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Standard Flashcards

1
Q

Evacuating with an I/ESB attached:

What needs to be released when evacuating from airbag seat belt and a non-airbag seat belt?

A

Airbag seat belts: both the ISB and the seat belt buckle must be released.

Non-airbag seat belts: only the guardians seat belt should be unfastened, the ISB should be taken with them

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2
Q

You go to cross check your opposite door & find that it is not in armed / automatic. What are your actions?

A

Arm the door & advise the CCM when they return

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3
Q

Whos responsibility is it to record the times when the SH’s are used?

A

The co-ordinator

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4
Q

Who is the only member of the operating crew that is not allowed to use the crew rest area?

A

The Captain - They must use the FDCR

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5
Q

While on the ground with pax onboard, as the CCM responsible for the L3 door, what mode should it be in & should it be monitored or manned?

A

Manual / disarmed

Manned

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6
Q

Which side of the raft should you use the sea dye marker? What is its duration?

A

Upwind side

45 mins

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7
Q

Which two areas should be security checked & locked prior to landing?

A

Toilets

CRA

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8
Q

Where should the required crew be during the primary PA and what should they be doing?

A

Demo positions

Selecting ABPs

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9
Q

Where should a baby’s head be when placed in a SC / BB / IC?

A

Away from the aisle

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10
Q

Where are the spoilers?

A

On the upper surface of the wing

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11
Q

Where are the flaps and where are the slats?

A

Flaps - leading AND trailing edge of the wing

Slats - leading edge of the wing (Airbus only)

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12
Q

Where & what is the function of the “lug” on the BCF stowage?

A

Fitted under bracket

Prevents inadvertant discharge

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13
Q

When you hear “Emergency Stations” how long do you have before impact?

A

75 seconds

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14
Q

When you hear “Brace, Brace” how long do you have before impact?

A

20 seconds

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15
Q

When using the smoke hood, what must you do if the quick-start toggle fails?

A

Wait 1 minute before exerting yourself

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16
Q

When using the mooring line to join with other slide / rafts, what is the minimum distance you should leave between them?

A

25 feet (7.5 metres)

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17
Q

When using a whistle, what is the international distress signal?

A

6 short bursts
1 minute silence
6 short bursts

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18
Q

When using a BCF (old style) you push the trigger away from you. True or false?

A

True

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19
Q

When turbulence warrents that the crew should be seated, do you need to wait for the flight crew to instruct you?

A

No

Cabin crew may take their seats whenever they feel it necessary for safety reasons.

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20
Q

When the Least Risk Bomb Location (LRBL) has been prepared, where should the CCMs from the aft doors be seated for landing?

A

Behind the last row of pax, at least 6 rows fwd of the LRBL

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21
Q

When packing out the LRBL, how long should the indicator line be?

A

6 - 8 feet

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22
Q

When leaving the fligh deck, do you need to check the camera or the spy hole?

A

You need to check both

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23
Q

When it is necessary to use the engineering steps to board the aircraft what precautions should you take?

A

Only 2 crew at a time

Must have 1 hand free to hold the hand rail

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24
Q

When do PFCs of the CRA, how do you check blankets, pillows etc?

A

Carefully lift, search around, under & between

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25
Q

When bracing in a fwd facing seat, what position should you head be in?

A

Chin down to chest

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26
Q

What wording on the safety card should be visable above the seat pocket?

A

“SAFETY ON BOARD”

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27
Q

What will a day flare emit when activated?

A

Vivid orange smoke

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28
Q

What 3 things must you brief a staff pax on who is sitting on a crew jumpseat?

A

Harness operation
Crew brace position
ABP briefing (if at an exit)

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29
Q

What stages of flight are considered to have a “sterile” flight deck?

A 
Take off (start of role until landing gear up)
Landing (Landing gear down until leaving the run way)
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30
Q

What should you ensure before opening any door in a ditching?

A

That the water is not above the door sill

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31
Q

What should you do in the galleys following a decompression?

A

Turn off power

Water shut off

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32
Q

What should you bear in mind when restraining a pax in the J cabin?

A

They cannot be restrained in the last row as crew cannot get behind the seat.
Yellow handcuff strap must not be used

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33
Q

What security checks make up part of the PFC of a toilet?

A

No tampering / graffiti
Remove and search in, around and; under bin
Search stowages that can be opened easily
747: Remove water heater panel

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34
Q

What precautions should you take to prevent fire hazards when using galley chillers?

A

The cart ventillation panel must face into the stowage
Chillers should be switched off after each use
All chillers should be switched off at TOD

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35
Q

What must crew consider before initiating an evacuation?

A

That the engines have stopped running

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36
Q

What items must crew carry on each flight?

A 
Passport, ID
Torch; spare batteries (or additional torch if batteries are permanently installed)
Wristwatch with second hand
Hi Viz tabard
Girls: Cabin shoes
FSM / CSS: Sufficient briefings
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37
Q

What items can be left out on the galley surfaces between services?

A

J galleys - nothing

W/Y galleys - 1 box containing juice & water

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38
Q

What is the sequence of the secondary PA demo?

A

Seat belt, LJ, safety card, lights, exits

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39
Q

What is the responsibility of non required crew in an evacuation?

A

To manage the flow of pax to all usable exits

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40
Q

What is the procedure for door opening from outside of the aircraft?

A

Ground staff knock twice
Check door is in manual / disarmed and the area around the door is free from any obstruction
Give thumbs up for 2 seconds
Door should open after approx 5 seconds

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41
Q

What is the minimum amount of crew you must have before going out to the aircraft?

A

5 (1 must be an FSM or CSS)

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42
Q

What is the minimum age for a staff pax sitting on a jumpseat at an exit & not at an exit?

A

At exit 16+

Not at exit 12+

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43
Q

What is the maximum weight of cabin baggage allowed in the J class ottoman?

A 
2 KG's
5KG's (330)
6KG's (787)
NIL 330-200
NIL 350
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44
Q

What is the maximum amount of time permitted for crew to travel to the airport?

A

1 hour 45 minutes

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45
Q

What is the duration of a parachute flare?

A

40 seconds

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46
Q

What is the duration of a BCF?

A

15 seconds

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47
Q

What is the duration of each individual end of the day / night flare?

A

20 seconds each end

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48
Q

What is the drill for a lithium battery fire?

A

Disconnect from ISPS
Cool using a non-flammable liquid
Use BCF

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49
Q

What is the definition of a short notice emergency landing?

A

With less than 5 minutes to prepare

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50
Q

What is the definition of manning a door?

A

Close enough to grab the door handle

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51
Q

What is the crew report time for an inbound sector?

A

1 hour 20 minutes

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52
Q

What is the age range for UMNRs?

A

5 - 12

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53
Q

What is the additional PFC of the crew tabard?

A

The protective cover is fitted

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54
Q

What is the PFC of the interphone?

A

LHS calls RHS, RHS calls back

Both test PA function

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55
Q

What is the PFC of the PRK?

A

Pouch is intact and unopened

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56
Q

What does the NITES briefing stand for?

A 
Nature
Intention
Time to impact
Escape routes
Signal to brace
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57
Q

What do you do if a Toilet Smoke Detector System (TSDS) is not working?

A

Inform captain/engineers who will check the MEL

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58
Q

What are crew signing in to say?

A 
Have read the crew notices and company emails
Have read safety updates
Manuals are up to date
Are in check with recurrents
Fit to operate
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59
Q

What do the black bars in the Decompression PA mean?

A

Take 2 breaths of oxygen before continuing

60
Q

What could be the only sign of a decompression?

A

Oxygen masks dropping down

61
Q

What colours are the safety cards on each aircraft?

A

600: Purple
333: Blue
747: Green
787: Yellow
330-200 with type 1 door: Red

62
Q

What colour flares will a rescue craft fire if it is STILL looking for you (day and night)?

A

Day - green

Night - white

63
Q

What are your post flight checks in the cabin?

A

Visual scrutiny for items left behind
Crew rest areas checked and locked.
Toilets opened and visual scrutiny

64
Q

What are your PFCs of a toilet (5 things)?

A 
Smoke detector not obstructed or damaged
Bin flap operational
Water & vacuum flush operational
Security check / search
Internal lights work
65
Q

What are your 20 minute safety checks of the toilets (5 things)?

A 
Waste bins not overfilled
Smoke detectors not blocked
Water / flush functioning
No evidence of smoke / fire
No suspicious items
66
Q

What are the signs of moderate turbulence and what would you do?

A

Definate strain against seat belts
Difficult to manoeuvre carts
Liquids splashing out of cups

Discontinue service & stow carts
Secure on way to jumpseat

67
Q

What are the restrictions regarding water bottles on the f/d for take off & landing?

A

They can remain for take off as long as the pilot takes responsibility. They SHOULD all be removed for landing

68
Q

What are the principles of survival?

A

Protection
Location
Water
Food

69
Q

Having fixed a broken mirror in the toilet with the Hazard tape what is the procedure with the toilet

A

Toilet must be locked off and not used

70
Q

When permitted where must safety matches be carried

A

On the person

71
Q

When does the FSM make the PA “cabin crew seats for takeoff/landing”

A

After the walkaround (if conducted)

72
Q

At what altitude are the seatbelt signs switched off after takeoff

A

10,000 feet

73
Q

Where do cabin crew stand for the primary PA and the secondary PA

A

Demo positions

74
Q

After securing the cabin and passing on your checks what will you do as soon as you take your jumpseat

A

Carry out 30 second review.
Assess customers for ABP’s.
Sit in semi brace position.

75
Q

During a short notice emergency the FSM decides that the crew should be briefed using the interphones. How will the crew be notified of this

A

By making the PA “cabin crew conference call”

76
Q

In a conference call during an emergency, as a required crew member what should you do when first answering the interphone

A

Remain silent

77
Q

True or false, all ELT’s will activate automatically when submerged in water for more than two seconds

A

False. Some ELT’s need to be activated

78
Q

How many outlets and knobs are there on a light weight portable oxygen bottle?

A

One outlet.

Two knobs; one on top to set flow to 2 or 4lt’s. One on side that’s turned anti clockwise to start flow.

79
Q

How do you ensure oxygen is set to high flow on a lightweight portable oxygen bottle and how do you turn it on

A

Turn the top of the bottle anti clockwise to number 4

Turn supply control knob fully anti clockwise

80
Q

What are the minimum crew compliments for each aircraft

A

A 330 aircraft 8,
Boeing 787 aircraft 8,
A340–600 aircraft 10,
Boeing 747 aircraft 11.

81
Q

How will cabin crew be notified of fire/smoke in the flightdeck and what should the crew reaction be

A

PA “FSM to interphone”

Crew should react as if FSM to flightdeck

82
Q

If you hear the PA “FSM to interphone” whilst you are in your jump seat whilst taxiing, as CM3 what would you do

A

Remain in your jumpseat and await further instructions

83
Q

Can reports made via IRMA be made confidentially?

A

No. Crew details must be taken in case further information is required.

84
Q

What are non required crew responsible for during an evacuation?

A

Manage the flow of passengers through the cabin

85
Q

How many unmins under 12 year old can we carry on each fleet?

A 
B747 = 10
B787 = 8
A340 = 6
86
Q

What are the weight restrictions for an infant in an ILJ?

A

Must be up to 35lb

87
Q

What is the minimum quantity of the crew portable O2? How do you turn it on and how long does it last?

A

Minimum 3/4. Turn clockwise. Lasts 30 mins on hi flow

88
Q

What items will you find inside the PRK?

A

Handcuffs
2 keys
Yellow handcuff belt
Red body belt

89
Q

On what aircraft will you find W-AESB’s?

A

A330

90
Q

When should you NOT use a parachute flare?

A

When a helicopter is approaching

91
Q

Where would you ask passengers to stow high healed shoes in a pre med emergency?

A

In the overhead lockers in hand baggage.

92
Q

What sign would you try to display if you wanted to indicate to rescue craft that you needed medical assistance? How large should it be?

A

A large “X” (2.5 metres)

93
Q

What is the order of the secondary PA demo?

A 
Seatbelt 
(Life jacket)
Card
Lights
Exits
94
Q

What are the 5 classes of fire?

A 
Solids
Liquids
Gases
Metals
Electrical
95
Q

True or false, in ALL cases of fire on board, non flammable liquids should be used to cool down the area after the fire is out?

A

False. Non flammable liquids should not be used in cases of electrical fire

96
Q

What is the time of useful consciousness at 30,000 FT?
1-2 mins?
2-3 mins?
Or 3-4 mins?

A

1-2 mins

97
Q

How would the flight crew advise the cabin crew that there has been a breach/attempted breach of the F/D?

A

By making the PA “Echo Echo”

98
Q

In what order is the normal manual demo?

A

Belt, mask, LJ, lights (including exit lights), exits, card

99
Q

How many extra I/ESB’s should ground staff give to the FSM on LOS flights? Where should there location be noted outbound and in bound?

A
  1. Note on the FQR outbound and in the defects log inbound
100
Q

In the smoke evacuation drill, when opening two doors which should be opened 1st?

A

Forward door 1st

101
Q

If you see a white flare from a rescue craft what does this mean and what should you do?

A

It means that they are looking for you and that you SHOULD use flares

102
Q

If minimum crew are on duty, how many crew can visit the F/D at one time and how long can they stay?

A

1 crew member at a time for 5 mins only

103
Q

What is the maximum length of time that a debrief should take?

A

40 mins

104
Q

How SHOULD breaks be allocated on flights?

A

No more than half the crew on break at any one time and split evenly between three breaks.

105
Q

How many stowages for passengers own wheelchairs must virgin atlantic make available on each aircraft?

A

One, on a first come first service basis

106
Q

During taxi you are sat in your jumpseat and hear the PA “cabin crew standby”. What would you do and what would you do if a passenger stands up and moves around the aircraft?

A

Remain in your jumpseat and await further instructions. Evacuation may be a possibility. Shout at the passenger to sit down. No PAs to be made.

107
Q

When making a conference call which direction around the cabin should cabin crew state their door number. What do you dial to make a conference call that does not include the flight deck?

A

Anti clockwise starting with the FSM. Dial 54

108
Q

In hot/sunny climates it is permissible to board with the window blinds closed, with what restrictions in place?

A

Window blinds two rows forward and aft of an exit must remain open

109
Q

If catering takes place with passengers on board what restrictions/precautions must be taken?

A

Four warning straps should be placed across the aisle forward and aft of the galley on both the left and right hand side. Passengers must be moved away from the exit.

110
Q

What should all passengers with airbags be told before evacuation?

A

They should be informed that they have an airbag and that in the event of an emergency they should push it back on to the seat to avoid the deflated air bag becoming a trip hazard.

111
Q

True or false, a recency exam can be sat immediately before or after a duty?

A

False.

112
Q

When using an air liquide SH when would you know that you have run out of 02?

A

When the hood deflates.
Lack of sound inside the hood.
When the coordinator tells you the 15 mins is up. (there will alway be 15 mins of 02 with this type of SH and consequently it is v important that the coordinator times the use of each SH).

113
Q

Where you are operating with an unserviceable door, during the safety demo which doors do you point to first; the usable ones or the unusable one.

A

The unusable.

114
Q

As part of the pre flight check of portable safety equipment should you also be ensuring that all brackets holding items of portable equipment are firmly secured to the fuselage/ bulkheads?

A

Yes

115
Q

What is the maximum number of infants allowed onboard?

A

The maximum is determined by the number of I/ESB’s and ILJ’s

116
Q

Which five toys can Dexter retrieve on command?

A

Chicken, Lamby, Kong, Mr Fox, Tennis.

117
Q

When re-fuelling, one door fwd and one door aft of the wings must be available for evacuation.

If the aft door is closed what mode should it be:
Armed / Disarmed (Automatic / Manual)?
Manned / Monitored

A

Disarmed (manual)

Manned

118
Q

At what height are the FSBS’s usually switched on for landing?

A

20,000 feet

119
Q

Whilst PRM’s remain onboard, what crew are required?

A

FSM
Each LHS door must be manned
+1 crew for each 50 pax remaining

120
Q

What actions must you take once you have placed your door into automatic/armed mode?

A

Visually and verbally cross check with crew member on the other side.
Left hand side crew to give thumbs up to FSM.

121
Q

True or false; door nets can be used at open left hand side doors to ventilate the aircraft?

A

False. Door nets are no longer permitted

122
Q

When hearing FSM to flight deck in flight where should the left hand side crew gather?

A

Galley one.

123
Q

Where should cabin crew who are not involved in fighting a fire be?

A

Spread throughout the cabin.

124
Q

When refuelling with passengers on board, the toilets should be locked. True or false?

A

False. Just LHS doors manned and RHS door monitored where practical.

125
Q

There is a loud bang on take off. Assuming you are not the FSM, who do you call, the FSM or the CAPT?

A

The FSM

126
Q

What will the captain brief the FSM on in a sabotage threat in flight?

A 
(E)
N nature
T time remaining 
E exits usable
R re seating of passengers
127
Q

What types of pax cannot sit at exits?

A 
H - Handicapped / disabled
E - Elderly / frail
D - Deportees / Prisoners
C - Children under 16
O - Obese
P - Pax with assistance dogs
128
Q

How are temporary amendments issued?

A

These are issued as one-liners in the Vbrief and provided to the FSM at check-in to deliver during the briefing

129
Q

If a change to the manual is required, what will be issued initially?

A

(An Immediate Amendment) Safety and Security Notice

130
Q

Which areas are SOLELY the cabin crew’s responsibility

A

Emer equipment stowages
747 galley 2 lift on main deck
747 remove cover over water heater and check

131
Q

At what height are the crew usually released and the FSBS’s switched off after take off?

A

10,000 feet

132
Q

During turbulence for landing, how many customers can Crew assist changing beds back to seat?

A

2 customers per Crew per aisle

133
Q

What are SENTRY and CHIRP?

A

SENTRY is VAA’s confidential reporting tool.

CHIRP is an independent reporting tool.

134
Q

Do Crew need to check boarding cards?

A

No.

135
Q

What colour tags should you see on hand luggage inbound and outbound?

A 
White outbound 
Red Return (inbound)
136
Q

True or false, duvets may not be stowed behind any suite?

A

True.

137
Q

Where used, would you inflate an ILJ if the child is sitting in a car seat/cares etc

A

No.

138
Q

When the captain is on break with a three man crew, which 1st officer is in charge?

A

The one sitting on the right.

139
Q

True or false, Crew with a temporary ID or VAA office ID only must not enter the flight deck in flight?

A

True

139
Q

True or false, confidential reporting can be made via IRMA.

A

False.

139
Q

On flights where crew rest is required but it is impossible to achieve the minimum three hours required by splitting the crew into three breaks, what procedure should the FSM follow?

A

Crew rest may be split into two breaks. No need to document.

139
Q

Crew must carry their atestation card on all flights.

A

False. Crew no longer need to carry these.

140
Q

True or false, a child over two can sit on a parents lap if authorised by Special Assistance?

A

True

141
Q

Must the captains permission be given to open the PRK in level 3 or 4 incidents where there is threat of injury or life?

A

No.

142
Q

What documentation are all Crew given when passing their initial training?

A

Crew atestation card.

SEP Revision (5 decks)

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