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Special Topics 2 Finals > ST- CLIN CHEM > Flashcards

ST- CLIN CHEM Flashcards

1
Q
  1. Which statements refer to Type 1 diabetes? A. Result from B-cell destruction and usually diagnosed in children. B. Results from B-Cell destruction and usually leads to absolute insulin deficiency, and usually diagnosed in children. C. Usually leads to absolute insulin deficiency and is usually diagnosed in children. D. results from B-cell destruction and usually leads to absolute insulin deficiency.
A

B. Results from B-Cell destruction and usually leads to absolute insulin deficiency, and usually diagnosed in children

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2
Q
  1. Which analyte is SIGNIFICANTLY affected by a change in posture from supine to a sitting or standing position? A. Protein B. Calcium C. Aldosterone D. Magnesium
A

B. Calcium

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3
Q
  1. Which are the causes of random error?
    1 . Temperature of analyzer
    2 . Reagent dispensing
    3 . Instability of instrument
    4 . Calibration differences

A. 1 and 4 B. 2 and 3 C. 1,2,3 and 4 D. 1,2, and 3

A

D. 1,2, and 3

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4
Q
  1. Electrolytes, glucose, BUN, Creatinine, and osmolality examinations have been performed on a patient suspected of ingesting ethanol. What can be done to help reveal this condition without additional tests? A. Determine anion gap B. Determine glycemic index C. Compare measured and computed osmolality D. Compute osmolality
A

C. Compare measured and computed osmolality

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5
Q
  1. Which protein is quantified by standard protein electrophoresis

1 . Fibrinogen
2. Transferrin
3 . C3

A. 1,2, and 3 B. 1 and 2 C. 2 and 3 D. 1 and 3

A

C. 2 and 3

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6
Q
  1. Which of the following refer to 13s?
    1 . Range between two observations in the same run exceed
    2 . 4 SD Detects Imprecision or systematic bias
    3 .Rejected and there will be additional investigation
    4 . One observation exceeds 3SD from the target.

A. 2 and 4 B. 2 and 3 C. 1 and 3 D. 3 and 4

A

D. 3 and 4

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7
Q
  1. Which statement is NOT true about Leutenizing Hormone? A. Acts on Leydig cells which stimulate the production of androgens B. Involved in the development of corpus luteum, especially in its secreting phase C. Involved during the formation of gametes D. Has no specific function during the development of primary sex organs
A

D. Has no specific function during the development of primary sex organs

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8
Q
  1. Which is a pathologic cause of increased AMS? A. Acute abdominal disorder B. Intestinal obstruction C. Acute Pancreatitis D. Perforated duodenal ulcer
A

C. Acute Pancreatitis

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9
Q
  1. Which electrolytes are essential components in acid-base balance?
    1 . Bicarbonate
    2 . Calcium
    3 . Potassium
    4 . Chloride

A. 1, 3, and 4 B. 1, 2, and, 3 C. 1 and 4 D. 2 and 3

A

A. 1, 3, and 4

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10
Q
  1. Which are acceptable dress code policy in the laboratory?
    1 . Comfortable foot wear such as sandals and flip-flops
    2 . Clean laboratory coats
    3 . Minimal use of jewelry
    4 . Shoulder-length hair pulled back and secured

A. 1 and 4 B. 2, 3, and 4 C. 1 and 2 D. 2 and 3

A

B. 2, 3, and 4

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11
Q
  1. Which characterizes chronic glomerular nephritis?

1 Slowly developing disease
2 Gradual uremia
3 Loss of functioning nephrons

A. 1 and 2 B. 1 and 3 C. 2 and 3 D. 1, 2 and 3

A

D. 1, 2 and 3

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12
Q
  1. Which illicit drug is commonly referred to as “ecstasy”? A. Phencyclidine B. Cocaine C. Opiates D. Methylenedioxymethylamphetamine (MDMA)
A

D. Methylenedioxymethylamphetamine (MDMA)

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13
Q
  1. Which compares the result obtained for one specimen with the previous results (s) obtained for the same patient? A. Randomized duplicate specimen B. Average normals C. Delta check D. Pattern recognition
A

C. Delta check

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14
Q
  1. Which Immunoassay method for Thyroxine Testing is referred to? Fluorogenic substrate – labeled thyroxine competing with patient T4 for antibody only unbound, leftover labeled T4 reacts with enzyme to form product reaction is directly A. Microparticle Enzyme B. Chemiluminescence C. Fluorescent Substrate-Labeled Inhibition D. Fluorescent Polarization
A

C. Fluorescent Substrate-Labeled Inhibition

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15
Q
  1. Which is the MOST likely disease? TSH - increased T4 (total) - increased FT4 - increased T3 - increased A. Secondary hypothyroidism B. Secondary hyperthyroidism C. Primary hyperthyroidism D. Primary hypothyroidism
A

B. Secondary hyperthyroidism

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16
Q
  1. Which inhibits growth hormone secretion, except? A. Glucose loading B. Amino acids C. Thyroxine deficiency D. Insulin deficiency
A

B. Amino acids

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17
Q
  1. Which are causes of random error? (1) Sample evaporation (2) Electro-optical mechanism (3) Variation in handling techniques (4) Variation in operators A. 1 and 2 B. 3 and 4 C. 1, 2, 3, and 4 D. 1, 3, and 4
A

C. 1, 2, 3, and 4

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18
Q
  1. Which serve as first responders to stress by acting within seconds? A. Cortisol B. Aldosterone C. Catecholamine D. DHEA
A

C. Catecholamine

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19
Q
  1. A substance that can yield a hydrogen ion (H) or hydronium ion when dissolved in water is a: A. Buffer B. Alkali C. Acid excess D. Acid
A

D. Acid

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20
Q
  1. Lithium is a: A. CNS stimulant B. CNS depressant C. Hallucinogen D. Antidepressant
A

D. Antidepressant

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21
Q
  1. Which hyponatremia is NOT caused by increased sodium loss? A. Potassium deficiency B. Diuretic use C. Renal failure D. Severe burns
A

C. Renal failure

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22
Q
  1. Which test conveys information on hepatocellular damage and necrosis A.Transaminases B.Albumin C.Bilirubin D.Ammonia
A

A.Transaminases

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23
Q
  1. Which is an indication of error in the analysis, detected by a progressive drift of control values in one direction for at least 5 consecutive runs? A.Shift B.Contraction C.Dispersion D.Trend
A

D.Trend

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24
Q
  1. Glucose measurement using the reducing substances approach may be erroneously higher by___ mg/dL compared to the enzymatic method? A.5-15 B. 25-30 C. 15-25 D. 10-20
A

A.5-15

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25
Q
  1. Which are acute phase reactants? Alpha-acid glycoprotein Alpha-antitrypsin C-reactive protein A. 2 and 3 B.1, 2, and 3 C. 1 and 3 D. 1 and 2
A

B.1, 2, and 3

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26
Q

26.The major role of regulation of water balance in the body is attributed to which cation A. Sodium B. Calcium C. Potassium D. Chloride

A

A. Sodium

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27
Q
  1. Which is considered as medical emergency? Ketoacidosis Glycosuria Marked Hyperkalemia A. 1 and 2 B. 1 and 3 C. 2 and 3 D. 1, 2 and 3
A

B. 1 and 3

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28
Q
  1. A comprehensive program in an institution in which all areas of operation are monitored to ensure quality with the aim of providing the highest quality patient care is? A. Assessment B. Control C. Assurance D. Systems
A

C. Assurance

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29
Q

29 .During drug administration, the spread of drug via circulatory system to organs and tissues throught the body is____________. A. Elimination B. Metabolism C. Distribution D. Absorption

A

C. Distribution

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30
Q
  1. Which is not attributed to Polycystic Ovarian Syndrome? A. Hirsutism B. Infertility C. Obesity D. Myxedema
A

D. Myxedema

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31
Q
  1. The 3-day old neonate, recently discharged from a delivery suite, has inadequate protein feeding for the next 24 hours after discharge. What will be the effect on the thyroxine levels compared to the normal reference ranges? A. Higher B. Indeterminate C. Nothing D. Lower
A

D. Lowe

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32
Q
  1. Positive displacement pipet: A. With no air cushion B. All of the items C. Can pipette high density samples D. Aspiration force remains constant
A

B. All of the items

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33
Q
  1. Which is a commonly used clearance test used as a rough estimate of glomerular filtration rate? A. eGFR B. Inulin C. CKD-EPI D. Creatinine
A

D. Creatinine

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34
Q
  1. What is the value of 200 mg/dL glucose in mmol/L? A. 8.5 B. 10.50 C. 11.0 D. 13.75
A

C. 11.0

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35
Q
  1. For 40 years old and above, there is moderate risk of developing coronary heart disease when cholesterol is greater than A. 240 mg/dL B. 280 mg/dL C. 200 mg/dL D. 260 mg/dL
A

A. 240 mg/dL

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36
Q
  1. HCG kit for pregnancy uses: A. Immunochromatography B. Colorimetry C. Turbidimetry D. Electrochemistry
A

A. Immunochromatography

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37
Q
  1. Cleaning surface with disinfectant: A. Administrative control B. Engineering control C. PPE D. Emergency kit
A

A. Administrative control

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38
Q
  1. NOT a physical hazard A. Ergonomic B. Noise C. Aerosols from centrifugation D. Opened shoes
A

C. Aerosols from centrifugation

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39
Q
  1. NOT included in SDS or MSDS A. Spill and disposal procedures B. Primary routes of entry C. Special information center D. Education of employees annually and catalog number
A

D. Education of employees annually and catalog number

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40
Q
  1. _____ of radiant energy emitted falls in the visible region, with most emitted as near-infrared A. 10% B. 15% C. 5% D. 20%
A

B. 15%

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41
Q
  1. Green color shows highest transmittance at A. 525 nm B. 450 nm C. 600 nm D. 750 nm
A

A. 525 nm

42
Q
  1. Preferred unit for reporting: A. mg/dL B. mol/L C. mmol/L D. umol/L
A

B. mol/L

43
Q
  1. Has random access system? A. Continuous flow B. centrifugal C. discrete D. aota
A

C. discrete

44
Q
  1. What should be done if re-centrifuging is necessary? A. re-spin the primary tube B. re-spin in cold centrifuge C. transfer the serum to another tube, then re-spin D. re-spin if the tube is gel tube
A

C. transfer the serum to another tube, then re-spin

45
Q
  1. Violation of which rule does NOT indicate systematic error? A. 13s B. 41s C. 10 mean D. 22s
A

A. 13s

46
Q
  1. The concept of treating all blood and body fluids as capable of transmitting infectious diseases is A. Safe practice standards B. Infection Control C. Universal Precautions (nearest correct answer) D. Safety Protocol
A

C. Universal Precautions (nearest correct answer)

47
Q
  1. The gram-molecular weight of NaCl is 58.5. What is the molarity of a solution containing 75g of NaCl per liter? A. 1.3 B. 1.7 C. 1.0 D. 1.6
A

A. 1.3

48
Q
  1. The usual lipid studies require fasting for ____ hours A. 12 B. 10 C. 9 D. 6
A

A. 12

49
Q
  1. Which formula is used to estimate osmolality? A. Osmolality = [Na+] + [urea] + [glucose] B. Osmolality = [Na+] + [urea] + 2x [Glucose] C. Osmolality = [Na+] + 2x[ {urea] + [Glucose] D. Osmolality = 2x [Na+] + [urea] + [Glucose]
A

D. Osmolality = 2x [Na+] + [urea] + [Glucose]

50
Q
  1. Which does NOT(looking for DM2) refere to IDDM? A. Age of onset - usually before 20 years of age B. Serum Insulin - very low C. None of the items D. Presence of Ketone bodies - usually
A

C. None of the items

51
Q
  1. Which Immunoassay Method for Thyroxine Testing is referred to? A. Microparticle Enzyme B. Fluorescent Polarization C. Fluorescent Substrate-Labeled Inhibition D. Chemiluminescence
A

B. Fluorescent Polarization

52
Q
  1. Which measurement of uric acid lacks specificity and has problems with turbidity? A. Colorimetric: endpoint B. Colorimetric: kinetic C. Enzymatic: UV D. Enzymatic: H2O2
A

A. Colorimetric: endpoint

53
Q
  1. Which are considered when interpreting ABGs in the clinical setting? Acid-base status Alveolar ventilation Oxygenation status and O2 transport Carboxyhemoglobin A. 1, 2, and 3 B. 1, 2, 3, and 4 C. 2, 3, and 4 D. 1 and 3
A

A. 1, 2, and 3

54
Q
  1. Which is necessary for enzyme activity? A. Coenzymes B. Cofactors C. Activators D. Isoenzymes
A

B. Cofactors

55
Q
  1. Which are causes of pseudohyperkalemia? In-vitro hemolysis Thrombocytosis Prolonged tourniquet use Excessive fist clenching A. 1, 2, 3, and 4 B. 1, 3, and 4 C. 1 and 2 D. 3 and 4
A

A. 1, 2, 3, and 4

56
Q
  1. It interferes with protein sulfhydryl group in protein coenzymes, reduces oxidative phosphorylation and ATP production. Which metal is referred to? A. Mercury B. Lead C, Iron D. Arsenic
A

D. Arsenic

57
Q
  1. Practice of safety in the laboratory involves? A. The heads and supervisors only B. The laboratory aides handling the laboratory waste C. Everyone working in the laboratory D. The medical technologists doing the tests
A

C. Everyone working in the laboratory

58
Q
  1. Which Immunoassay Method for Thyroxine Testing is referred to? To *peroxidase-labeled antibody binds with patient hormone (antigen form complex similar to ELISA) *addition of acridium esters substrate forms an oxidized product that emits light for short time. A. Fluorescent Substrate-Labeled Inhibition B. Microparticle Enzyme C. Chemiluminescence D. Fluorescent Polarization
A

C. Chemiluminescence

59
Q
  1. Which is the result of urea being reabsorbed into the circulation due to obstruction? A. None of the items B. Post-renal azotemia C. Pre-renal azotemia D. Renal azotemia
A

B. Post-renal azotemia

60
Q
  1. Which condition shows a low A/G ratio? A. Multiple myeloma, Cirrhosis, and Nephrotic syndrome B. Nephrotic syndrome C. Multiple myeloma and Cirrhosis D. Cirrhosis
A

A. Multiple myeloma, Cirrhosis, and Nephrotic syndrome

61
Q
  1. If blood was collected using an anticoagulant, how would the volume of plasma be USUALLY described compared to blood collected without the anticoagulant and serum is obtained instead? A. Same B. Greater C. Indeterminate D. Lower
A

B. Greater

62
Q
  1. Which does NOT refer to neonatal primary hypothyroidism? A. Growth deficiency B. Mental retardation C. Thyroiditis D. Cretinism
A

C. Thyroiditis

63
Q
  1. The needle gauge used in pediatric venipuncture is: A. 20 B. 23 C. 21 D. 19
A

B. 23

64
Q
  1. Which class of enzymes catalyze structural shifts in a molecule, causing a change in _____? A. Isomerases B. Ligases C. Transferases D. Oxidoreductases
A

A. Isomerases

65
Q
  1. Which are antiasthmatic drugs? (1) Theophylline (2) Theobromine (3) Digoxin (4) Lithium A. 2 and 4 B. 3 and 4 C. 1 and 3 D. 1 and 2
A

D. 1 and 2

66
Q
  1. BUN will be significantly increased when GFR is decreased by at least ___% A. 25 B. 100 C. 50 D. 75
A

C. 50

67
Q
  1. When compared with circulating T3, levels of T4 are A. The same B. Variable C. Lower D. Higher
A

D. Higher

68
Q
  1. Which condition cause cardiac arrest and can occur in the absence of any warning clinical symptoms A. Hyponatremia B. Hypokalemia C. Hypernatremia D. Hyperkalemia
A

D. Hyperkalemia

69
Q
  1. What is the effect on draw volume if evacuated tubes are stored at high temperature? A. Decrease B. None C. Intermediate D. Increase
A

A. Decrease

70
Q
  1. In the H-H equation, the numerator denotes the ___ factor? A. Liver B. Kidney C. Heart D. Lungs
A

B. Kidney

71
Q
  1. Hypernatremia is defined as a serum/plasma sodium level greater than mmol/l A. 150 B. 160 C. 142 D. 155
A

A. 150

72
Q
  1. What type of fire extinguisher may be used on a computer? A. Halon B. Dry chemical C. Carbon dioxide D. Pressurized water
A

A. Halon

73
Q
  1. Which enzyme has a moderate specificity to liver, heart and skeletal muscles? A. AST B. CPK C. ALT D. LDH
A

A. AST

74
Q
  1. What is the value of 6.0 g/dL albumin in g/L? A. 105 B. 80 C. 40 D. 60
A

D. 60

75
Q
  1. Assesses excretory function and synthetic capability of the liver except? A. Bilirubin B. Albumin C. Prothrombin time D. Transaminases
A

D. Transaminases

76
Q
  1. Which are non-protein molecules used by enzymes to show full activity? A. Ligands B. Cofactors C. Sugars D. Fats
A

B. Cofactors

77
Q
  1. Which is a sensitive assay for renal tubular integrity? A. B2 microglobulin B. Plasma urea C. Plasma creatinine D. Creatinine clearance
A

A. B2 microglobulin

78
Q
  1. Which refers to Type 1 diabetes?
    1 . Usually diagnosed in children
    2 . Results from B-cell destruction
    3 . Usual leads to absolute insulin deficiency

A. 1 and 3 B. 2 and 3 C. 1 and 2 D. 1, 2 and 3

A

D. 1, 2 and 3

79
Q
  1. Which is part of spectrophotometry? A. Nephelometry B. Potentiometry C. Atomic absorption D. Gas chromatography
A

C. Atomic absorption

80
Q
  1. Which stimulates the thyroid to release T4 and T3? A. DIT B. TRH C. TSH D. MIT
A

C. TSH

81
Q
  1. Which has the highest protein content? A. HDL B. LDL C. VLDL D. Chylomicrons
A

A. HDL

82
Q
  1. Which is a nondestructive technique for determining the structure of organic compound and has been adapted for only a limited number of clinical laboratory analyses, the most popular being lipoprotein particle measurements? A. Mass spectrometry B. Matrix-assisted laser desorption ionization C. Scintillation D. Nuclear magnetic resonance spectroscopy
A

D. Nuclear magnetic resonance spectroscopy

83
Q
  1. Which is NOT a macroenzyme? A. ACP B. G6PD C. GGT D. ALP
A

B. G6PD

84
Q
  1. Which centrifuge is used when rapid centrifugation of solution is needed? A. Horizontal-head B. Cytocentrifuge C. None of the items D. Fixed-angle head
A

D. Fixed-angle head

85
Q
  1. If serum appears opaque and milky after a 12-hr fast, triglyceride level is probably ___ mg/dL? A. Less than 100 B. Greater than 300 C. Greater than 600 D. Less than 200
A

C. Greater than 600

86
Q
  1. Which is a biochemical marker for bone resorption? A. Cross-linked C-telopeptides B. Fibronectin C. B-trace protein D. Myoglobin
A

A. Cross-linked C-telopeptides

87
Q
  1. Which is the steroid hormone produced by the corpus luteum and placenta that prepares the endometrium for blastocyst implantation and maintains pregnancy? A. Progesterone B. Estriol C. hPL D. hCG
A

A. Progesterone

88
Q
  1. It is visually detected in the standing plasma test as a floating cream layer. Which lipoprotein is present? A. VLDL B. LDL C. HDL D. Chylomicrons
A

D. Chylomicrons

89
Q
  1. Which analytic techniques do NOT measure the concentration of solute particles in a solution? (1) Osmometry (2) Fluorometry (3) Turbidimetry (4) Nephelometry A. 1,3, and 4 B. 2 and 4 C. 2,3, and 4 D. 1 and 3
A

C. 2,3, and 4

90
Q
  1. The formula below is used to compute for ______ expressed in mg/dL [total cholesterol - HDL] - [Triglyceride / 5] A. LDL B. VLDL C. IDL D. Lp (a)
A

A. LDL

91
Q
  1. Which is NOT a hazard associated with the use of liquid nitrogen? A. Shock B. Thermal burns C. Explosion D. Asphyxiation
A

A. Shock

92
Q
  1. Which analyte is affected by diurnal variation (high in the Morning) ? A. Thyroxine B. Iron C. Calcium D. Cholesterol
A

B. Iron

93
Q
  1. Which is a major waste product of protein catabolism? A. Creatinine B. Urea C. Ammonia D. Uric Acid
A

B. Urea

94
Q
  1. Which is NOT a catabolite of protein and nucleic acid metabolism? A. Urea B. Glucose C. Uric acid D. Creatinine
A

D. Creatinine

95
Q
  1. Which statistical calculation indicates the extent of variation of the observation? Mode Range Variance Standard deviation A. 2, 3 and 4 B. 2 and 3 C. 1, 2 and 3 D. 1 and 4
A

A. 2, 3 and 4

96
Q
  1. Which is a major protein constituent of LDL? A. ApoD B. ApoB C. Apo C D. Apo A
A

B. ApoB

97
Q
  1. Using the cutoff points for serum cholesterol, which are group, expressed in years, matches the levels of risk for developing coronary heart disease? Moderate risk if cholesterol is greater than 240 mg/dL High risk if cholesterol is greater than 250 mg/dL A. 40 and over B. 30-39 C. 20-29 D. 2-19
A

A. 40 and over

98
Q
  1. Enzymes are involved in which of the following processes? Anabolism Catabolism Energy generation A. 1,2, and 3 B. 2 and 3 C. 1 and 2 D. 1 and 3
A

A. 1,2, and 3

99
Q
  1. Which statement about chronic toxicity is NOT correct? A. Toxic effect: Always severe B. Frequency of exposure: repeated C. Dose: insufficient to cause an immediate response D. Duration of exposure: extended periods
A

A. Toxic effect: Always severe

100
Q
  1. Which laboratory performance characteristics are more relevant for diagnosis of disease and therapeutic monitoring? A. Specificity and Precision B. Sensitivity and Specificity C. sensitivity and Accuracy D. Accuracy and Precision
A

B. Sensitivity and Specificity

Special Topics 2 Finals (4 decks)

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