A

(1) intramuscular gentamicin 240 mg plus oral azithromycin 2 grams or (2) oral cefixime 800 mg

46
Q

UNCOMPLICATED INFECTIONS OF THE PHARYNX

A

ceftriaxone 500mg IM + doxy for 7 days (azrithom. if pregnant) and A test-of-cure (using either culture or NAAT) is recommended 7 to 14 days after treatment in all persons with pharyngeal gonorrhea, regardless of the treatment regimen.[32] If the NAAT is positive, effort should be made to perform a confirmatory culture before retreatment. All positive cultures for test-of-cure should undergo antimicrobial susceptibility testing.

47
Q

Gonococcal CONJUNCTIVITIS

A

ceftriaxone 1 gram intramuscular injection once and azithromycin 1 gram orally as a single dose. In addition, a one-time lavage of the infected eye with saline should be considered.

48
Q

HSV transmission

A

Transmission of HSV usually occurs through close contact with a person who is shedding virus at a mucosal or epithelial surface, or in genital or oral secretions. Sexual transmission of HSV-1 and HSV-2 can occur through genital-to-genital, oral-to-genital, or genital-to-oral contact. The transmission of HSV-2 most often involves asymptomatic shedding of HSV-2, often in persons unaware that they have HSV infection.

49
Q

Incubation period between HSV and onset of symptoms

A

The incubation period between HSV acquisition and onset of symptoms is, on average, 4 days (range 2 to 12 days). Reactivation induces viral replication and is precipitated by multiple known factors (trauma, fever, ultraviolet light, physical or emotional stress, immunosuppression, fatigue, menses, sexual intercourse) as well as unknown factors.

50
Q

What is the first clinical episode of HSV classified as

A

refers to the initial symptomatic occurrence of genital herpes.

51
Q

symptomatic HSV infection, clinical manifestations of primary infection typically resolve within __ weeks in the absence of antiviral therapy. Serum antibodies appear within ____ of the primary infection in most persons.

A

3w; 12w

52
Q

HSV symptoms

A
Severe multiple bilateral genital ulcers, pain, itching, dysuria, vaginal or urethral discharge, and tender inguinal adenopathy (evolution of the lesions from vesicle pustule to wet ulcers to dry crusts within 2-3 w without antiretrovirals)
Systemic symptoms (fever, myalgias, headaches, aseptic meningitis or symptoms of autonomic nervous system dysfunction such as urinary retention) peak within 3 to 5 days of onset of lesions and gradually recede over the next 3 to 4 days.
53
Q

In primary HSV-2 infection, lesions and severe systemic symptoms are typically present, and there are no antibodies to either HSV-1 or HSV-2. True or false?

A

True.
nonprimary HSV-2 infection, the patient already has antibodies to HSV-1, which typically mitigate the severity of HSV-2 symptoms. Patients with recurrent symptomatic HSV-2 infection will usually have milder symptoms in the setting of established HSV-2 antibodies.

54
Q

shorter, milder illness, typically with unilateral lesions that resolve within 3 to 5 days of onset. Lesions typically progress from vesicle pustule to wet ulcer to dry ulcer , but the progression is condensed and NO systemic symptoms characterizes

A

Recurrent HSV infection

55
Q

Prodromal symptoms _________ due to HSV traveling along the nerve axons are common and begin ______ hours before the appearance of lesions in recurrent HSV

A

localized tingling and burning; 12-24h

56
Q

What % of people are HSV 2 and unaware?

A

80%

some symptoms caused by HSV may be mistaken for another disorder, such as a vaginitis, hemorrhoids, or an allergic reaction and if they have HSV 1 antibodies already are asymptomatic.

57
Q

COMPLICATIONS OF GENITAL HSV INFECTION

A

Aseptic meningitis

58
Q

Neonates with Herpes

A

he presentation of CNS disease can range from nonspecific symptoms such as lethargy, poor feeding, and temperature instability to encephalitis and seizure

59
Q

HSV lab tests

A

Viral cell HSV culture or nucleic acid amplification methods, including polymerase chain reaction (PCR) assays for HSV DNA, are the preferred HSV tests for persons with genital ulcers or other mucocutaneous lesions. For all samples collected from a lesion, the clinician should obtain an adequate quantity of cells by scraping the base of the lesion; obtaining lesion fluid for diagnostic purposes has low yield since HSV is an intracellular virus. Vesicles, if present, should be unroofed and the base of the ulcer swabbed to obtain adequate cells for viral culture or PCR.

60
Q

active clinical lesions, the virologic tests or serologic offer a significant advantage over serologic tests, in that identification of HSV in the clinical sample confirms the cause of the clinical lesion and allows for HSV typing.

A

virologic

61
Q

HSV serologic tests detect type-specific________ to HSV; these _____develop during the first several weeks following infection (can take 2-3 months) and persist indefinitely.

A

antibodies

62
Q

Screening for HSV infection is limited to

A

In an asymptomatic patient with recurrent genital symptoms but negative HSV cultures
(a) request it and have risk factors for infection, (b) have a partner with genital herpes, (c) have recurrent or atypical genital symptoms or (d) have multiple sex partners.

63
Q

Most patients with first clinical episode genital herpes infection should receive a ______course with an ______medication that has been shown to shorten the duration of viral shedding, improve symptoms, and accelerate healing. Therapy should be empirically started if genital herpes is suspected, rather than awaiting confirmatory laboratory results. Treatment may be extended if healing is incomplete after 10 days of therapy.

A

7-10 course with acyclovir

64
Q

Suppressive therapy delays the time to ____ genital herpes recurrence and reduces the frequency of recurrences by approximately 75% in patients who have frequent recurrences. Furthermore, treatment with valacyclovir 500 mg daily has been shown to _____ the rate of HSV-2 transmission in discordant, heterosexual couples in which the source partner has a history of genital HSV-2 infection. There is no evidence that suppressive therapy leads to antiviral resistance, and all the anti-HSV antiviral agents can be dose-adjusted for patients with renal impairment.

A

first; decrease

65
Q

5factors have been identified as the major influence for risk of transmission to neonate (HSV)

A

Whether the HSV infection is primary or recurrent
HSV antibody status of the mother
Duration of membrane rupture
Integrity of mucocutaneous barrier
Mode of the delivery (vaginal versus cesarean)

66
Q

INDICATIONS FOR CESAREAN SECTION

A

cesarean section for any pregnant woman with active HSV genital lesions or prodromal symptoms at the time of labor; ideally the cesarean section should be performed before rupture of membranes.[148,152] The recommendation to perform cesarean section in this setting should be followed regardless of whether the HSV lesions are a result of recent HSV acquisition or reactivation of established HSV infection.[51,57] In addition, use of invasive monitors during labor should be limited.[51,88] Delivery by cesarean section does not completely eliminate the risk for HSV transmission to the infant.[152,153] Pregnant women with a history of recurrent HSV, but no symptoms or signs of genital herpes or prodromal symptoms, can give birth vaginally, regardless of whether they are taking prophylactic suppressive antiviral therapy.

67
Q

Asymptomatic women with hx. of genital HSV

A

Prophylactic suppressive therapy with acyclovir or valacyclovir beginning at 36 weeks gestation should be offered to all women with a history of genital herpes since it has been shown to reduce the risk of HSV recurrence at delivery by 75%, the risk of cesarean delivery for recurrent genital herpes by 40%, and the risk of HSV shedding at delivery.[51,152,154] The dose of suppressive therapy is higher in pregnant women due to enhanced renal excretion of the antiviral medications (Table 6).[51] Use of suppressive therapy, however, does not completely eliminate HSV detection late in pregnancy and cases of neonatal HSV transmission have occurred despite maternal prenatal antiviral suppressive therapy.[149,154,155] Suppressive treatment can be stopped after delivery. Studies of pregnancy outcomes following prenatal acyclovir exposure have not identified an increased risk of birth defects compared with the general population.

68
Q

The use of episodic therapy may _____ the duration of recurrent episodes, and suppressive therapy may ____ the frequency of symptomatic disease (“outbreaks”).

A

shorten; duration

69
Q

The most common sites of asymptomatic shedding are the ______ areas in women and ________ in men.

A

vulva + perianal; penile skin and perianal area
*rate of shedding is higher in 1st year after infection and suppressive therapy will decrease shedding by 70% but not eradicate it

70
Q

The three most common clinically significant manifestations associated with HPV infection

A

anogenital warts, cervical cellular abnormalities (or lesions that are detected by Pap test or enhanced visual inspection methods), and anal cancer in men who have sex with men

71
Q

Symptoms Associated with Anogenital Warts

A

Vulvar warts: dyspareunia, pruritus, and burning discomfort.
Vaginal warts :asymptomatic, although occasional discharge, bleeding, or obstruction of the birth canal (due to increased wart growth during pregnancy) may occur.
Penile warts may cause itching.
Persons with urethral meatal warts may experience hematuria or impairment of the urinary stream.
Perianal and intra-anal warts are usually asymptomatic but may cause pain, bleeding on defecation, or itching

72
Q

Although most anogenital warts may be diagnosed and treated based on a careful history and physical examination, biopsy confirmation may be indicated in any of the following situations: the patient is ____, warts are atypical (_____), the lesions do not respond to standard treatment, or there is persistent ____ or bleeding.

A

immunocompromised ;pigmented, indurated, or fixed; ulceration

73
Q

USPSTF and ACOG Cervical Cancer Screening Recommendations

A

Routine cervical screening should be performed starting at age 21 years and continue through age 65 years.
For persons with a cervix aged 21 through 29 years, cervical cytology screening should be performed using either conventional or liquid-based cytologic tests (i.e., Pap tests). For women aged 30 to 65 years, screening can also include one of several FDA-approved oncogenic or high-risk HPV tests.
Screening Recommendation for Ages 21 through 29 Years: For persons with a cervix aged 21 through 29 years, cervical cytology screening is recommended every 3 years.
Screening Recommendation for Ages 30 through 65 Years: For persons with a cervix ages 30 through 65 years, cervical cancer screening included three options: cervical cytology alone every 3 years, high-risk HPV testing alone every 5 years, or cervical cytology in combination with high-risk HPV testing every 5 years.

74
Q

ACS Cervical screening recommendations

A

Age for Conducting Cervical Cancer Screening: Routine cervical screening should be performed starting at age 25 years and continue through age 65 years.
Type of Cervical Screening Recommended: For persons with a cervix aged 25 through 65 years, screening should consist of HPV testing every 5 years. If HPV testing is not available, screening may be done with either a co-test that combines an HPV test with a Papanicolaou (Pap) test every 5 years or a Pap test alone every 3 years.
if total hysterecomy, no PAP unless it was for cervical cancer

75
Q

Cellular abnormality management by age

A

21–24 :ASCUS or LSIL, repeat cytology in 12 months.
ASCUS cytology: 12 months (for women of all ages) or reflex HPV testing(for women 25 years of age and older).
ASCUS who are HPV negative, a repeat HPV and Pap test in 3 years is recommended.
normal cytology but lack endocervical cells, a repeat Pap is not required.
unsatisfactory cytology, regardless of negative HPV result, a repeat cytology is required in 2–4 months.
HPV 16/18 testing is acceptable (normal Pap test accompanied by a positive HPV test. If the HPV 16/18 test is positive, women should immediately receive colposcopy. If negative, these women should repeat the HPV co-test in 1 year.
For women with LSIL or HSIL, the management should be provided by a specialist and according to existing guidelines.

76
Q

Patient applied wart therapy:

A

The recommended options for patient-applied treatments for external anogenital warts consist of:

Podofilox 0.5% solution or gel
Imiquimod 3.75% cream
Imiquimod 5% cream
Sinecatechins 15% ointment

77
Q

What can a pregnant woman use to remove warts?

A

For pregnant women with anogenital warts, watchful waiting is an acceptable option with smaller lesions, but there are several acceptable options available for treating external anogenital warts are available during pregnancy: cryotherapy, trichloroacetic acid, bichloroacetic acid, and surgical removal may be used. Women who are pregnant should not receive cytotoxic agents, including podophyllin, podofilox, and imiquimod.

78
Q

The clinical syndrome of acute (and subacute) PID—usually defined as symptoms for fewer than ____dayscan be due to a variety of pathogens, often including, but not limited to, Neisseria gonorrhoeae and Chlamydia trachomatis. In contrast, chronic pelvic inflammatory disease (symptoms for greater than 30 days) is a separate disorder usually related to infection by Mycobacterium tuberculosis or Actinomyces species

A

30

79
Q

PID risk factors

A

Multiple sexual partners, age younger than 20 years, and current or prior infection with gonorrhea or chlamydia have consistently been demonstrated to be significant risk factors for PID. Other possible risk factors include history of PID, male partners with gonorrhea or chlamydia, current douching, insertion of IUD, bacterial vaginosis, and oral contraceptive use.

80
Q

ACUTE COMPLICATIONS ASSOCIATED WITH PID

A

With acute PID women may develop salpingitis and marked fallopian tube swelling. This may be accompanied by fallopian adhesions, tube obstruction and the development of a tubo-ovarian abscess.

Women with acute PID can develop a range of inflammatory complications, including local tissue damage, fallopian tube swelling, tubal occlusion, and development of adhesions

81
Q

Criteria for Initiating Presumptive Treatment for PID —

A

Presumptive treatment for PID in sexually active young women and other women at risk for STDs if they are experiencing pelvic or lower abdominal pain, if no cause for the illness other than PID can be identified, and if one or more of the following minimum clinical criteria are present on pelvic examination:
Cervical motion tenderness
or
Uterine tenderness
or
Adnexal tendernessss, which may be the most sensitive sign of upper genital tract infection
Additional Criteria - one or mo

82
Q

Criteria to hospitalize a patient with PID:

A

Inability to exclude surgical emergencies (e.g. appendicitis, ectopic pregnancy)
Tubo-ovarian abscess
Pregnancy
Severe illness, nausea and vomiting, or high fever
Nonresponse to oral therapy—defined as failure to respond clinically to outpatient antimicrobial therapy within 48 to 72 hours, or the inability to tolerate an outpatient oral regimen
Current immunodeficiency (HIV infection with low CD4 cell count, immunosuppressive therapy)

83
Q

3 IV preparations for PID

A

Cefotetan 2 g IV every 12 hours PLUS Doxycycline 100 mg orally or IV every 12 hours, or
Cefoxitin 2 g IV every 6 hours PLUS Doxycycline 100 mg orally or IV every 12 hours, or
Clindamycin 900 mg IV every 8 hours PLUS Gentamicin loading dose IV or IM (2 mg/kg), followed by a maintenance dose (1.5 mg/kg) every 8 hours. Single daily dosing (3–5 mg/kg) can be substituted.

84
Q

Intramuscular/Oral PID treatment

A
Ceftriaxone
250 mg IM in a single dose
Doxycycline
100 mg orally twice a day for 14 days
\+
Metronidazole
500 mg orally twice a day for 14 days
if no improvementin 72 hours, switch to IV
85
Q

Syphilis is a systemic infection caused by_________ a spirochete bacterium that is transmitted primarily through sexual activity. In the absence of treatment, patients who acquire T. pallidum remain chronically infected and syphilis generally progresses in stages, characterized by episodes of active clinical manifestations interrupted by periods of latent infection. Chronic disease can result in significant morbidity, potentially affecting nearly every organ system, and rarely, can result in death. In addition, untreated syphilis in pregnant women can lead to fetal demise and devastating congenital infection for neonates born to an infected mother.

A

Treponema pallidum

86
Q

, administered parenterally, is the preferred drug for treating of all stages of syphilis.

A

Penicillin G

87
Q

inappropriate use of combination __________ instead of the standard benzathine penicillin G (Bicillin L-A) product.

A

benzathine-procaine penicillin (Bicillin C-R)

88
Q

benzathine penicillin G is slowly released from the intramuscular site due to extremely low solubility and is also hydrolyzed to penicillin G; ____ and ______ results in prolonged low serum levels of penicillin.

A

the combination of slow absorption and hydrolysis

89
Q

2015 STD Treatment Guidelines for adults with primary and secondary syphilis is benzathine penicillin G given as _______ a single intramuscular dose; for infants and children, the dose is_______units/kg, with a maximum of 2. 4 million units

A

2.4 million units; 50,000

90
Q

Treatment of Primary or Secondary Syphilis in Penicillin-Allergic Patients

A

doxycycline (100 mg orally twice daily for 14 days) or tetracycline (500 mg four times daily for 14 days) are acceptable alternatives for nonpregnant, penicillin-allergic persons who have primary or secondary syphilis.[58,59] Doxycycline is preferable to tetracycline because tetracycline can cause gastrointestinal side effects and requires more frequent dosing. In addition, intramuscular or intravenous ceftriaxone (1-2 grams daily for 10 to 14 days) is considered effective for treating primary and secondary syphilis, but the optimal dose and duration of ceftriaxone in this setting remains unknown.[60

91
Q

Late latent syphilis tx.

A

Three doses of benzathine penicillin G, spaced 1 week apart is appropriate for late latent therapy. The slow absorption of intramuscular benzathine penicillin G provides systemic levels of penicillin for at least 1 week.

92
Q

neurosyphilis and ocular syphilis

A

aqueous crystalline penicillin G 18-24 million units per day, given as 3-4 million units intravenously every 4 hours (or as continuous infusion), for a total of 10 to 14 days

93
Q

TERTIARY SYPHILIS

A

benzathine penicillin G 7.2 million units total split into three weekly intramuscular injections of 2.4 million units

All persons diagnosed with tertiary syphilis should undergo a CSF examination prior to starting therapy.

94
Q

Syphilis in pregnancy

A

Some experts recommend giving a second dose of intramuscular benzathine penicillin G 2.4 million units 1 week after the initial dose for pregnant women who have primary, secondary, or early latent infection. Treatment of the mother during the last month of pregnancy or with a drug other than penicillin is not considered adequate treatment for the fetus. Pregnant women should be informed that treatment for syphilis may precipitate early labor and that they should notify an obstetrician if problems develop.

95
Q

Infants and children; syphilis

A

aqueous crystalline penicillin G 100,000–150,000 units/kg/day, administered as 50,000 units/kg/dose IV every 12 hours during the first 7 days of life and every 8 hours thereafter for a total of 10 days; or intramuscular procaine penicillin G 50,000 units/kg/dose in a single daily dose for 10 days. Neonates classified as possible congenital syphilis have the additional option of receiving treatment with intramuscular benzathine penicillin G 50,000 units/kg in a single dose. The single dose regimen is only acceptable if all elements of the neonate’s lab work-up were performed and unequivocally normal

96
Q

JARISCH-HERXHEIMER REACTION

A

elf-limited reaction associated with initiation of anti-treponemal therapy that most often occurs in persons treated for early syphilis, presumably because bacterial burdens are higher during these stages. The Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction is characterized by fever, malaise, nausea, vomiting, and less frequently, chills and exacerbation of a secondary syphilis rash.[67] This reaction almost always occurs within 24 hours after initiating antimicrobial therapy and usually resolves within 24 hours. For patients who develop a Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction, the clinician should clarify this reaction is not an allergic reaction to penicillin. It occurs more frequently after treatment with penicillin and treatment of early syphilis, especially at the secondary stage. Antipyretics can be used to manage symptoms associated with the Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction, but they do not prevent this reaction.

97
Q

Follow up; syphilis

A

Patients treated for primary or secondary syphilis should be reexamined clinically and serologically 6 months and 12 months following treatment.
Patients with latent syphilis should be followed up clinically and serologically at 6, 12, and 24 months.
Persons with HIV infection should be evaluated more frequently; for primary or secondary syphilis at 3, 6, 9, 12, and 24 months and for latent syphilis at 6, 12, 18, and 24 months.
If CSF pleocytosis was present initially, a CSF examination should be repeated every 6 months until the CSF cell count is normal. If the cell count has not decreased after 6 months, or if the CSF cell count or protein is not normal after 2 years, retreatment should be considered.
Follow-up titers should be compared to the maximum or baseline nontreponemal titer obtained prior to treatment.

98
Q

______ testing remains the primary tool for diagnosis in most patients with syphilis and these tests include “nontreponemal” and “treponemal” tests.

A

serologic

99
Q

DIRECT DETECTION OF TREPONEMA PALLIDUM

A

Dark-field microscopy of lesion exudate or tissue is the definitive method for diagnosing early syphilis.
Dark-field microscopy has the potential advantage of making a definitive and rapid diagnosis of primary or secondary syphilis. Several disadvantages exist with dark-field microscopy, including (1) requirement for specialized, expensive equipment, (2) need for clinician training on how to appropriately collect and prepare a specimen for dark-field microscopy, (3) need for experienced microscopist who can correctly identify T. pallidum with dark-field microscopy, (4) potential false-positive results in oral specimens (from nonpathogenic spirochetes in the oral cavity), (5) potential false-negative results if topical agents have been applied by the patient or the specimen is not collected appropriately, and (6) need to immediately view any collected specimen. Clinicians need to take special precautions to protect themselves from inoculation when collecting specimens for dark-field microscopy, since the lesions contain abundant viable organisms.

Direct Fluorescent Antibody Test
The direct fluorescent antibody test can detect T. pallidum antigens in tissue samples. The test uses antibodies specific to pathogenic treponemes and can generally identify T. pallidum in samples—such as oral or rectal lesions—that may have background non-pathogenic spirochetes.

100
Q

Serologic Tests

A

The nontreponemal tests include Venereal Disease Research Laboratory (VDRL), Rapid Plasma Reagin (RPR), Toluidine Red Unheated Serum Test (TRUST), and Unheated Serum Reagin (USR).[37] These tests measure IgM and IgG antibody and are not specific for T. pallidum. Nontreponemal test results are reported with a qualitative result and a quantitative titer, which usually correlates with disease activity.[22] A fourfold change in titer, equivalent to a change of two dilutions (e.g., from 1:16 to 1:4 or from 1:8 to 1:32) is considered necessary to demonstrate a clinically significant difference

Treponemal Serologic Tests
The fluorescent treponemal antibody absorption (FTA-ABS) test uses indirect fluorescent antibody technique in serum samples. This image shows abundant <em>Treponema pallidum</em> spirochetes with the use of a sample treated with Fluorescent Treponemal Antibody (FTA) antigen. The specimen shown here is enhanced by ultraviolet (UV) illumination.
Figure 25. Treponema pallidum Indirect Fluorescent Antibody (FA) Serologic Test
The treponemal serologic tests include T. pallidum particle agglutination (TP-PA), fluorescent treponemal antibody absorption (FTA-ABS), and various enzyme immunoassays (EIAs) and chemiluminescence immunoassays.[37] These tests measure antibody directed against T. pallidum antigens by particle agglutination, immunofluorescence, or enzyme immunoassay (Figure 25); some detect IgG only whereas others detect both IgM and IgG. These qualitative tests most often remain reactive for life, even after adequate treatment, but 15% to 25% of patients treated during the primary stage revert to being serologically nonreactive after two to three years.[39] Treponemal antibody titers correlate poorly with disease activity, and they should not be used to assess treatment response

101
Q

Lactobacilli convert glycogen to lactic acid, which helps to maintain a normal acidic vaginal pH of ______. Some lactobacilli produce H2O2 (hydrogen peroxide), which serves as a host defense mechanism and kills bacteria and viruses.

A

3.8-4.5

102
Q

characterized by a vaginal discharge, vulvar itching and irritation, and a vaginal odor.[1] Ithree most common conditions diagnosed among women with vaginal symptoms presenting in the primary care setting were bacterial vaginosis (22% to 50%), vulvovaginal candidiasis (17 to 39%), and trichomoniasis (4% to 35%).[2] In

A

Vaginitis