Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

NUCLEAR MEDICINE BOARD STUDYING > ST:9 > Flashcards

ST:9 Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following is a primary source of radiation exposure to the technologist who performs PET imaging:

(a) electromagnetic radiation from the PET camera
(b) positrons escaping from the patient
(c) gamma rays from the long lived source for transmission scanning
(d) compton scatter from the patient

A

(d) compton scatter from the patient

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the standard maximum acceptable % energy resolution measured with Cs137 for a Na(Tl) scintillation detector:

(a) 20%
(b) 8%
(c) 22%
(d) 12%

A

(d) 12%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Data collected from a red cell survival procedure are plotted on what type of graph paper:

(a) log-log
(b) semilog
(c) logit-log
(d) linear

A

(b) semilog

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

For Tc99m there are approximately 20 contributors to the internal radiation dose. Included are all of the following except:

(a) auger and internal conversion electrons
(b) gamma rays
(c) characteristic x-ray
(d) beta particles

A

(d) beta particles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Which of the following Tc99m labeled agents is the preferred tracer for demonstrating intermittent gastrointestinal bleeding:

(a) lidofenin
(b) human serum albumin
(c) sulfur colloid
(d) red blood cells

A

(d) red blood cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

When a technologist cares for a patient who is not known to have a communicable disease, all of the following infection control measures should be implements EXCEPT:

(a) wearing gloves when collecting a blood sample
(b) using a needle recapping device
(c) hand washing before and after the nuclear examination
(d) decontaminating image equipment with an antiseptic

A

(d) decontaminating image equipment with an antiseptic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Dedicated PET scanners use _______ for the detector:

a) lead
(b) NaI
(c) BGO (Bismuth Germinate
(d) ionization chamber

A

(c) BGO (Bismuth Germinate)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

After stress myocardial imaging with Tl201-thallous chloride, 1-1.5 mCi of Tl-201 thallous chloride may be administered before rest myocardial imaging to:

(a) demonstrate reversible ischemia more readily
(b) minimize visualization of attenuation artifacts
(c) demonstrate infarct size more precisely
(d) improve patient throughput

A

(a) demonstrate reversible ischemia more readily

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

In what way does the modified in-vivo method of labeling of red blood cells with Tc99m pertechnetate differ from the in-vivo method:

(a) the modified method requires a smaller amount of stannous pyrophosphate
(b) the modified method “pretins” only a small volume of the patients blood
(c) the modified method mixes Tc99m pertechnetate with only a small volume of the patients blood
(d) the modified method uses a smaller activity of Tc99m pertechnetate

A

(c) the modified method mixes Tc99m pertechnetate with only a small volume of the patients blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

If 740 kBq of a radiopharmaceutical are the be administered for each kilogram of body weight, approximately how much activity (in MBq) should be administered to a patient who weighs 172 pounds.

(a) 9.5 MBq
(b) 280 MBq
(c) 58 MBq
(d) 78 MBq

A

(c) 58 MBq

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

In performing a gastric emptying study, imaging should begin:

(a) 1 hour after meal consumption, then every 15 minutes for the next hour
(b) immediately after meal consumption, then every 15 minutes for at least 2 hours
(c) immediately after meal consumption, then every 5 minutes for at least 1 hour
(d) 15 minutes after meal consumption, then every 15 minutes for 1 hour

A

(b) immediately after meal consumption, then every 15 minutes for at least 2 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Which of the following personnel monitors would be appropriate for use when monitors are changed at 3 month intervals:

(a) OSL
(b) TLD or OSL
(c) TLD
(d) film badge

A

(b) TLD or OSL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Which of the following statements is TRUE about the modified in vivo method for labeling red blood cells with Tc99m pertechnetate:

(a) only a sample of the patients blood is incubated with the reconstituted with the stannous pyrophosphate
(b) a sample of the patients “pretinned” blood is incubated with Tc99m pertechnetate outside of the patient
(c) excess Tc99m pertechnetate is removed from the blood sample before the sample is reinjected into the patient
(d) red cell labeling takes place only within the patients circulatory system

A

(b) a sample of the patients “pretinned” blood is incubated with Tc99m pertechnetate outside of the patient

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Based on the data shown here:

Cardiac ROI: 28,503 total counts, 417 pixels
Background ROI: 1,859 total counts, 88 pixels

What are the net counts in the cardiac region of interest:

(a) 26,644
(b) 28,065
(c) 15,463
(d) 19,694

A

(d) 19,694

1859/88= 21.1 background/pixel
417 x 21.1= 8799 Cardiac ROI background counts/pixel

28,503 - 8799 = approx 19,704 Net counts in Cardiac ROI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

If the usual adult dosage of Tc99m MAA is 4mCi, a patient who has had a right pneumonectomy should receive what dosage:

(a) 2 mCi
(b) 1 mCi
(c) 4 mCi
(d) 3 mCi

A

(a) 2 mCi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

A “sharps” container reads 50 mR/h when it is placed in storage. It contains only Tc99m waste. According to NRC regulations, when can the container be disposed of as nonradioactive biohazardous waste:

(a) when the exposure rate drops to 1/100 of the original exposure rate
(b) when the container gives only a background reading with a survey meter
(c) when the container gives only a background reading with a wipe test
(d) when the exposure rate drops to 1/10 of the original exposure rate

A

(b) when the container gives only a background reading with the survey meter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

In performing a thyroid uptake, a technologist collects the thyroid counts 5 cm from the surface of the patients neck and the standard counts 20 cm from the surface of the neck phantom. What is the effect on the thyroid uptake value calculated from this data:

(a) the uptake value will be accurate
(b) the uptake value will be falsely decreased
(c) the results are unpredictable
(d) the uptake value will be falsely increased

A

(d) the uptake value will be falsely increased

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

According to NRC regulations, radioactive waste can be decayed in storage if:

(a) the exposure rate at the time of storage is less than 5 mR/h at the surface
(b) it has a physical half life of less than 1 year
(c) the exposure rate at the time of storage is less than 5 R/h at the surface
(d) it has a physical half life of less than 120 days

A

(d) it has a physical half life of less than 120 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

One advantage of the in vivo of Tc99m red cell tagging is that:

(a) smaller amounts of stannous chloride are required
(b) all circulating red cells are labeled with tracer
(c) no incubation times are required at any step in the process
(d) no manipulation of blood cells outside the body is required

A

(d) no manipulation of blood cells outside the body is required

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Indium 111 DTPA is administered _______ for cisternography:

(a) intramuscularly
(b) intrathecally
(c) subcutaneously
(d) orally

A

(b) intrathecally

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

The shelf life of most Tc99m labeled radiopharmaceuticals is:

(a) 4-6 hours
(b) 16-18 hours
(c) 6-8 hours
(d) 10-12 hours

A

(c) 6-8 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

According to the NRC, decay in storage records must include the date that the radioactive material was:

(a) disposed
(b) calibrated
(c) received
(d) placed in storage

A

(a) disposed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is the standard deviation of 40,000 counts:

(a) 2000 counts
(b) 200 counts
(c) 4000 counts
(d) 400 counts

A

(b) 200 counts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

The gamma camera seems to be producing erratic results. A Co57 floor source is counted 10 times, producing the following count values: 1000, 975, 1032, 1096, 982, 997, 1012, 1090, 994, 977. What is the c2 value for these counts:

(a) 19.3
(b) 16.3
(c) 17.3
(d) 18.3

A

(c) 17.3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

30% of 7 mL =

(a) 2.3 mL
(b) 2.10 mL
(c) 4.9 mL
(d) 0.23 mL

A

(b) 2.10 mL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

An atom is:

(a) the smallest quantity of an element that retains all of the chemical properties of that element
(b) can be broken into smaller particles to combine with other elements
(c) the smallest particle of a chemical compound that retains all the chemical properties of that element
(d) a form of electromagnetic radiation

A

(a) the smallest quantity of an element that retains all of the chemical properties of that element

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Isotopes are different forms of a specific element that have:

(a) a different number of neutrons
(b) a different number of electrons
(c) a different number of atomic mass
(d) a different number of protons

A

(a) a different number of neutrons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

40S, 40Cl, 40Ar, 40K, and 40Ca are examples of:

(a) isotones
(b) isomers
(c) isotopes
(d) isobars

A

(d) isobars

isobars- atoms have same mass number
isotones- atoms have same number of neutrons
isotopes- atoms have same number of protons
isomers- atoms same element different excited states

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Positron decay comes from the nucleus that is:

(a) proton-poor
(b) neutron-poor
(c) nucleon-poor
(d) electron-poor

A

(b)

Positron decay happens when a proton changes into a neutron and ejects a positron

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Annihilation is a reaction between:

(a) protons and neutrons
(b) x-rays and gamma rays
(c) electrons and positrons
(d) electrons and protons

A

(c) electrons and positrons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

The transition of Tc99m to Tc99 is considered to be:

(a) isomeric
(b) isotropic
(c) isobaric
(d) isotonic

A

(a) isomeric

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Removal of an electron from a neutral atom is called:

(a) ionization
(b) bonding
(c) excitation
(d) pairing

A

(a) ionization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

The minimum MeV photon energy required for pair production is:

(a) 10.22
(b) 1.022
(c) 0.511
(d) 5.110

A

(b) 1.022 MeV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

In the photoelectric process, the incoming photon:

(a) scatters with an increase in energy
(b) scatters with no change of energy
(c) is completely absorbed
(d) scatters with a loss of energy

A

(c) is completely absorbed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

The relationship between the linear attenuation coefficient (u) and the half-value layer (HVL) is given by:

(a) HVL/u=0.693
(b) HVLu2=0.693
(c) HVL=0.693/u
(d) HVL=0.693u

A

(c) HVL=0.693/u

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

The gas in a dose calibrator is usually:

(a) argon
(b) helium
(c) quenching
(d) air

A

(a) argon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Which detector has the greatest sensitivity for detecting radiation:

(a) ionization chamber
(b) GM meter
(c) body badge
(d) dose calibrator

A

(b) GM meter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

In nuclear medicine, the ability of a system to accurately depict two separate events is called:

(a) sensitivity
(b) accuracy
(c) precision
(d) resolution

A

(d) resolution

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

When using a uptake probe:

(a) no collimator is used
(b) an internal pinhole collimator is used
(c) a high sensitivity collimator is used
(d) a flat-field collimator is used

A

(d) a flat-field collimator is used

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

When using a probe or well counter, lower and upper level pulse discrimination is achieved by:

(a) using the gain
(b) using filter
(c) using a collimator
(d) using a window

A

(d) using a window

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

The resolution of a parallel hole collimator is best at:

(a) 3 inches above the surface
(b) the collimator surface
(c) the focal point
(d) any distance because the holes are parallel

A

(b) the collimator surface

42
Q

The best collimator to use when imaging with I131 is:

(a) high energy
(b) medium energy
(c) general all purpose
(d) low energy

A

(a) high energy

43
Q

Typically, an increase in resolution results in:

(a) a change in sensitivity above the focal point
(b) no affect in sensitivity
(c) an increase in sensitivity
(d) a decrease in sensitivity

A

(d) a decrease in sensitivity

44
Q

Increasing the hole diameter of septa results in:

(a) increased precision
(b) increased sensitivity
(c) increase accuracy
(d) increased resolution

A

(b) increased sensitivity

45
Q

In frame mode acquisition:

(a) allows for flexible control over subsequent formatting
(b) an image is built in the memory as signals are received
(c) images are not available for immediately display
(d) data are transferred directly to the computer memory as x,y coordinates

A

(b) an image is built in the memory as signals are received

46
Q

The star artifact is the result of:

(a) ramp filters
(b) projection
(c) simple back projection
(d) low pass filters

A

(c) simple back projection

47
Q

How often must a dose calibrator accuracy test be performed:

(a) annually
(b) monthly
(c) quarterly
(d) daily

A

(a) annually

48
Q

How often is constancy checked in a dose calibrator:

(a) monthly
(b) daily
(c) annually
(d) quarterly

A

(b) daily

49
Q

Linearity testing of a dose calibrator must be performed:

(a) monthly
(b) annually
(c) daily
(d) quarterly

A

(d) quarterly

50
Q

The percent full width at half maximum (FWHM) is often used as a measure of:

(a) intensity
(b) precision
(c) sensitivity
(d) resolution

A

(d) resolution

51
Q

Intrinsic resolution refers to a camera resolution:

(a) with a pinhole collimator
(b) with a high-sensitivity collimator
(c) without a collimator
(d) with a high-resolution, low energy collimator

A

(c) without a collimator

52
Q

A nuclear medicine technologist is going to measure the wipe tests that were performed at the end of the day. The instrument with the highest efficiency for this is usually:

(a) a scintillatino detector
(b) a GM meter
(c) a well counter
(d) a liquid scintillation counter

A

(c) a well counter

53
Q

A right-handed nuclear medicine technologist puts on a ring badge before work. The ring should probably be worn:

(a) on the left hand with the chip facing the back of the hand
(b) on the left hand with the chip facing the palm of the hand
(c) on the right hand with the TLD chip facing the back of the hand
(d) on the right hand with the thermoluminescent dosimeter (TLD) chip facing the palm of the hand

A

(d) on the right hand with the thermoluminescent dosimeter (TLD) chip facing the palm of the hand

54
Q

A package with a Transportation Index (TI) of 3 would indicate to the technologist that the package:

(a) will read 3 mrem on the surface
(b) will read 1 mrem at 3 m
(c) contains 3 mCi of radioactive material
(d) will read 3 mrem at 1 m

A

(d) will read 3 mrem at 1 m

55
Q

A package arrives with a surface reading of 10 mrem/hour; the label should be:

(a) Yellow II
(b) no label is necessary
(c) Yellow III
(d) White I

A

(a) Yellow II

56
Q

The federal agency that is response for the regulation of the uses of byproduct material is:

(a) none
(b) NRC
(c) EPA
(d) FDA

A

(b) NRC

57
Q

According to the American Medical Association (AMA), when writing material related to a medical procedure that will be distributed to the public, and to ensure that the patient can understand the material, the information must be written at the:

(a) seventh-grade level
(b) first-grade level
(c) fifth-grade level
(d) third-grade level

A

THE ANSWER IS NOT THIRD GRADE

GO with fifth grade reading level

58
Q

When using proper body mechanics to move heavy objects or equipment:

(a) keep a straight back
(b) avoid using back muscles
(c) push rather than pull
(d) pull rather than push

A

(b) avoid using back muscles

59
Q

A draw sheet is used with patients to:

(a) provide added warmth
(b) provide added cushioning
(c) aid in patient transfer
(d) protect the bedding from possible patient incontinence

A

(c) aid in patient transfer

60
Q

The six rights of a correct administration of a pharmaceutical include:

(a) the use of a generic drug
(b) following HIPAA regulations
(c) an explanation of possible side effects
(d) the right route

A

(d) the right route

61
Q

Parenteral routes of administration include all of the following EXCEPT:

(a) sublingual
(b) intrathecal
(c) subcutaneous
(d) intramuscular

A

(a) sublingual

62
Q

Intrathecal medication should be administered:

(a) into the subarachoid space
(b) in the form of granules
(c) on a transdermal patch
(d) beneath the tongue

A

(a) into the subarachoid space

63
Q

The vein usually used for the administration of radiopharmaceuticals is the:

(a) carotid
(b) vastus lateralis
(c) the most superficial vein
(d) antecubital

A

(d) antecubital

64
Q

In a needle, as the gauge increases:

(a) the length decreases
(b) the bore diameter increases
(c) the bore diameter decreases
(d) the length increases

A

(c) the bore diameter decreases

65
Q

During the injection of a patient, the technologist notices a swelling around the injection site. The technologist should:

(a) release the tourniquet
(b) discontinue the injection
(c) continue with the injection
(d) check for a flashback of blood

A

(b) discontinue the injection

66
Q

Radiopaque contrast media (ROCM) us used in CT procedures to better visualize:

(a) low-contrast tissue
(b) high-contrast tissue
(c) solid structures
(d) the functional units of the organs

A

(a) low-contrast tissues

67
Q

Before the administration of radiopaque contrast media (ROCM), the technologist should know the patient’s:

(a) creatinine level
(b) alkaline phosphatase level
(c) BUN level
(d) T4 level

A

(a) creatinine level

68
Q

According to the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC), the preferred disinfectant for preventing the spread of human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) and hepatitis B virus (HBV) is:

(a) phosphorous hyposulfite bleach
(b) antibacterial soap
(c) antifungal soap
(d) sodium hypochlorite bleach

A

(d) sodium hypochlorite bleach

69
Q

A technologist determines a patient’s pulse rate to be 120 beats/min. The technologist recognizes this to be:

(a) tachycardia
(b) hypocardia
(c) eucardia
(d) bradycardia

A

(a) tachycardia

70
Q

A note in a patient’s chart states that the patient has hypertension. The technologist first thinks the patient has:

(a) elevated blood pressure
(b) cardiomegaly
(c) tachycardia
(d) advanced renal disease

A

(a) elevated blood pressure

71
Q

A patient with a urinary catheter arrives in the nuclear medicine department for a scan. To prevent backflow, the technologist must ensure that the bag is:

(a) laid beside the patient on the bed
(b) placed on the floor
(c) kept below the bladder
(d) clamped off during the procedure

A

(c) kept below the bladder

72
Q

A patient has an ileostomy. The technologist knows that the patient has:

(a) a plastic pouch for collection of feces
(b) a catheter for collection of urine
(c) surgical dressings that may need to be changed
(d) an NG tube for feeding

A

(a) a plastic pouch for collection of feces

73
Q

The hospital in which a technologist is working is said to be accredited. The accreditation for the hospital would be issued by the:

(a) ACR
(b) AMA
(c) JCAHO
(d) NRC

A

(c) JCAHO

74
Q

While waiting for a scan, a diabetic patient develops hypoglycemia. The symptoms may include all of the following EXCEPT:

(a) general weakness
(b) hyperkinesia
(c) sweating
(d) tremors

A

(b) hyperkinesia

75
Q

Pulmonary emboli most often arise from:

(a) the intricate venous system of the liver
(b) the carotid arteries
(c) the left side of the heart
(d) the deep venous system of the lower extremities

A

(d) the deep venous system of the lower extremities

76
Q

The diameter of a capillary is:

(a) 30-40 um
(b) 3-10 um
(c) 0.05 to 0.1 um
(d) 45 um

A

(b) 3-10 um

77
Q

The fate of MAA particles is:

(a) they are broken up and removed via the bowel
(b) they are broken up and eliminated via the urinary system
(c) they are broken up and removed by the liver and spleen
(d) they are reduced in size by administration of an anticoagulant

A

(c) they are broken up and removed by the liver and spleen

78
Q

A patient has a NM lung scan. Once the particles have been injected, the technologist notices activity in the brain and other organs. The technologist recognizes this to be:

(a) right to left shunt
(b) an expired kit
(c) normal
(d) too many particles injected

A

(a) right to left shunt

79
Q

Having patients for lung scan injected with the macroaggregate albumin while supine is important because:

(a) there will be a more homogeneous distribution of particles
(b) a three way stopcock is preferred for injection
(c) many patients for lung scans have dyspnea
(d) many patients for lung scans have syncope

A

(a) there will be a more homogeneous distribution of particles

80
Q

The image of an aerosol ventilation study shows activity in the bronchi and the stomach, the technologist:

(a) adjusts the nebulizer flow rate
(b) had performed the perfusion study first
(c) checks the particle size of the aerosol to be certain it is within the limits
(d) continues with the study because this is normal

A

(d) continues with the study because this is normal

81
Q

A technologist performs a lung scan that demonstrates a relatively normal ventilation scan and is accompanied by a perfusion scan demonstrating segmental defects. The technologist should:

(a) check to see if the patient received the injection while in the upright position
(b) recognize this is a pattern for COPD
(c) check the particle size of the MAA
(d) recognize this as a pattern for a possible PE

A

(d) recognize this as a pattern for a possible PE

82
Q

The quantity of blood in the ventricles at the end of ventricular relaxation is called:

(a) end systolic volume
(b) end diastolic volume
(c) cardiac output
(d) stroke volume

A

(b) end diastolic volume

83
Q

The amount of blood pumped out from each ventricle during a single beat is called the:

(a) cardiac output
(b) end diastolic volume
(c) stroke volume
(d) end systolic volume

A

(c) stroke volume

84
Q

When performing a myocardial perfusion exercise stress test, ideally:

(a) the radiopharmaceutical should be injected at peak stress and the exercise continued for 1-2 minutes
(b) the radiopharmaceutical should be injected at peak stress and exercise terminated immediately
(c) the radiopharmaceutical should be injected at 1-2 minutes after peak stress and then exercise terminated within 1 minute
(d) the radiopharmaceutical should be injected at the beginning of stress

A

(a) the radiopharmaceutical should be injected at peak stress and the exercise continued for 1-2 minutes

85
Q

An asthmatic patient arrives for a pharmacologic myocardial stress test, the technologist will most likely perform the study using:

(a) dipyridamole
(b) dobutamine
(c) adenosine
(d) exercise stress

A

(b) dobutamine

86
Q

A bulls-eye display of myocardial perfusion data is constructed by:

(a) stacking reconstructed/reoriented horizontal long-axis slices
(b) stacking reconstructed/reoriented vertical long-axis slices
(c) stacking reconstructed/reoriented slices of all axis slices
(d) stacking reconstructed/reoriented short axis slices

A

(d) stacking reconstructed/reoriented short axis slices

87
Q

In a bull’s eye display of SPECT myocardial perfusion images, the apex of the ventricle appears:

(a) in the center
(b) on the top
(c) on the bottom
(d) on the left periphery

A

(a) in the center

88
Q

When performing equilibrium-gated blood pool studies, the computer is programmed to have the first frame of data recorded in this:

(a) T wave
(b) R wave
(c) QRS complex
(d) Q wave

A

(b) R wave

89
Q

To allow for a repeat study, a radiopharmaceutical used to acquire a first-pass study is:

(a) Tc99m DTPA
(b) Tc99m sestamibi
(c) Tc99m tetrofosmin
(d) Tc99m teboroxime

A

(a) Tc99m DTPA

90
Q

ACE I augmented renal studies in patients with:

(a) vesicoureteral reflux
(b) infection and inflammation
(c) RAS related hypertension
(d) obstructive uropathy

A

(c) RAS related hypertension

91
Q

A diuretic renal imaging study is most helpful in differentiating:

(a) ERPF from GFR
(b) a dilated from an obstructed renal collecting system
(c) renovascular hypertension from ATN
(d) ATN from rejection in a transplanted kidney

A

(b) a dilated from an obstructed renal collecting system

92
Q

When the thyroid gland is the source of excessive thyroid hormone, is diffusely large, and is homogenously active, it is characteristic of:

(a) thyroid cancer
(b) multinodular goiter
(c) Grave’s disease
(d) Plummer’s disease

A

(c) Grave’s disease

93
Q

The radionuclide therapy used for the management of either hyperthyroidism or thyroid carcinoma is:

(a) I125
(b) I123 MIBG
(c) I123
(d) I131

A

(d) I131

94
Q

The most common radiopharmaceutical used in testicular scintigraphy:

(a) Tc99m DTPA
(b) Tc99m pertechnetate
(c) Tc99m MAG3
(d) Tc99m DMSA

A

(b) Tc99m pertechnetate

95
Q

I131 metaiodobenzylguanidine is used to treat:

(a) metastatic pheochromocytoma
(b) hyperparathyroidism
(c) hyperthyroidism
(d) metastatic thyroid cancer

A

(a) metastatic pheochromocytoma

96
Q

When performing a radioactive iodine uptake, it should be remembered that in comparison with I131, I123 is:

(a) more sensitive to tissue attenuation
(b) has no tissue attenuation
(c) comparable in regard to tissue attenuation
(d) less sensitive to tissue attenuation

A

(a) more sensitive to tissue attenuation

97
Q

When looking at the blood test results in a chart of a patient with hyperparathyroidism, a technologist will most likely see evidence of:

(a) elevated serum calcium
(b) excessive catecholamine
(c) elevated cortisol levels
(d) an excess of glucosteroids

A

(a) elevated serum calcium

98
Q

A patient is scheduled for adrenal cortical imaging. The radiopharmaceutical the technologist would order for this study is:

(a) I123 MIBG
(b) Tc99m MIBI
(c) I131 NP-59
(d) In111 DTPA pentetreotide

A

(c) I131 NP-59

99
Q

As compared to a low energy collimator, a high energy collimator will have all of the following EXCEPT:

(a) high sensitivity
(b) longer holes
(c) thicker septa
(d) usefulness in imaging with isotopes such as I131

A

(a) high sensitivity

100
Q

Which body decides on the acceptable levels of radionuclidic impurity:

(a) NRC
(b) FDA
(c) USP and NRC
(d) USP

A

(c) USP and NRC

NUCLEAR MEDICINE BOARD STUDYING (31 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions