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Charter Pilot (Part 135) - Oral flashcards
1
Q

Airfoil

A

A structure or body which produces a useful reaction to air movement.

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2
Q

Chord line

A

An imaginary straight line from the leading edge to the trailing edge of an airfoil.

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3
Q

Relative wind

A

Wind felt by an airfoil. Created by the movement of air past an airfoil by the motion of an airfoil through the air or by a combination of the two. Relative wind is parallel and in the opposite direction to the flight path of the airfoil.

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4
Q

Angle of attack

A

The angle between the chord line of the airfoil and the relative wind.

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5
Q

Angle of incidence

A

The angle at which a wing is attached to the aircraft fuselage.

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6
Q

Bernoulli’s principle

A

Air traveling faster over the curved upper surface of an airfoil causes lower pressure on the top surface.

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7
Q

Four forces

A

Lift weight thrust and drag.

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8
Q

What is the purpose of the rudder on an airplane?

A

To control yaw.

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9
Q

What is the relationship of lift drag thrust and weight when the airplane is in straight-and-level flight?

A

Lift equals weight and thrust equals drag.

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10
Q

When are the four forces that act on an airplane in equilibrium?

A

During unaccelerated (steady state) flight.

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11
Q

Positive static stability

A

The initial tendency of an aircraft to return or not return to its original position.

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12
Q

Positive dynamic stability

A

The tendency of an oscillating airplane (with positive static stability) to return to its original position relative to time.

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13
Q

What determines longitudinal stability?

A

The location of the CG with respect to the center of lift (CL) determines the longitudinal stability of an airplane. 3211

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14
Q

An airplane said to be inherently stable will -

A

require less effort to control. 3210

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15
Q

3 Effects of Forward CG

A
  1. Increased longitudinal stability. 2. Lower cruise speed. The wing flies at a higher angle of attack to create more lift to counter the added downward forces produced by the tail therefore the wing also produces more induced drag. 3. Higher stall speed. The wing flies at a higher angle of attack to create more lift to counter the added downward force produced by the tail therefore the wing also produces more induced drag.
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16
Q

4 Effects of Aft CG

A
  1. Decreased longitudinal stability. 2. Higher cruise speed (for just the opposite reason listed above). 3. Lower stall speed. 4. Poor stall/spin recovery.
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17
Q

What causes an airplane (except a T-tail) to pitch nosedown when power is reduced and controls are not adjusted?

A

The downwash on the elevators from the propeller slipstream is reduced and elevator effectiveness is reduced. 3212

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18
Q

Load factor per bank angle

A

0º = 1.00 20º = 1.06 40º = 1.31 60º = 2.00 80º = 5.65

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19
Q

Airplane Category and Positive Load Limits

A

Normal (nonacrobatic) (N) - 3.8 Gs Utility (normal operations and ltd acrobatic maneuvers) - 4.4 Gs Acrobatic (A) - 6.0 Gs

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20
Q

If an airplane weighs 2 300 lbs what app. weight would the airplane structure be required to support during a 60º banked turn while maintaining altitude?

A

4 600 lbs. 3214

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21
Q

The amt of excess load that can be imposed on the wing of an airplane depends upon the

A

speed of the airplane.

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22
Q

Which basic flight maneuver increases the load factor on an airplane as compared to straight-and-level flight?

A

Turns.

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23
Q

What force makes an airplane turn?

A

The horizontal component of lift.

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24
Q

During an approach to a stall an increased load factor will cause the airplane to

A

stall at a higher airspeed.

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25
Q

List the four flight fundamentals involved in maneuvering an aircraft.

A

Straight-and-level flight turns climbs and descents.

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26
Q

(Figure 67) While practicing S-turns a consistently smaller half-circle is made on one side of the road than the other and this turn is not completed before crossing the road or reference line. This would most likely occur in turn

A

4-5-6 because the bank is increased too rapidly during the early part of the turn.

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27
Q

If an emergency situation requires a downwind landing pilots should expect a faster

A

groundspeed at touchdown a longer ground roll and the likelihood of overshooting the desired touchdown point.

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28
Q

Critical angle of attack

A

The angle at which a stall occurs.

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29
Q

As altitude increases the indicated airspeed at which a given airplane stalls in a particular configuration will

A

remain the same regardless of altitude.

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30
Q

In what flight condition must an aircraft be placed in order to spin?

A

Stalled.

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31
Q

During a spin to the left which wing(s) is/are stalled?

A

Both wings are stalled.

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32
Q

The angle of attack at which an airplane wing stalls will

A

remain the same regardless of gross weight.

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33
Q

One of the main functions of flaps during approach and landing is to

A

increase the angle of descent without increasing the airspeed.

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34
Q

What is one purpose of wing flaps?

A

To enable the pilot to make steeper approaches to a landing without increasing the airspeed.

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35
Q

Ground effect is most likely to result in which problem during takeoff?

A

Becoming airborne before reaching recommended takeoff speed.

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36
Q

What is ground effect?

A

The result of the interference of the surface of the Earth with the airflow patterns about an airplane.

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37
Q

Floating caused by the phenomenon of ground effect will be most realized during an approach to land what at

A

less than the length of the wingspan above the surface.

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38
Q

What must a pilot be aware of as a result of ground effect?

A

Induced drag decreases; therefore any excess speed at the point of flare may cause considerable floating.

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39
Q

When landing behind a large aircraft which procedure should be followed for vortex avoidance?

A

Stay above its final approach flight path all the way to touchdown.

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40
Q

How does the wake turbulence vortex circulate around each wingtip?

A

Outward upward and around each tip.

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41
Q

When taking off or landing at an airport where heavy aircraft are operating one should be particularly alert to the hazards of wingtip vortices because this turbulence tends to

A

sink into the flight path of aircraft operating below the aircraft generating the turbulence.

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42
Q

Wingtip vortices are created only when an aircraft is

A

developing lift.

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43
Q

The greatest vortex strength occurs when the generating aircraft is

A

heavy clean and slow.

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44
Q

Wingtip vortices created by large aircraft tend to

A

sink below the aircraft generating turbulence.

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45
Q

The wind condition that requires maximum caution when avoiding wake turbulence on landing is a

A

light quartering tailwind.

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46
Q

When landing behind a large aircraft the pilot should avoid wake turbulence by staying

A

above the large aircraft’s final approach path and landing beyond the large aircraft’s touchdown point.

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47
Q

When departing behind a heavy aircraft the pilot would avoid wake turbulence by maneuvering the aircraft

A

above and upwind from the heavy aircraft.

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48
Q

Four stroke of one cycle of a four-stroke engine

A

Intake compression power and exhaust.

49
Q

Should it become necessary to handprop an airplane engine it is extremely important that a competent pilot

A

be at the controls in the cockpit.

50
Q

What should be the first action after starting an aircraft engine?

A

Adjust for proper RPM and check for desired indications on the engine gauges.

51
Q

Two purposes of the dual ignition system on an aircraft engine are?

A

Redundancy of ignition and improvement of engine performance.

52
Q

An electrical system failure (battery and alternator) occurs during flight. In this situation you would

A

experience avionics equipment failure and have no use of your electrical fuel boost pump.

53
Q

The operating principle of float-type carburetors is base on the

A

difference in air pressure at the venturi throat and the air inlet.

54
Q

The basic purpose of adjusting the fuel/air mixture at altitude is to

A

decrease the fuel flow in order to compensate for decreased air density.

55
Q

While cruising at 9 500 feet MSL the fuel/air mixture is properly adjusted. What will occur if a descent to 4 500 feet MSL is made without readjusting the mixture?

A

The fuel/air mixture may become excessively lean.

56
Q

During the run-up at a high-elevation airport a pilot notes a slight engine roughness that is not affected by the magneto check but grows worse during the carburetor heat check. Under these circumstances what would be the most logical initial action?

A

Check the results obtained with a leaner setting of the mixture.

57
Q

If an aircraft is equipped with a fixed-pitch propeller and a float-type carburetor the first indication of carburetor ice would most likely be

A

loss of RPM.

58
Q

The presence of carburetor ice in an aircraft equipped with a fixed-pitch propeller can be verified by applying carburetor heat and noting

A

a decrease in RPM and then a gradual increase in RPM.

59
Q

Which condition is most favorable to the development of carburetor icing?

A

Temperature between 20 and 70ºF and high humidity.

60
Q

The possibility of carburetor icing exists even when the ambient air temperature is as

A

high as 70ºF and the relative humidity is high.

61
Q

Applying carb heat will

A

Enrich the fuel/air mixture.

62
Q

What change occurs in the fuel/air mixture when carb heat is applied?

A

The fuel/air mixture becomes richer.

63
Q

Generally speaking the use of carb heat tends to

A

decrease engine performance.

64
Q

With regard to carb ice float-type carb systems in comparison to fuel injection systems are generally considered to be

A

more susceptible to icing.

65
Q

On aircraft equipped with fuel pumps when is the auxiliary electric driven pump used?

A

In the event engine-driven fuel pump fails.

66
Q

If the grade of fuel used in an aircraft engine is lower than specified for the engine it will most likely cause

A

detonation.

67
Q

Detonation may occur at high-power settings when

A

The fuel mixture ignites instantaneously instead of burning progressively and evenly.

68
Q

Detonation occurs in a reciprocation aircraft engine when

A

The unburned charge in the cylinders explodes instead of burning normally.

69
Q

The uncontrolled firing of the fuel/air charge in advance of normal spark ignition is known as

A

pre-ignition.

70
Q

What type fuel can be substituted for an aircraft if the recommended octane is not available?

A

The next higher octane aviation gas.

71
Q

Filling the fuel tanks after the last flight of the day is considered a good operating procedure because this will

A

prevent moisture condensation by eliminating airspace in the tanks.

72
Q

To properly purge water from the fuel system of an aircraft equipped with fuel tank sumps and a fuel strainer quick drain it is necessary to drain fuel from the

A

fuel strainer drain and the fuel tank sumps.

73
Q

If a pilot suspects that the engine (w/ a fixed-pitch prop) is detonating during climb-out after takeoff the initial corrective action to take would be to

A

lower the nose slightly to increase airspeed.

74
Q

Excessively high engine temperatures will

A

cause loss of power excessive oil consumption and possible permanent internal engine damage.

75
Q

Excessively high engine temperatures either in the air or on the ground will

A

cause loss of power excessive oil consumption and possible permanent internal engine damage.

76
Q

If the engine oil temperature and cylinder head temperature gauges have exceeded their normal operating range the pilot may have been operating with

A

too much power and with the mixture set too lean.

77
Q

Which would most likely cause the cylinder head temperature and engine oil temperature gauges to exceed their normal operating ranges?

A

Using fuel that has a lower-than specified fuel rating.

78
Q

For internal cooling reciprocating aircraft engines are especially dependent on

A

the circulation of lubricating oil.

79
Q

An abnormally high engine oil temperature indication may be caused by

A

the oil level being too low.

80
Q

What action can a pilot take to aid in cooling an engine that is overheating during a climb?

A

Reduce rate of climb and increase airspeed.

81
Q

What procedures can aid in cooling an engine that is overheating?

A

Enrichen the mixture open the cowl flaps increase airspeed or reduce power.

82
Q

The most important rule to remember in the event of a power failure after becoming airborne is to

A

Immediately establish the proper gliding attitude and airspeed.

83
Q

How is engine operation controlled on an engine equipped with a constant-speed propeller?

A

The throttle controls power output as registered on the manifold pressure gauge and the propeller control regulates engine RPM.

84
Q

What is an advantage of a constant-speed propeller?

A

Permits the pilot to select the blade angle for the most efficient performance.

85
Q

A precaution for the operation of an engine equipped with a constant-speed propeller is to

A

avoid high manifold pressure settings with low RPM.

86
Q

Four forces that lend to left turning tendency

A

Reactive force spiraling slipstream gyroscopic precession and P-factor.

87
Q

In what flight condition is torque effect the greatest in a single-engine airplane?

A

Low airspeed high power high angle of attack.

88
Q

The left turning tendency of an airplane caused by P-factor is the result of the

A

propeller blade descending on the right producing more thrust than the ascending blade on the left.

89
Q

When does P-factor cause the airplane to yaw to the left?

A

When at high angles of attack.

90
Q

During the preflight inspection who is responsible for determining the aircraft is safe for flight?

A

The pilot in command.

91
Q

How should an aircraft preflight inspection be accomplished for the first flight of the day?

A

Thorough and systematic means recommended by the manufacturer.

92
Q

Who is primarily responsible for maintaining an aircraft in airworthy condition?

A

Owner or operator.

93
Q

Which instrument will become inoperative if the pitot tube becomes clogged?

A

Airspeed.

94
Q

Which instruments(s) will become inoperative if the static vents become clogged?

A

Airspeed altimeter and vertical speed.

95
Q

If the pitot tube and outside static vents become clogged which instruments would be affected?

A

The altimeter airspeed indicator and vertical speed indicator.

96
Q

The pitot system provides impact pressure for which instrument?

A

Airspeed indicator.

97
Q

IAS

A

Indicated Airspeed - the uncorrected reading obtained from the airspeed indicator.

98
Q

CAS

A

Calibrated Airspeed - IAS corrected for installation and instrument error.

99
Q

TAS

A

CAS corrected for temperature and pressure variations.

100
Q

VS0

A

Stall speed or minimum steady flight speed in the landing configuration (the lower limit of the white arc).

101
Q

VFE

A

Maximum flap extended speed (the upper limit of the white arc). The entire white arc defines the flap operating range.

102
Q

VS1

A

The stall speed or minimum steady flight speed in a specified configuration (the lower limit of the green arc). The entire green arc defines the normal operating range.

103
Q

VNO

A

The maximum structural cruising speed (the upper limit of the green arc and lower limit of the yellow arc). The yellow arc defines the caution range which should be avoided unless in smooth air.

104
Q

VNE

A

Never exceed speed (the upper limit of the yellow arc) marked in red.

105
Q

VLE

A

The maximum landing gear extended speed.

106
Q

VA

A

The design maneuvering speed. If rough air or sever turbulence is encountered airspeed should be reduced to maneuvering speed or less to minimize stress on the airplane structure.

107
Q

VY

A

Best rate-of-climb speed (the airspeed that will result in the most altitude in a given period of time).

108
Q

VX

A

Best angle-of-climb speed (the airspeed that will result in the most altitude in a given distance).

109
Q

Which V-speed represents maneuvering speed?

A

VA

110
Q

What does the red line on an airspeed indicator represent?

A

Never-exceed speed.

111
Q

Which color identifies the never-exceed speed?

A

The red radial line.

112
Q

Which color identifies the power-off stalling speed in a specified configuration?

A

Lower limit of the green arc.

113
Q

Which would provide the greatest gain in altitude in the shortest distance during climb after takeoff?

A

VX

114
Q

After takeoff which airspeed would the pilot use to gain the most altitude in a given period of time?

A

VY

115
Q

What is an important airspeed limitation that is not color coded on airspeed indicators?

A

Maneuvering speed.

116
Q

Which V-speed represents maximum flap extended speed?

A

VFE

117
Q

Which V-speed represents max landing gear extended speed?

A

VLE

118
Q

VNO is defined as the

A

Maximum structural cruising speed.

119
Q

VS0 is defined as the

A

stalling speed or minimum steady flight speed in the landing configuration.

Private Pilot Exams (2 decks)

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