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MH-65 > STAN > Flashcards

STAN Flashcards

0
Q

Which caution light will you not get with altitude controller failure?

A

LOW ALT

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1
Q

Normal Transition Point

A

1500’ straightaway, 200’ AGL, 50-70 KIAS

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3
Q

Max N1 decrease during engine rinse?

A

10%

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3
Q

Land As Soon As Practicable

A

Extended flight is not recommended. Duration of flight and landing location are at the discretion of the PIC.

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4
Q

Max fuel load during hot refueling?

A

1500 lbs

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5
Q

Land As Soon As Possible

A

Aircraft shall be landed at the first site at which a safe landing can be made.

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6
Q

Continue Flight As Appropriate

A

Allows continuation of the mission if the failed component is not required to accomplish the mission and airframe or component limitations haven’t been exceeded.

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7
Q

Land/Ditch Immediately

A

Due to the seriousness of the malfunction, the aircraft shall be landed or ditched without delay.

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8
Q

Abort Mission

A

The aircraft shall not proceed on its assigned mission. Allows for continued flight to the desired recovery base.

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10
Q

In executing the ULY EP, consideration should be given to having the ________ switch the NR switch to high while the flying pilot executes the initial corrective actions.

A

Non-flying pilot

3-12

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11
Q

A PRI SERVO P light on the WCA with no secondary indications is a symptom of what EP?

A

Hydraulic Indicating System Failure

3-25

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12
Q

Slight Vibrations

A

Not apparent to experienced aircrew unless their total attention was directed to the vibrations

3-11

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13
Q

Moderate Vibrations

A

Would be noticeable to experienced aircrew but does not affect their work or concentration

3-11

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14
Q

Severe Vibrations

A

Immediately apparent to experienced aircrew and task performance can only be completed with difficulty

3-11

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15
Q

Intolerable Vibrations

A

Require aircrew’s sole preoccupation to reduce vibration level

3-11

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16
Q

Which EPs allow you to bring the engine back to flight after being in idle?

A

Engine Chip Detected, Engine Surge or Compressor Stall, Engine Oil Cooler Fan Failure

3-17, 19, 20

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17
Q

T/F AFCS is unable to execute FDS commands in disabled channels?

A

True

3-33

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18
Q

During a CATCH or MATCH, when the SP announces,”I am visual…” this means _________?

A

The SP has acquired sufficient visual cues to maintain a hover and take the flight controls.

2-25

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19
Q

On an FMS approach, when fully coupled in the APPR mode, the aircraft must be within ____ ft of the FAF altitude as displayed on the CDU, otherwise VERT may not capture.

A

25’

2-22

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20
Q

Pilot and Co-pilot should avoid setting their RADALT bugs at ____ ft and ____ ft.

A

200’, 40’

2-4

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21
Q

Lubrication System Failure CAUTION?

A

A combination of the engine oil pressure gauge decreasing or reading zero AND illumination of the OIL P warning light shall not be treated as an indicating system malfunction, but rather as a lubrication system failure. Pilots shall not wait for additional symptoms before completing the engine shutdown procedure.

3-19

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22
Q

T/F In the event of a Dual DC generator failure, you will lose all power to the equipment on the DC buses.

A

False

1-49, 3-28

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23
Q

During a dual DC generator failure, the transformer-rectifier cannot power either main DC bus with ______ secured.

A

Battery switches

3-28

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24
Q

Simulated emergencies shall not be conducted during _____ and are not recommended during DIW hoists, when ______.

A

Live hoists, committed

2-85

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25
Q

In executing a CATCH, the GPS index should be very low, ____ to ____, to ensure accuracy in waypoint definition.

A

50 ft, 0.6 NM

2-24

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26
Q

WARNING: The FM shall stand by the cabin door until _____ and a positive rate of climb are achieved.

A

a safe single engine airspeed

2-35

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27
Q

During a Free Fall deployment of the RS, the pilot shall maintain altitude until “______ _____” report is heard.

A

Swimmer away

2-42

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28
Q

Rotor engagement is limited to winds of ____ kts within ____ degrees of the aircraft heading or ____ kts from all other directions.

A

55, 20, 35

5-16

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29
Q

SADPU and MADPU recoveries may be executed in conjunction with what types of RS deployments?

A

Free Fall, Harness, Sling

2-41

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30
Q

T/F A safety feature of the FADEC will cancel the training mode if a minor or major FADEC failure occurs.

A

True

1-35

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31
Q

In the event the good engine fails after activation of the training mode, the idled engine will automatically provide power up to the _________ power rating

A

2 min OEI (LO)

1-35

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32
Q

Engine bleed air heat SHOULD/SHALL be secured prior to initiating practice single engine failures

A

Should

2-86

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33
Q

During Secondary Hydraulic System Low Fluid/Isolate condition, which subsystems/components are isolated?

A

Hydraulically - LDG gear, wheel brakes, TALON, left body of T/R servo; electrically - rescue hoist

1-56

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34
Q

T/F NVGs can be worn by the PIC during hot refuel operations.

A

True

2-77

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35
Q

The minimum crew required for aircraft operation is _______ and _______.

A

One pilot in the right seat, one crew member in the cabin

5-2

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35
Q

WARNING

A

Operating procedures, techniques, etc. which could result in personal injury or loss of life if not carefully followed

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36
Q

When executing an autorotative landing to the trees, water or an unprepared surface, prior to touchdown, set a ________ attitude to prevent nose over.

A

5 degrees nose up

3-15

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37
Q

CAUTION

A

Operating procedures, techniques, etc. which could result in damage to equipment if not carefully followed

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38
Q

With dual fuel boost pumps or ejectors failed, unusable fuel in the left system maybe as much as ______ lbs (___% to ___%) and in the right system as much as _____ lbs (___% to ___%). Do not ____ .

A

280 lbs, 14-13%; 60 lbs, 4-3%; reset boost pump circuit breakers

3-29

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39
Q

NOTE

A

Operating procedures, techniques, etc. which is considered essential to emphasize

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41
Q

Transmission oil pressure greater than 80 psi is a symptom of what EP?

A

MGB High Pressure

3-6

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42
Q

In executing an engine restart, FADEC will not initiate the start sequence until N1 drops below ____%

A

17%

3-20

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43
Q

The OEI-GOV mode will be displayed on the FLI when both engines are higher than ___% and one of the FADECs is in an _____ state, but not an ____ state.

A

40%, OEI, idle

1-20

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44
Q

During an isolate condition due to a low fluid scenario or TAIL HYD ISOLATE switch being placed to Cutoff, the relay transfers power away from the tail rotor isolation valve and redirects it to the ______ valve, ______ both valves.

A

2000 psi isolation, closing

1-56

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45
Q

WARNING: Flight below ____ (~ ___ KIAS) in instrument meteorological conditions carries a significant risk and should only be attempted when _____. Use of FDS modes such as T-HOV or GA is recommended.

A

Effective translational lift, 25 KIAS, mission urgency dictates

2-23

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46
Q

Maximum DA for Take-off/landings? Fwd flight?

A

10,000’ & 18,000’

5-5

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47
Q

Max permissible fwd airspeed is ___ KIAS @ sea level, @ a gross weight not exceeding ____ lbs

A

175, 6614

5-12

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47
Q

Regardless of nature/severity, the overriding consideration must be to:

A

Maintain A/C control
Analyze the situation
Take appropriate action

48
Q

WARNING: Vne is established for __, ________ flight only. Vne is reduced by maneuvers that increase _______

A

1G, straight & level; G loading

5-2

50
Q

Power available is a function of ____ and ____. In any single engine scenario, maximum power is attained at _____ & ______.

A

Nr, Q; OEI HI, 365 rpm-Nr HI

3-16

51
Q

NOTE: The_________ will still function even if the Nr indicator fails.

A

low Nr audio horn

3-12, IC3

52
Q

After Rescue Check Pt III the FM will stand by the door until?

A

Safe single engine airspeed & positive rate of climb

2-35

53
Q

WARNING: Do not secure the cockpit hoist master switch as all _____ _______ will be lost.

A

Shear capabilities

3-49, IC3

54
Q

After any hydraulic system failure it is desirable to reduce dynamic load on the flight controls. This is achieved by cruising at speeds between ____ and ____ KIAS.

A

75-100 KIAS

3-22

55
Q

You get an aural “gong” and limit light when torque 1 + 2 > ____

A

102.5%

5-2

56
Q

With loss of tail rotor thrust the offset lateral and cambered vertical fins provide sufficient horizontal lift to maintain balanced flight at airspeeds above ___ to ____ KIAS.

A

120 - 125 KIAS

3-13

57
Q

What is the MATCH nose attitude for the 2 different wind conditions?

A

winds up to 10kts - 4-5 degrees nose up
winds over 10 kts - 2-3 degrees nose up

2-26

58
Q

IAS-ALT and IAS-VS flight director modes should not be used above ____% of Max Continuous Power.

A

80% (80% of 8.8 = 7.0 on the FLI)

5-18

59
Q

CAUTION: During engine rinse, the maximum N1 decrease of the idled engine is ___%.

A

10%

2-18

59
Q

The maximum touchdown sink rate is ____ @ ____ lbs gross weight.

A

600’/min, 8900

60
Q

The minimum stabilized Nr speed is ____

A

320 rpm

5-4

61
Q

During a direct deployment, the RS remains attached to the hoist cable throughout the entire evolution and in most instances utilizes the quick strop to recover the survivor. Two alternate means of recovery may be used and are:

A

Double lift

Physical grip

62
Q

List the 5 methods to deploy the RS

A 
Direct
Ice
Sling
Harness
Free Fall (Day only)

2-41

64
Q

CRUISE FLIGHT

A

Flight above 80 KIAS. Max continuous power is 8.8 on the FLI

5-12

65
Q

At a _____ attitude, the tail skid and main landing gear (fully compressed struts) will contact simultaneously.

A

7 degree nose up

2-15

65
Q

Complete the BIG 4 & Engine Shutdown Procedure - Complete are the two bold face steps for which three EPs?

A

Flameout
Lubrication System Failure
Output Shaft Failure

66
Q

STR failure, by itself or as a part of an SCC failure will prohibit the functional use of ________

A

APR and NAV (FMS as the source)

3-38

67
Q

The ___ should be used to verify whether a GB CHIP warning light is associated with the ____ or ____ gearbox.

A

VEMD, Main, Tail rotor

69
Q

Full activation of the hoist control may cause momentary flicker of the _______

A

SEC HYD LO PRESS warning light

2-32

70
Q

During a CATCH the PAC must monitor _____ prior to VERT capture.

A

HSI

2-24

71
Q

T/F Tail rotor to a landing is now the ONLY procedure the requires a crash crew.

A

True

2-89

71
Q

What three EPs are you permitted to advance the FCS from IDLE to FLIGHT if you need additional power?

A

Engine CHIP
Compressor Stalls
Engine Oil Cooler Fan Failure

72
Q

Due to the potential for fire do not reset these three types of circuit breakers (2 different systems)

A

AC system
fuel xfer
boost pump

73
Q

During a MATCH if the gate is determined using time alone, after rolling wings level on the inbound leg the gate will be _____, plus _____ for every __ knots of wind.

A

60 seconds, 20 seconds, 5 kts

2-26

74
Q

3% or ‘Low’ in reference to fuel quantity gauge indicates that at or about ___ of flight time remains at Max Cont Power.

A

10 mins

5-11

75
Q

Fuel may be jettisoned between ___ and ____ KIAS, and rates of climb/descent of ____ fpm. Below ___ KIAS the landing gear ____ be DOWN. Only jettison from one system at a time and allow at least ____ before hovering after jettison is complete.

A

40, 120, 1500; 60, shall; 1 minute

Fuel may be jettisoned between ___ and ____ KIAS, and rates of climb/descent of ____ fpm. Below ___ KIAS the landing gear ____ be DOWN. Only jettison from one system at a time and allow at least ____ before hovering after jettison is complete.

76
Q

Simulated emergencies _____ ____ be conducted during ____ hoists, they are not recommended during ___ hoists once committed.

A

SHALL NOT, LIVE; DIW

77
Q

When conducting a RS Harness Deployment w/ Trail Line the use of the _____ ______ by the RS is mandatory.

A

Aircrew Protective Helmet

2-46

79
Q

What is the minimum safe distance for personnel from the H65s operating:
RADAR?
HF antenna?

A

7 ft
6 ft

2-91, A-92

80
Q

CAUTION: When used in conjunction with the TALON system, the electric pump should not be operated for over ____. Allow ____ cooling between cycles.

A

30 secs; 3 minutes

1-67

81
Q

Manual ITO

A

May be accomplished whenever the PIC desires. From a hover, check for normal indications. Disengage all FDS modes and smoothly increase collective to establish a climb, while setting a wings level and nose on the horizon attitude. Monitor RADALT and vertical speed for positive climb indications. After a climbing acceleration to 40 KIAS, lower the nose 5 degrees and continue accelerating until achieving a 70-80 KIAS climb profile. Once established, continue with a normal climb and engage non-collective FDS modes as required.

82
Q

Coupled ITO

A

With AFCS engaged & coupled to the FD, establish a hover & check for normal indications. Smoothly increase collective to establish a climb, while setting a wings level, nose on the horizon accelerating attitude. This will provide the airspeed necessary to preclude a descending nose-low takeoff profile.
Activate Go-Around (GA) at no less then 25’ AGL, ensuring cyclic is in a trimmed condition & avoiding fly-through. The helo will level and accelerate to 40 KIAS, @ 40 KIAS it will establish a 700 fpm climb and accelerate to 70 KIAS. Once established in this climb, select non-collective modes of the FD such as IAS and HDG SEL or NAV.

83
Q

Critical items in this section are denoted in ________, and _________

A

Boldface, shall be completed from memory

84
Q

T/F OEI Training Mode will only be automatically canceled when a major FADEC failure occurs

A

False. Both minor and major failures cause automatic cancellation.

1-35

85
Q

In order to maintain lateral CG limits, operational hovering is limited to winds of _____ knots within _______ degrees of the nose, _____ knots from all other azimuths.

A

In order to maintain lateral CG limits, operational hovering is limited to winds of 55 knots within 20 degrees of the nose, 35 knots from all other azimuths.

5-17

86
Q

AEO Torque Stops:

a. Normal (1st stop)
b. Things going bad (2nd stop)
c. Hitting the fan (3rd stop)

A
  1. 0
  2. 8 (when NR < 325 rpm)
  3. 5 (when NR < 317 rpm or decreasing > 2 rpm/sec)
87
Q

What events automatically cause 30-sec OEI HI to be armed?

A

Major FADEC Failure
BACKUP mode selected on one engine
N1 difference > 6%
Engine Failure

88
Q

An Oil Temp warning light is a symptom for what three Emergency Procedures?

A

MGB Overtemp
Eng Oil Cooler Fan Failure
MGB Indicating System Failure

89
Q

The VEMD should be used to verify whether a _______ warning light is associated with the Main gearbox or the Tail Rotor gearbox.

A

GB Chip

90
Q

“Complete the Big 4” and “Engine Shutdown Procedure Complete” are the two bold face steps for which THREE Emergency Procedures?

A

Flameout
Lubrication System Failure
Engine Gearbox/Output Shaft Failure

91
Q

In an actual single engine situation, the maximum power available is attained at the ______ rating and _____ rpm. Power decreases as NR drops below _____ rpm.

A

30-second OEI, 365, 365

In an actual single engine situation, the maximum power available is attained at the ______ rating and _____ rpm. Power decreases as NR drops below _____ rpm.

92
Q

With physical grip RS recovery, the RS/survivor should not be hoisted higher than ___ feet above the water/surf to prevent further injury should the survivor slip.

A

10’

2-48

93
Q

During Free Fall/Harness/Sling Deployments of the RS, do not deploy the RS closer than ____ feet from survivor. When delivering a device to the RS in the water, the FM conns to place the hoisting device in the water ___ to ___ feet from the RS.

A

During Free Fall/Harness/Sling Deployments of the RS, do not deploy the RS closer than 5 feet from survivor. When delivering a device to the RS in the water, the FM conns to place the hoisting device in the water 5 to 10 feet from the RS.

2-42

94
Q

Length of the trail line?

A

105’

95
Q

Total usable length of hoist cable?

A

245’

96
Q

Due to maintenance performed, the amount of usable hoist cable may have been reduced to a minimum of ____ feet.

A

210’

97
Q

The CDU will generate the CATCH pattern to place the helicopter approximately ___ feet short of the Hover At Point.

A

800’

2-24

98
Q

What are the five relative wind azimuth regions or aerodynamic factors conducive to ULY?

A
  1. Weathercock Stability (120-240)
  2. Main/Tail Rotor Interaction (040-095)
  3. Loss of ETL (all azimuths)
  4. Left Crosswinds (255-310)
  5. Collective Induced Yaw (all azimuths)

6-4

99
Q

What are the five flight regimes susceptible to ULY?

A
  1. Low Speed Left Downwind turns
  2. Hovering Pedal Turns, Tail Through Windline in High Winds
  3. Pilot Induced High Yaw Rates
  4. Low Pedal Margin Maneuvers
  5. Left Sideward Flight

6-5

100
Q

Maximum pressure for single point refueling?

A

55 psi

101
Q

T/F Loss of the pilot’s REF input (EGI Failure) will result in invalid TCN indications.

A

False - it will result in invalid VOR indications; ILS/LOC & glide slope are not affected

102
Q

T/F Loss of the copilot’s REF input (EGI Failure) will result in invalid VOR indications.

A

False - it will result in invalid TACAN indications

103
Q

During an elevated pad/pinnacle approach, a known visual illusion tends to make the pilot perceive that the aircraft is ____ and ____ .

A

high, slow

104
Q

Caution: With ESS installed, consideration should be given to avoiding nose ____ landings due to the minimal ground clearance afforded.

A

upslope

105
Q

What are the items briefed in the departure/ITO brief?

A 
THAI:
Type
Heading
Alt for level off
Info - other pertinent
106
Q

Movement of the tail rotor pedals while the main rotor is below ___ rpm is prohibited.

A

266 rpm

107
Q

When below 200 feet AWL and below 40 KIAS, the sliding door ____ be open over water, except when completing RESCUE CHECKLIST PART 3.

A

shall

108
Q

Only the ___ has the authority to deploy the rescue swimmer.

A

PIC

109
Q

A CATCH requires operating:

A

FRACS

FDS coupled to the AFCS (implies CP EGI)
RADALT
Altitude controller
CDU
SCC (STR function)
110
Q

T/F Prior to conducting a NATCH the letdown checklist shall be completed.

A

False - Ldg/Hover Checks shall, time permitting consideration should be given to completing letdown checks

111
Q

Hovering operations when little or no visual reference is available may induce pilot disorientation, particularly at
night, due to downwash spray. This spray may be encountered to an altitude of approximately ___ feet at ____ and ___.

A

40’, heavy gross weights, no wind

Hovering operations when little or no visual reference is available may induce pilot disorientation, particularly at
night, due to downwash spray. This spray may be encountered to an altitude of approximately ___ feet at ____ and ___.

112
Q

Search 1 and 2 modes will act as _____ if a range greater than _____nm is selected.

A

Search 3, 10NM

Search 1 and 2 modes will act as _____ if a range greater than _____nm is selected.

113
Q

T/F Once an engine is shutdown by the FADEC/BIM, overspeed protection is automatically inhibited on the second engine.

A

True

114
Q

The words “_____” or “_____” are to be used to indicate a mandatory requirement. The word “____” is to be used to indicate a non-mandatory desire or preferred method of accomplishment. The word “____” is used to indicate an acceptable or suggested means of accomplishment.

A

shall, will, should, may

The words “_____” or “_____” are to be used to indicate a mandatory requirement. The word “____” is to be used to indicate a non-mandatory desire or preferred method of accomplishment. The word “____” is used to indicate an acceptable or suggested means of accomplishment.

115
Q

“Check CDU” and “Engine Exceed” annunciations DO or DO NOT constitute secondary indications of a malfunction?

A

DO NOT

116
Q

Vertical speed shall be less than ____ fpm at activation of IAS‐VS for the collective to hold a vertical speed of zero.

A

150 fpm

117
Q

What is the transient torque limit on the FLI?

A

10.7 - remember this is for N1/TOT as the limiting factor; the 5 sec transient for TQ is 10.4 and is not visually represented on the FLI

118
Q

During a Catch, the PAC monitors the ____ page on the MFD prior to ____ capture.

A

HSI, VERT

MH-65 (4 decks)

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