Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Private Pilot Exams > Stage 1 > Flashcards

Stage 1 Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
Charter Pilot (Part 135) - Oral flashcards
1
Q

What are the characteristics of a monocoque airplane structure?

A

Almost all structural loads are carried by the outer skin of the airplane.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Which control surfaces are usually located on the empennage?

A

Rudder elevator stabilator

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What condition must be present for carburetor ice to form?

A

High relative humidity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

A power loss occurs when you apply carburetor heat because

A

less dense air is entering the engine.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Detonation can be described as

A

fuel in the cylinders exploding instead of burning smoothly.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

If the engine magneto switch is turned to the ‘OFF’ position but the engine continues to run the probable cause is

A

a broken magneto ground wire.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Excessive cylinder head and engine oil temperatures can be caused by

A

using a lower-than-normal fuel grade.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

The three pressure instruments connected to the pitot-static system are the

A

airspeed indicator altimeter and vertical speed indicator.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

According to the markings on the accompanying airspeed indicator what is the maximum speed with flaps fully extended?

A

85 knots (white arc)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Assume that you land at an airport with the altimeter set to 29.92 instead of the current setting of 30.00. What will the altimeter read if the field elevation is 2 000 feet MSL?

A

2 080 feet MSL (10 feet per .01 in. Hg.)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

The turn coordinator provides a direct indication of aircraft

A

rate of turn.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

The attitude indicator reflects the airplane’s movement about the

A

longitudinal and lateral axes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

How often should you check the heading indicator and align it with the magnetic compass?

A

Every 15 minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

After departing runway 36 you make a left turn to a heading of 180º. If the magnetic compass initially indicates a turn in the opposite direction you should know that this reaction is

A

normal for all magnetic compasses under similar conditions. (magnetic dip)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What two conditions normally cause an increase in lift?

A

Increased angle of attack and increased speed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What causes the separation of air over the wing during a stall?

A

The angle formed by the wing chord line and the relative wind is excessive regardless of airspeed or altitude.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

How are the lift and drag components of the wing affected when you lower the flaps?

A

Both lift and drag increase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Wingtip vortices contribute to the production of

A

induced drag.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are the control characteristics of an aircraft with the CG forward of limits?

A

Very stable pitch inadequate elevator control for landing longer takeoff run and greater nose-over tendency.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Dihedral is used to stabilize the airplane about the

A

longitudinal axis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

P-factor is one of the forces that causes the airplane to

A

yaw to the left.

22
Q

What is the primary force that causes an airplane to turn?

A

Horizontal component of lift.

23
Q

The recommended method of scanning for other aircraft during the day is tu use

A

a series of short regularly spaced eye movements to search each 10º sector of the viewing area.

24
Q

The most practical way to compensate for blind spots in aircraft design while climbing or descending is to make

A

shallow S-turns.

25
Q

Except when necessary for takeoff and landing when you fly over congested areas you must maintain an altitude of at least 1 000 feet…

A

above the highest obstacle within a horizontal distance of 2 000 feet of the aircraft.

26
Q

Refer to the illustration and determine the appropriate landing runway and traffic pattern direction.

A

Runway 36 right-hand traffic

27
Q

The purpose of a displaced threshold is to

A

cause the aircraft to touch down farther down the runway

28
Q

A large letter ‘X’ placed near the runway threshold indicates the

A

runway is closed

29
Q

An airport beacon with two white flashes and one green flash indicates

A

a military airport

30
Q

When using two-bar VASI lights what will you see when you are on the proper glide slope?

A

Near bar white far bar red

31
Q

The symbol of runways enclosed in a dark circle is used on sectional charts to represent an airport which has

A

a hard-surfaced runway between 1 500 and 8 069 feet long.

32
Q

What is the minimum ceiling requirement for VFR operations in the airspace represented in C?

A

1 000 feet

33
Q

What requirements must be met before you enter the airspace represented in D?

A

Two-way radio communications (Class D airspace)

34
Q

What are the basic VFR weather minimums if any for flight at 6 500 feet MSL in the airspace shown by A?

A

Clear of couds with three miles visibility (Class B airspace)

35
Q

What action if any is required when you are departing a satellite airport located within Class C airspace?

A

Contact ATC as soon as practicable

36
Q

What are the special VFR weather minimums for flight within Class D airspace?

A

Clear of clouds with one statute mile visibility

37
Q

On a sectional chart what does ‘NO SVFR’ above the airport name indicate?

A

No special VFR operations are permitted at anytime.

38
Q

What VFR weather minimums are required to take off from Salina Airport (Class D)?

A

Visibility three miles and a ceiling of 1 000 feet or special VFR.

39
Q

Penetration of active warning areas by nonparticipating aircraft should be avoided because of

A

unusual often invisible hazards such as aerial gunnery or guided missiles.

40
Q

A controller may issue a safety alert to an aircraft under his control when that aircraft is

A

unsafe proximity to terrain obstructions or another aircraft.

41
Q

When in radar contact who is primarily responsible for VFR aircraft separation?

A

The controller in terminal areas and the pilot when enroute.

42
Q

When approaching an airport with an operating control tower you must contact the tower before entering the

A

Class D airspace.

43
Q

At nontower airports without an FSS or UNICOM the CTAF usually is

A

122.9 MHz.

44
Q

The VHF emergency frequency monitored by most ground facilities is

A

121.5 MHz.

45
Q

When you use the words ‘PAN-PAN’ in a radio message it indicates you have

A

a distress condition an require immediate radio silence and assistance.

46
Q

What frequency should you use to announce your position during an approach for a landing at Taos Municipal?

A

122.8 MHZ.

47
Q

The length of the longest runway at Portland International Airport is

A

11 000 feet.

48
Q

When departing to the north the proper frequency for departure control is

A

133.0.

49
Q

What information concerning Greater Cincinnati Airport in Covington Kentucky is contained in the accompanying NOTAM excerpt?

A

the airport has an experimental lighting system.

50
Q

FAA Advisory Circulars provide what type of information?

A

Nonregulatory but necessary for good operating practices

Private Pilot Exams (2 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions