Stages of Childbirth Flashcards

1
Q

The first stage occurs from ________ until _______

A

Onset of labour (true contractions)

10cm cervical dilatation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

The second stage occurs from _______ until _______

A

10cm cervical dilatation

Delivery of the baby

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

The third stage occurs from _______ until _______

A

Delivery of the baby

Delivery of the placenta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are Braxton-Hicks contractions?

When do they usually occur?

A

Occasional irregular contractions of the uterus. Not true contractions and DO NOT INDICATE ONSET OF LABOUR!

Usually felt in the 2nd and 3rd trimester.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the management for Braxton-Hicks contractions?

A

Staying hydrated and relaxing

No medicine needed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is effacement and when does it occur?

A

Cervix stretching and getting thinner

Occurs in 1st stage of labour

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the “show”?

When does it fall out?

A

Mucus plug in the cervix that prevents bacteria from entering uterus during pregnancy.

Falls out in 1st stage to create space for baby to pass through.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are the 3 phases of the first stage?

A

LAT

  1. Latent phase
  2. Active phase
  3. Transition phase
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What occurs in the latent phase of the first stage of labour?

A

Cervical dilation 0.5cm/hr

0 –> 3cm dilatation

Irregular PAINFUL contractions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What occurs in the active phase of the first stage of labour?

A

Cervical dilation 1cm/hr

3 –> 7cm dilatation

Regular contractions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What occurs in the transition phase of the first stage of labour?

A

Cervical dilation 1cm/hr

7 –> 10cm dilatation

Strong and regular contractions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are the 3 P’s of the second stage?

Hint: these are critical to the success of delivery of the baby.

A

Power
Passenger
Passage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is POWER in the second stage?

A

Strength of the uterine contractions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is PASSENGER in the second stage? (Hint: 4 qualities)

A

SLAP

Size: size of head

Lie: position of foetus
compared to mother’s body

Attitude: posture of fetus (back rounded? head/limbs flexed?)

Presentation: Cephalic/shoulder/Breech

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is PASSAGE in the second stage?

A

Size and shape of the passageway, mainly pelvis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are the 7 cardinal movements of labour?

A
  1. Engagement
  2. Descent
  3. Flexion
  4. Internal rotation
  5. Extension
  6. Restitution and external rotation
  7. Expulsion
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is descent in labour?

A

Position of baby’s head in relation to mother’s ischial spines during descent phase.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

How is descent measured in labour?

Hint: There are 3 landmarks

A
  • 5cm: baby high up at round pelvic inlet
    0cm: head is at ischial spines (ENGAGED)

+5cm: when fetal head has descended further out

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is physiological management of the third stage of labour?

A

Placenta delivered by maternal effort without meds or cord traction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is active management of the third stage of labour?

A

Midwife/doctor assist in delivering placenta.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Why is active management of the third stage of labour carried out?

A

Shortens 3rd stage and reduces bleeding risk

Done if haemorrhage or 60 min+ delay in delivering the placenta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What drug is primarily used during active management of labour?

A

IM oxytocin to help uterus contract and expel the placenta

Done together with careful traction of umblical cord to guide it out of uterus and vagina.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What are the 4 signs of labour?

A

Show (mucus plug from cervix)

ROM

Regular,painful contractions

Dilating cervix on examination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

When is induction of labour used?

A
  • When patients go over due date (41-42 weeks gestation)

or

When beneficial to start labour early:

  • Prelabour ROM
  • FGR
  • Pre-eclampsia
  • Obstetric cholestasis
  • Existing diabetes
  • Miscarriage
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is the Bishop score?

A

Scoring system used to determine whether to induce labour

Assesses 5 things: fetal station, cervical positon, cervical dilatation, cervical effacement and cervical consistency.

Score 8+ = predicts successful induction of
labour

Score below this = cervical ripening may be required to prepare the cervix

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What are options for the induction of labour? (List 5)

A

Membrane sweep

Vaginal prostaglandin E2

Cervical ripening balloon (CRB)

Artifical ROM with oxytocin infusion

Oral mifepristone + misoprostol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

When is membrane sweet performed?

A

40 weeks gestation+ to initiate labour in women over EDD

Labour induced within 48 hours!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What forms can vaginal prostaglandin be given in?

A

Pessary
Gel
Tablet

Done in hospital so woman can be observed before being let home.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is the role of prostagladins in labour?

A

Stimulates cervix and uterus to cause onset of labour.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

When are CRB and artificial ROM used?

A

To induce labour when vaginal prostagladins are contraindicated or failed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

When is oral mifepristone + misoprostol used?

A

To induce labour where intrauterine fetal death has occured. - Miscarriage :(

32
Q

What 2 monitoring forms are used during induction of labour?

A

CTG (fetal HR and uterine contractions before/during induction of labour)

Bishop score (before and during induction to monitor progress)

33
Q

What is the main complication of inducing labour with vaginal prostaglandins?

A

Uterine hyperstimulation

*Uterus contracts prolonged and frequent - causes fetal distress and compromise

34
Q

What are the 2 criteria for uterine hyperstimulation?

A

Individual uterine contractions lasting more than 2 minutes in duration

More than 5 uterine contractions every 10 minutes

35
Q

What are the risks of uterine hyperstimulation?

A

Fetal compromise (hypoxia/acidosis)

Emergency C-section

Uterine rupture

36
Q

How is uterine hyperstimulation managed?

A

Removing vaginal prostaglandins or stopping oxytocin infusion (stop medications causing contractions for labour)

Tocolysis with terbutaline (stop contractions)

37
Q

When does a perineal tear occur?

A

When external vaginal opening is too narrow to accommodate the baby.

Baby’s head passes and tears through.

38
Q

How are perineal tears classified?

A

Frenulum of labia minora and superficial skin (1st degree)

Perineal mucles (2nd degree)

Large tear involving anal sphincter (3rd degree)

Large tear involving rectal mucosa (4th degree)

39
Q

What are risk factors for perineal tears?

A
First births (nulliparity)
Large babies (over 4kg)
Shoulder dystocia
Asian ethnicity
Occipito-posterior position of fetus
Instrument delivery
40
Q

How are perineal tears managed?

A

Depends on their degree.

First degree - no sutures

2+ degree - sutures + the following:

  • Broad spectrum abx to reduce infection
  • Laxatives to reduce constipation and wound dehiscence
  • Physio to reduce incontinence
  • Followup to monitor for longstanding complications

Women symptomatic after 3rd/4th degree tears are offered elective C-section in subsequent pregnancies.

41
Q

What are short term complications after repair of perineal tears?

A

Pain
Infection
Bleeding
Wound dehiscence/breakdown

42
Q

What are long-term complications of perineal tears?

A

Urine/faecal incontinence
Painful sex
Psych/mental health
Fistula between vagina/bowel (rare)

43
Q

Why is an episiotomy sometimes performed?

A

Cut in perineum

Done when anticipating more room for delivering baby

Avoids damaging the anal sphincter in a perineal tear

Cut is sutured after delivery

44
Q

Why is a perineal massage sometimes perfomed?

A

Done in advance of delivery to stretch and prepare the tissues for delivery.

45
Q

How much blood needs to be lost to be classified as a postpartum hemorrhage?

A

500ml (if vaginal delivery)

1000ml (after C-section)

46
Q

What are the 4 grades of postpartum hemorrhage?

A

Minor PPH <1000ml loss
Major PPH >1000ml loss

Moderate PPH 1000-2000 loss
Severe PPH >2000ml loss

47
Q

What is the difference between primary and secondary postpartum hemorrhage?

A

Primary PPH - bleeding within 24h of birth

Secondary PPH - bleeding from 24h - 12 weeks after birth

48
Q

What are the 4 causes of postpartum hemorrhage?

Hint: 4 T’s

A

Tone - uterine atony
Trauma - perineal tear
Tissue - retained placenta
Thrombin - bleeding disorder

49
Q

What are risk factors for postpartum hemorrhage?

A
Previous PPH
Multiple pregnancy
Obesity
Large baby
Failure to progress in second stage of labour
Prolonged third stage
Pre-eclampsia
Placenta accreta
Retained placenta
Instrumental delivery
General anaesthesia
Episiotomy or perineal tear
50
Q

What are preventative measures against postpartum hemorrhage?

A

Treating anaemia antenatally

Giving birth with empty bladder (full bladder reduces uterine contraction)

Active management of 3rd stage (with IM oxytocin)

IV tranexamic acid (during C-section in 3rd stage in higher risk patients)

51
Q

List the management steps for postpartum hemorrhage.

A

MDT approach

ABCDE resuscitation

Lie woman flat, keep warm and communicate

Insert 2x large cannulas

Bloods - FBC, U&E, Clotting

Group+cross match 4 units blood

Warmed IV fluid and blood as required

Oxygen (regardless of saturations)

FFP when clotting abnormalities or after 4 units of blood

52
Q

What blood group can be used instead of crossmatched blood/

A

O negative

53
Q

What are MECHANICAL treatment options for stopping the bleeding with postpartum hemorrhage?

A

Rubbing uterus (stimulates contraction)

Catherisation (bladder distension prevents uterus contractions)

54
Q

What are possible sources of bleeding for postpartum hemorrhage?

A
Uterine rupture
High vaginal tear
Cervical tear
Perineal trauma
Retained placenta

Usually atonic uterus is the cause or fails to contract properly.

55
Q

When is an atonic uterus more common?

A

During prolonged labour

Grand multiparity

OVerdistension of uterus (polyhydramnios, multiple pregnancy)

56
Q

What are MEDICAL treatment options for stopping the bleeding with postpartum hemorrhage?

A

Oxytocin (IM + IV infusion) - stimulates uterus contraction

Ergometrine (IV/IM) - stimulates smooth muscle contraction. Don’t use if HTN.

Carboprost (IM) - prostagladin analogue - stimulates uterus contraction. Don’t use if asthma.

Misoprostol (SL) - prostagladin analogue - stimulates uterus contraction.

Tranexamic acid (IV) - antifibrinolytic reduces bleeding

57
Q

What are SURGICAL treatment options for stopping the bleeding with postpartum hemorrhage?

A

Intrauterine balloon tamponade (presses against bleeding)

B-Lynch suture (around uterus, compresses it)

Uterine artery ligation

Hysterectomy (last resort, only to save woman’s life)

58
Q

What is likely to cause secondary postpartum hemorrhage?

A

Retained placenta

Infection (endometritis)

59
Q

What are investigations that can be done for secondary postpartum hemorrhage?

A

USS for retained placenta

Endocervical/high vaginal swabs for infection

60
Q

How is secondary postpartum hemorrhage managed?

A

Depends on cause

Surgical input - retained placenta

Antibiotics - infection

61
Q

What is cord prolapse?

A

Umbilical cord goes below presenting part of the fetus –> through cervix —> into vagina

Happens after ROM

62
Q

What is the most dangerous complication of cord prolapse?

A

Fetal hypoxia due to cord being compressed

*cord compression due to presenting part of the fetus pressing on the cord

63
Q

What is the most significant risk factor for cord prolapse?

A

Abnormal lie after 37 weeks gestation (unstable, transverse, oblique)

64
Q

How is umbilical cord prolapse diagnosed?

A

Signs of fetal distress on CTG

Vaginal speculum examination

65
Q

How is umbilical cord prolapse managed?

A

Emergency C-section

Left-lateral position or knee-chest position (all 4s) to draw fetus away from pelvis and reduce cord compression

Tocolysis (terbutaline) to minimise contractions while waiting for C-section

66
Q

What is the role of oxytocin in labour and delivery?

A

Ripens cervix

Causes uterus contractions

*Also role in lactation during breastfeeding

Induce/progress labour

Prevent/treat PPH

67
Q

Where is oxytocin secreted?

A

Posterior pitutary gland

*Produced in the hypothalamus first

68
Q

What is atosiban and when can it be used?

A

Oxytocin receptor antagonist

Used as alternative to nifedipine in tocolysis in premature labour when nifedipine is contraindicated.

69
Q

What is ergometrine used for?

A

Reduce/treat PPH when delivering placenta

  • Used only AFTER delivery of baby (3rd stage)
  • Works by stimulating smooth muscle contraction in uterus and blood vessels
70
Q

What is the role of prostaglandins in labour and delivery?

A

Stimulating contraction of uterine muscles

Ripening cervix before delivery

*Also involved in menstruation - contracting uterine muscles

71
Q

Which specific prostaglandin is used for the induction of labour?

What are the 3 forms?

A

Prostaglandin E2

Pessary, tablets, gel

72
Q

What is the effect of prostaglandins on blood vessels?

A

Vasodilators

Reduce BP

*NSAIDs work antagonistically so increase BP

73
Q

What is misoprostol and what is it used for?

A

Prostaglandin analogue
Binds prostagladin receptors and activates them

Inducing labour after intrauterine fetal death

Abortions

*Hint: Miso = Misery

74
Q

What is nifedipine and what is it used for in pregnancy?

A

Calcium channel blocker

  1. Reduce BP in HTN and pre-eclampsia
  2. Tocolysis in premature labour - suppresses uterine contractions and delays onset of labour
75
Q

What is terbutaline and what is it used for in pregnancy?

A

Beta 2 agonist

Acts on smooth muscle of uterus to suppress uterine contractions

Used for tocolysis in uterine hyperstimulation (if contractions +++ during induction of labour)

76
Q

What is carboprost and what is it used for?

A

Synthetic prostaglandin analogue

Stimulates uterine contraction

Deep IM injection to stop PPH *used when ergometrine/oxytocin unsuccessful

*Can cause life-threatening complication with asthma

77
Q

What is tranexamic acid and what is it used for in pregnancy?

A

Antifibrinolytic (binds plasminogen and prevents conversion to plasmin)

Plasmin = breaks down fibrin blood clots

Prevention + treatment of PPH