Childbirth at Risk Flashcards

1
Q

What is abruptio placenta?

A

Premature separation of the placenta from the uterine wall

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is placenta previa?

A

Placenta covering the opening of the cervix

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What condition is often associated with placenta previa?

A

Placenta accreta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is placenta accreta?

A

Placenta deeply embedded into the uterine wall via chorionic villi - becomes retained during labor and causes serve hemorrhage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the most severe variation of placenta accreta?

A

Placenta precreta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Placenta precreta usually requires ______

A

Emergency hysterectomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is battledore placenta?

A

Umbilical cord implanted at placental margin rather than center of the placenta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Variation of umbilical cord insertion occurs more frequently in what type of pregnancy?

A

Multiple gestation - twins, triplets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is circumvallate placenta?

A

Amnion and chorion fold back over the edge of the placenta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Circumvallate placenta is a form of ______

A

Placenta extrachorialis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Describe the management / treatment of circumvallate placenta

A

Benign - no intervention required

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is succenturiate placenta?

A

Placenta contains extra accessory lobes (morphological abnormality)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Describe the management / treatment of succenturiate placenta

A

No major risk to fetus - no intervention needed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the average umbilical cord length?

A

55 cm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Describe the risks associated with short umbilical cords

A

Rarely cause complications because fetus has decreased ability to move

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Describe the risks associated with long umbilical cords

A

Risk of variable decelerations because cord is likely to twist / tangle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Describe the composition of the umbilical cord (2)

A
  • 2 small / firm arteries
  • 1 large / soft vein
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

The umbilical arteries carry ______ blood

A

Deoxygenated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

The umbilical vein carries ______ blood

A

Oxygenated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the most common umbilical cord abnormality?

A

Congenital absence of 1 artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What should take place if there is absence of an umbilical artery?

A

Examination for other neonatal organ anomalies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is cord prolapse?

A

Umbilical cord descends below the fetus after ROM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is the greatest risk factor of cord prolapse?

A

Breech position (especially incomplete / footling)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

When membranes rupture it is important to palpate and assess for ______

A

Cord prolapse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Cord prolapse causes …

A

Bradycardia due to cord compression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is the primary intervention to prevent cord prolapse if there is a vulnerable cord?

A

Bedrest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Describe the treatment of cord prolapse (2)

A
  • Leave hand in vagina to prevent compression
  • Emergency c-section
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

How much fluid is considered polyhydramnios?

A

> 2000 cc

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

How much fluid is considered oligohydramnios?

30
Q

Oligohydramnios often results in ______

A

Cord compression

31
Q

______ is common for a multiple gestation of 3 or more fetuses

32
Q

Difficultly during labor is known as ______

33
Q

During active labor, the cervix should dilate at a rate of ______ in primigravida

A

1.2 cm / hr

34
Q

During active labor, the cervix should dilate at a rate of ______ in multigravida

A

1.5 cm / hr

35
Q

Describe hypertonic contractions

A

Excessive / erratic contractions

36
Q

Hypertonic contractions can cause ______

A

Fetal distress

37
Q

When do hypertonic contractions typically occur?

A

The latent phase

38
Q

Describe the treatment of hypertonic contractions (2)

A
  • Bedrest
  • Tocolytics
39
Q

Describe hypotonic contractions

A

Weak / infrequent contractions (not dangerous)

40
Q

Hypotonic contractions can cause ______

A

Slow / prolonged labor

41
Q

When do hypotonic contractions typically occur?

A

The active phase

42
Q

No cervical change for 2 hours is considered ______

A

Arrest of labor progress

43
Q

Describe the treatment of hypotonic contractions (3)

A
  • Augment pitocin
  • Amniotomy
  • Reposition
44
Q

Which type of contractions are more common?

A

Hypotonic contractions

45
Q

What are the signs of fetal compromise? (3)

A
  • Non-reassuring FHR
  • Fetal acidosis
  • Meconium
46
Q

What are the signs of maternal compromise? (2)

A
  • Maternal exhaustion
  • Maternal infection
47
Q

Describe the nursing interventions associated with ineffective pushing (4)

A
  • Increase fluids
  • Intermittent pushing
  • Squatting position
  • McRoberts maneuver
48
Q

Describe McRoberts maneuver

A

Thighs flexed up to abdomen to increase angle of pelvic outlet

49
Q

What is considered macrosomia?

50
Q

Macrosomia creates an increased risk of ______

A

Shoulder dystocia

51
Q

What is shoulder dystocia?

A

Fetal shoulder gets stuck behind symphysis pubis

52
Q

______ is a network of nerves that run from the spine through the shoulder and to the tips of the fingers

A

The brachial plexus

53
Q

What brachial plexus injury can result from shoulder dystocia?

A

Erb’s palsy

54
Q

What is Erb’s palsy?

A

Arm paralysis due to injury of cranial nerves 5 and 6

55
Q

If the fetal head is unengaged early in labor in primigravida, what condition should the nurse suspect?

A

Cephalopelvic disproportion (CPD)

56
Q

What is precipitous birth?

A

Entire process of labor / birth occurs within 3 hours

57
Q

What fetal risks are associated with precipitous birth? (4)

A
  • Low apgar score
  • Facial deformities
  • Cone-shaped head
  • Intracranial trauma
58
Q

What is the primary cause of postpartum pregnancy (extending > 42 weeks)?

A

Error in EDC

59
Q

What is the primary fetal risk associated with postmaturity?

A

Decreased amniotic fluid volume (AFI < 5 cm)

60
Q

Intrauterine fetal demise is also known as ______

A

Stillborn fetus

61
Q

What is the primary compilation associated with intrauterine fetal demise?

A

DIC - systemic clotting (life threatening for mother)

62
Q

What are the manifestations of uterine rupture? (3)

A
  • Stopped labor
  • Sudden fetal bradycardia
  • Tearing sensation
63
Q

What is the treatment for a retained placenta if manual removal fails?

64
Q

Describe the prevention of uterine inversion

A

Do not pull on umbilical cord until placenta separates

65
Q

Describe the treatment of uterine inversion (3)

A
  • Tocolytics
  • Laparotomy
  • Hysterectomy
66
Q

Describe 1st degree vaginal laceration

A

Extends through perineal skin

67
Q

Describe 2nd degree vaginal laceration

A

Extends through underlying perineal muscles

68
Q

Describe 3rd degree vaginal laceration

A

Extends through the perineal body to the anal sphincter

69
Q

Describe 4th degree vaginal laceration

A

Extends through the rectal mucosa to the rectal wall

70
Q

What is the primary cause of a 4th degree vaginal laceration?

A

Extension of a midline episiotomy