Stages of Labor Flashcards

1
Q

When does the onset of labor usually occur?

A

38 - 42 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are the 4 P’s of labor?

A
  • Power
  • Passenger
  • Pelvis
  • Psyche
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are the aspects of “power”? (2)

A
  • Uterine contractions
  • Cervical effacement / dilation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are contractions?

A

Rhythmic tightening / pulling of uterine muscles (increment, acme, decrement)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

______ DO NOT dilate / efface the cervix

A

Braxton Hicks contractions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is contraction duration?

A

Start to end of same contraction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is contraction frequency?

A

Start of one contraction to start of next contraction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the increment of a contraction?

A

Contraction increases / muscle tightens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the acme of a contraction?

A

Peak / strongest point of a contraction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the decrement of a contraction?

A

Contraction decreases / muscle relaxes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

How is contraction intensity measured?

A

By pressing the fingertips into the fundus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Describe the comparisons used to measure contraction intensity (3)

A
  • Mild = fundus indentation similar to nose
  • Moderate = fundus indentation similar to chin
  • Strong = fundus indentation similar to forehead
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is cervical effacement?

A

Thinning / shortening of the cervical canal (usually 2 - 3 cm –> becomes paper thin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Describe the process of cervical effacement (2)

A
  • As the cervix begins to efface, more amniotic fluid collects below the fetal head
  • Increased amount of amniotic fluid creates hydrostatic pressure on the cervix
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Describe cervical dilation

A

Enlargement of the cervical opening for passage of the fetus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Describe the occurrence of cervical effacement / dilation in primigravida mothers

A

Effacement typically occurs before dilation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

How often should the cervix be checked for dilation?

A

Once every hour

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are the signs of impending labor? (6)

A
  • Lightening
  • Cervical ripening
  • Bloody show
  • Backache
  • Nesting
  • ROM
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is lightening?

A

Fetus settles into pelvic inlet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

When does lightening occur?

A

2 weeks before labor in primigravida

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What are the manifestations of lightening? (3)

A
  • Easier breathing
  • Decreased pressure on the diaphragm
  • Increased bladder pressure - frequent urination
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is bloody show?

A

Blood-tinged secretion of mucus plug from cervix

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

When does bloody show occur?

A

24 - 48 hours before labor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

When can blood-tinged mucus occur and be confused with bloody show?

A

During a vaginal exam

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

When does nesting / sudden burst of energy occur?

A

24 - 48 hours before labor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Why should induction occur if labor hasn’t started 24 hours after ROM?

A

To prevent infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

How can ROM be distinguished from urinary incontinence?

A

Nitrazine paper - will turn blue if amniotic fluid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Describe contractions associated with true labor (2)

A
  • Regular contractions
  • Increase in duration / frequency
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Describe discomfort / pain associated with true labor (3)

A
  • Back / lower abdomen
  • Worse with activity / walking
  • Not relieved with mild sedation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Describe cervical changes associated with true labor (2)

A
  • Progressive effacement / dilation
  • Bloody show
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Describe contractions associated with false labor (2)

A
  • Irregular contractions
  • No increase in duration / frequency
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Describe discomfort / pain associated with false labor (3)

A
  • Groin / middle abdomen
  • Improved with activity / walking
  • Relieved with mild sedation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Describe cervical changes associated with false labor (2)

A
  • No effacement / dilation
  • No bloody show
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Why is it important to NEVER lay supine when pregnant (regardless of labor stage)?

A

Risk of vena cava syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Which position is best to prevent vena cava syndrome?

A

Left lateral position

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Describe vena cava syndrome

A

Uterus puts pressure on vena cava - cuts off blood return

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What are the manifestations of vena cava syndrome? (4)

A
  • Pallor
  • Clammy skin
  • Hypotension
  • Late decelerations
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What are the labor triggers? (2)

A
  • Prostaglandin
  • Oxytocin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What is the drug class of cervidil?

A

Prostaglandin E2 (PGE2)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What is the drug class of misoprostol (Cytotec)?

A

Prostaglandin E1 (PGE1)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Which class of prostaglandin causes faster and more effective cervical ripening?

A

Prostaglandin E1 (PGE1)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What is the drug class of indomethacin?

A

Prostaglandin inhibitor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What is the purpose of indomethacin?

A

Inhibits premature labor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

When can indomethacin be used?

A

≤ 32 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What is the drug class of pitocin?

A

Oxytocin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

IV pitocin can be used to induce labor if the cervix is ______

A

Inducible (softened)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What hormone is needed to sustain a pregnancy?

A

Progesterone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Describe the length of labor in multipara mothers compared to primipara mothers

A

Multipara labors are typically faster - the more times that the cervix has been stretched, the faster it will dilate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

If a patient has had several previous births and been in labor for hours prior to admission, the nurse should …

A

Do a vaginal exam ASAP after admission to check for dilation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

When is the first stage of labor?

A

Cervical effacement / dilation from 1 - 10 cm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

The first stage of labor consists of what 3 sub-phases?

A
  • Latent phase
  • Active phase
  • Transition phase
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

How effaced / dilated is the patient during the latent phase?

A
  • 0% - 40% effaced
  • 0 - 3 cm dilated
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

How effaced / dilated is the patient during the active phase?

A
  • 40% - 80% effaced
  • 4 - 7 cm dilated
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

How effaced / dilated is the patient during the transition phase?

A
  • 80% - 100% effaced
  • 8 - 10 cm dilated
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What is the frequency / duration of contractions during the latent phase?

A

Q 5 - 30 minutes, lasting 30 - 45 seconds

56
Q

What is the frequency / duration of contractions during the active phase?

A

Q 2 - 5 minutes, lasting 45 - 70 seconds

57
Q

What is the frequency / duration of contractions during the transition phase?

A

Q 2 - 3 minutes, lasting 45 - 90 seconds

58
Q

Describe maternal behaviors during the latent phase (3)

A
  • Anticipation / excitement
  • Teachable / follows directions
  • Pain is controlled
59
Q

Describe maternal behaviors during the active phase (2)

A
  • Concentration / serious
  • Fear of being alone
60
Q

What nursing interventions should take place during the active phase of labor? (4)

A
  • Position
  • Urination
  • Relaxation
  • Respiration
61
Q

Pain medication should be avoided until ______

A

4 cm - can slow down labor

62
Q

Why is it important to urinate frequently during the active phase of labor?

A

A full bladder can increase the intensity of contractions

63
Q

Describe maternal behaviors during the transition phase (4)

A
  • Screaming / crying
  • Shaking / chills
  • Nausea / vomiting
  • Need for BM - rectal pressure
64
Q

What are the aspects of “passenger”? (4)

A
  • Fetal attitude
  • Fetal lie
  • Fetal presentation
  • Fetal position
65
Q

Define fetal attitude

A

The relationship of fetal parts to each other

66
Q

Describe proper fetal attitude at term (5)

A
  • Head flexed (vertex)
  • Chin tucked
  • Arms crossed over chest
  • Thighs against abdomen
  • Knees flexed
67
Q

Define fetal lie

A

The relationship of fetal and mother spines

68
Q

What are the 2 types of fetal lie?

A
  • Longitudinal
  • Transverse
69
Q

Describe longitudinal fetal lie

A

Fetal and mother spines are parallel (preferred)

70
Q

Describe transverse fetal lie

A

Fetal and mother spines are perpendicular (cannot deliver vaginally)

71
Q

Define fetal presentation

A

The manner in which the fetus enters the pelvis

72
Q

What are the 3 types of fetal presentation?

A
  • Cephalic
  • Breech
  • Transverse
73
Q

What is the presenting part in cephalic presentation?

74
Q

Which type of cephalic presentation is shown?

75
Q

Which type of cephalic presentation is shown?

76
Q

Which type of cephalic presentation is shown?

77
Q

When does the anterior fontanel close?

78
Q

When does the posterior fontanel close?

A

8 - 12 weeks

79
Q

Which fontanel is larger / easier to palpate?

A

Anterior fontanel (2 - 3 cm)

80
Q

What is the presenting part in breech presentation?

81
Q

What are the complications associated with breech presentation? (2)

A
  • Cord prolapse
  • Passage of meconium
82
Q

Describe frank breech presentation

A

Flexed hips

83
Q

Describe complete breech presentation

A

Flexed hips and knees

84
Q

Describe incomplete / footling breech presentation

A

One or both feet extending at the hips and knees

85
Q

What is the presenting part in transverse presentation?

86
Q

Define fetal position

A

Relationship of fetal landmarks to the pelvis

87
Q

Which fetal position has the best outcome?

A

Occiput anterior

88
Q

Which fetal position is shown?

A

Right occiput anterior (ROA)

89
Q

Which fetal position is shown?

A

Left occiput anterior (LOA)

90
Q

Which fetal position is shown?

A

Right occiput posterior (ROP)

91
Q

Which fetal position is shown?

A

Left occiput posterior (LOP)

92
Q

Why is occiput posterior position not preferred?

A

Increased pressure on sacral nerves - causes back pain

93
Q

______ is used to determine the presentation / position of the fetus

A

Leopold’s maneuver

94
Q

Describe the Leopold Maneuver

A

1st - determines fetal direction (longitudinal or transverse)

95
Q

Describe the Leopold Maneuver

A

2nd - determines position of fetal back and small parts

96
Q

Describe the Leopold Maneuver

A

3rd - determines degree of engagement

97
Q

Describe the Leopold Maneuver

A

4th - determines fetal occipital prominence

98
Q

It is important to determine the ______ of the pelvis in early pregnancy

99
Q

What are the 4 types of pelvis shape?

A
  • Gynecoid
  • Anthropoid
  • Android
  • Platypelloid
100
Q

Describe gynecoid pelvis shape (2)

A
  • Round / wide shape
  • Most favorable for vaginal delivery
101
Q

Describe anthropoid pelvis shape (2)

A
  • Oval / narrow shape
  • Adequate for vaginal delivery
102
Q

Describe android pelvis shape (2)

A
  • Heart shape
  • Not favorable for vaginal delivery
103
Q

Describe platypelloid pelvis shape (2)

A
  • Flat shape
  • Not favorable for vaginal delivery
104
Q

What are the aspects of “psyche”? (3)

A
  • Level of excitement, tension, and fear
  • Unfamiliar environment
  • Loss of control / pain
105
Q

When is the second stage of labor?

A

From 10 cm until the baby is born

106
Q

What are the 7 cardinal movements of labor?

A
  1. Engagement
  2. Descent
  3. Flexion
  4. Internal rotation
  5. Extension
  6. External rotation / restitution
  7. Expulsion
107
Q

When is the fetus considered engaged?

A

When the biparietal diameter (BPD) passes through the pelvic inlet

108
Q

What is the biparietal diameter (BPD)?

A

The largest transverse diameter of the fetal head

109
Q

______ is the most important indicator of fetal size

A

Biparietal diameter (BPD)

110
Q

Define floating / ballottable

A

Fetal head freely moveable above the pelvic inlet

111
Q

Describe descent

A

Progressive movement of fetus through the pelvis

112
Q

How is descent measured?

113
Q

Where is 0 station?

A

The ischial spine

114
Q

What does negative station indicate?

A

Number of cm above the ischial spine

115
Q

What does positive station indicate?

A

Number of cm below the ischial spine

116
Q

At what station is the fetal head visible (crowning)?

117
Q

Describe flexion

A

Chin becomes tucked

118
Q

Describe internal rotation

A

Fetal head turns to fit through pelvis (ideally assumes occiput anterior position)

119
Q

Describe extension

A

Fetal head is born (back of the head exits first)

120
Q

Describe external rotation / restitution

A

Realignment of head and shoulders (turn 45 degrees)

121
Q

Describe expulsion

A

Anterior shoulder is delivered, followed by posterior shoulder and rest of the body

122
Q

When is the third stage of labor?

A

Expulsion of the placenta

123
Q

Describe placental separation (2)

A
  • Sudden gush of blood
  • 8 inches of umbilical cord exits vagina
124
Q

Placenta separation indicates that …

A

The placenta is ready for expulsion

125
Q

How long does placental expulsion typically take?

A

5 - 20 minutes

126
Q

______ control bleeding during placental expulsion

A

Uterine contractions

127
Q

______ is routinely given after placental expulsion

A

IV pitocin

128
Q

What intervention should take place after an unattended delivery if no medication can be ordered?

A

Put the baby to the breast - breastfeeding stimulates oxytocin

129
Q

A placenta is considered retained after ______

A

30 minutes

130
Q

When is the fourth stage of labor?

A

1 - 4 hours postpartum recovery

131
Q

What is the average amount of blood loss during birth?

A

250 - 500 cc

132
Q

What changes occur during the first 1 - 4 hours postpartum? (2)

A
  • Physiologic readjustment
  • Hemodynamic changes
133
Q

What is the primary focus during the first 1 - 4 hours postpartum?

A

Uterine contractility

134
Q

How often should vital signs be assessed during the first 1 - 4 hours postpartum?

A

Q 15 minutes

135
Q

Describe the nursing interventions associated with uterine contractility postpartum (2)

A
  • Palpate for firmness Q 15 minutes
  • If boggy, massage to prevent uterine atony / hemorrhage