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Special Topics 2 Finals > ST - AUBF > Flashcards

ST - AUBF Flashcards

1
Q
  1. Designated tube intended for chemistry and serology in CSF? (A. 1st, B. 2nd, C. 3rd, D. 4th)
A

A. 1st

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2
Q
  1. Is a term used to describe CSF supernatant that is pink, orange, or yellow? (A. Hemolyzed, B. Pellicle, C. Xanthochromia, D. AOTA)
A

C. Xanthochromia

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3
Q
  1. The following description: uneven blood distribution on 3 tubes, clear supernatant, presence of clot, but negative for erythrophage are characteristics of? (A. Intracranial hemorrhage, B. Traumatic tap, C. Meningitis, D. Hepatic coma)
A

B. Traumatic tap

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4
Q
  1. Abnormal condition where there is an increased number of normal cells in CSF? (A. Monocytosis, B. Lymphocytosis, C. Polycythemia, D. Pleocytosis)
A

D. Pleocytosis

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5
Q
  1. Centrifuge should be disinfected? (A. Monthly, B. Weekly, C. Every other shift, D. Daily)
A

B. Weekly

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6
Q
  1. Which of the following results may be expected with the breakdown of urea by bacteria in a urine specimen? (A. Negative glucose, B. Negative nitrite, C. Elevated pH, D. Low pH)
A

C. Elevated pH

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7
Q
  1. The following lead/s to polyhydramnios: (A. Spina bifida, B. Anencephaly, C. Umbilical cord compression, D. A and B)
A

D. A and B

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8
Q
  1. Most of the solutes in urine are: (A. Urea and protein, B. Urea and bilirubin, C. Sodium and protein, D. Urea and sodium chloride)
A

D. Urea and sodium chloride

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9
Q
  1. Normally, night urine volume on an adult would be how much? (A. 1000 mL, B. 400 mL, C. 600 mL, D. 1500 mL)
A

B. 400 mL

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10
Q
  1. Most of the glucose that is filtered through the glomerulus is reabsorbed in what part of the nephron? (A. Proximal tubule, B. Loof Henle, C. Collecting duct, D. Distal tubule)
A

A. Proximal tubule

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11
Q
  1. Step by step documentation of handling and testing of legal specimens (A. Chain of infection, B. Mode of transmission, C. Route of Infection, D. Chain of Custody)
A

D. Chain of Custody

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12
Q
  1. The medtech staff received a urine specimen at 8am and refrigerated it and tested it at 12pm, what tests will most likely be affected? (A. Protein, B. Glucose, C. Ketones, D. Specific gravity)
A

D. Specific gravity

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13
Q
  1. Used to monitor the course of MULTIPLE SCLEROSIS? (A. Rheumatoid factor, B. Myelin basic protein, C. Anti dsDNA, D. Anti CCP)
A

B. Myelin basic protein

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14
Q
  1. Dark brown urine was seen in a urine with low pH after standing, with (+) pseudoperoxidase chem test? (A. RBCs oxidized to methemoglobin, B. Homogentisic acid, C. Methyldopa, D. Metronidazole)
A

A. RBCs oxidized to methemoglobin

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15
Q
  1. 3rd specimen is 10x WBC/hpf count and a bacterial count 10x that of the 1st specimen? (A. Pancreatitis, B. Prostatitis, C. UTI, D. Cystitis)
A

B. Prostatitis

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16
Q
  1. A mousy urine odor is associated with which of the following disorders? (A. Tyrosinemia, B. Trimethylaminuria, C. Methionine malabsorption, D. Phenylketonuria)
A

D. Phenylketonuria

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17
Q
  1. HCG bioassay using Ascheim-zondek injects female鈥檚 urine to the subcutaneous tissue of the: (A. Male frog, B. Female frog, C. Male mice, D. Female mice)
A

D. Female mice

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18
Q
  1. Product of ammonia that indicates a possible hepatic coma? (A. CSF glutamine, B. CSF lactate, C. CSF glucose, D. F2 isoprostanes)
A

A. CSF glutamine

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19
Q
  1. Calibration temperature of the urinometer is 20 degrees. A refrigerated urine specimen with a temperature of 17 degrees gives a specific gravity reading of 1.015. What is the correct reading? (A. 1.015, B. 1.014, C. 1.013, D. 1.016)
A

B. 1.014

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20
Q
  1. What is the principle of the automated reagent strip readers? (A. Reflectance Photometry, B. Nephelometry, C. Turbidimetry, D. Dry slide technology)
A

A. Reflectance Photometry

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21
Q
  1. Which of the following is abnormal? (A. Sputum expectoration, B. Sputum production, C. Translucent sputum, D. Presence of Macrophage)
A

A. Sputum expectoration

22
Q
  1. Urine clarity grading: 鈥淔ew particulates, print easily through urine鈥? (A. Clear, B. Hazy, C. Cloudy, D. Turbid)
A

B. Hazy

23
Q
  1. Compute the creatinine clearance (Urine volume: 2,000 mL in 24 hr, Urine creatinine: 150 mg/dl, Plasma creatinine: 3 mg/dl, Patient body surface: 1.8)
A

A. 66.7

24
Q
  1. A milky urine compounds dissolved after the addition of ether, the urine must have the following except? (A. T. vaginalis, B. Lymph fluids, C. Lipids, D. Chyle)
A

A. T. vaginalis

25
Q
  1. Urine Specific Gravity is 1.040, the urine must have? (A. Radiographic dye, B. Plasma expander, C. Amorphous urates, D. A and B)
A

D. A and B

26
Q
  1. A viscous semen that creates a thread longer than 2cm is reported as? (A. Positive, B. Reactive, C. 0, D. 4)
A

D. 4

27
Q
  1. Urine reagent strips should be stored in a/an: (A. Incubator, B. Cool dry place, C. Refrigerator, D. Freezer)
A

B. Cool dry place

28
Q
  1. If lymphocyte count from bronchoalveolar lavage sample reaches >50%, this might indicate: (A. Granulomatous disease, B. Viral infection, C. Hypersensitivity, D. DiGeorge)
A

C. Hypersensitivity

29
Q
  1. The protein section of urine reagent strip is most sensitive to: (A. Albumin, B. Bence Jones Protein, C. Mucoprotein, D. Globulin)
A

A. Albumin

30
Q
  1. The following will cause transudates: (I. Nephrotic syndrome, II. Congestive heart failure, III. Endocarditis, IV. Peptic ulcer)
A

C. I, II

31
Q
  1. Ascorbic acid causes false negative reactions in what urine reagent strip? A. Blood B. Bilirubin C. Leukocyte D. All of the above
A

D. All of the above

32
Q
  1. pKa change of polyelectrolyte is the principle used in what reagent strip test analysis? A. pH B. Protein C. Specific Gravity D. Ketones
A

C. Specific Gravity

33
Q
  1. In cadet proteinuria, the 1st morning specimen will produce what result? A. False negative B. False Positive C. Positive D. Negative
A

D. Negative

34
Q
  1. A milky pleural fluid was tested and shows: - Increase breakdown of cellular lipids - Weakly staining sudan - Pus Cells I. Pseudochylous II. Chylous III. Chronic Inflammation IV. Thoracic Duct Leakage
A

A. I, III

35
Q
  1. Seminal round cells are indicative of: A. Presence of spermatid B. Presence of WBC C. Either A or B D. NOTA
A

C. Either A or B

36
Q
  1. What are the largest cells found in the urinary sediments? A. Renal Tubular Cells B. Transitional Epithelial Cells C. Blood Cells D. Squamous Epithelial Cells
A

D. Squamous Epithelial Cells

37
Q
  1. Which of these urinary calculi are brown, smooth, and hard and have concentric laminations? A. Uric acid B. Oxalate C. Phosphate D. Ammonium urate
A

A. Uric acid

38
Q
  1. Provides objective determination of both SPERM velocity and trajectory? A. PACIA B. Coulter counter C. CASA D. NOTA
A

C. CASA

39
Q
  1. Sperm acrosomal cap is _____ the head and _____ of the nucleus A. 2/3, half B. 1/2, 2/3 C. 1/2, 1/4 D. Half, 1/2
A

B. 1/2, 2/3

40
Q
  1. Which of the following are called 鈥渟tairstep crystals鈥?usually one or more of the corner are Notched? A. Tyrosine B. Crystine - incorrect word C. Bilirubin D. Cholesterol
A

D. Cholesterol

41
Q
  1. A dead sperm will produce what color in a modified bloom鈥檚 test? A. Red B. Bluish white C. Orange D. Brown
A

A. Red

42
Q
  1. It is a variation of the squamous epithelial cell which is indicative of vaginal infection by bacterium Gardnerella vaginalis A. RTE cell B. Clue cell/ Shaggy cell C. Bubble cell D. Koilocyte
A

B. Clue cell/ Shaggy cell

43
Q
  1. Rheumatoid Arthritis (RA) cell or ragocytes have WBC with dark cytoplasmic granules containing: A. Round body B. Ingested neutrophil C. Immune complex D. NOTA
A

C. Immune complex

44
Q
  1. Stain that Identifies yellow-brown granules of hemosiderin in cells and casts? A. Hansel B. Prussian blue C. SternheimerMalbin D. Oil red o
A

B. Prussian blue

45
Q
  1. Which of the following is a valuable aid in the identification of urine crystals? A. pH B. Specific gravity C. Volume D. Color
A

A. pH

46
Q
  1. Renal disease whose etiology is the deposition of anti-glomerular basement membrane antibody to glomerular and alveolar basement membranes A. Berger鈥檚 disease B. Wegener鈥檚 granulomatosis C. Goodpasture syndrome D. Membranous glomerulonephritis
A

C. Goodpasture syndrome

47
Q
  1. Cloudy Red urine shows a positive blood reagent strip, with dysmorphic RBC, (+) WBC, (-) Nitrite, (+) Protein, RBC broadcast (+), this indicates? A. Acute Glomerulonephritis B. Hematuria C. Chronic Glomerulonephritis
A

C. Chronic Glomerulonephritis

48
Q
  1. Deposition of IgA on the glomerular membrane resulting from increased levels of IgA? A. Iga Nephropathy B. Berger鈥檚 Disease C. Nephrotic Syndrome D. A and B.
A

B. Berger’s Disease

49
Q
  1. A 5 hour urine sample was tested for the cause of Steatorrhea, it shows Normal D-xylose, what is the cause of steatorrhea? A. Gall stone B. Gastroenteritis C. Cronn鈥檚 D. Irritable bowel Syndrome
A

A. Gall stone

50
Q
  1. What is the urine and blood albumin in nephrotic syndrome? A. increase, decrease B. Decrease, increase C. Decrease, decrease D. Increase, Increase
A

A. increase, decrease

Special Topics 2 Finals (4 decks)

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