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NUCLEAR MEDICINE BOARD STUDYING > ST:12 (Test 8) > Flashcards

ST:12 (Test 8) Flashcards

1
Q

It is proper technique to clean the septum of a kit reaction vial, and inject an amount of air equal to the volume being withdrawn when preparing a unit dose?

a. True
b. False

A

a. True

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2
Q

What is the purpose of adding hetastarch to a blood sample drawn for the purpose of leukocyte labeling?

a. To act as an anticoagulant
b. To hasten the settling of erythrocytes
c. To separate platelets from leukocytes
d. To improve labeling efficiency

A

b. To hasten the settling of erythrocytes

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3
Q

Following reconstitution of a kit with 99mTc pertechnetate, a technologist should ensure that all of the following are present on the vial except:

a. Date and time of preparation
b. Lot number
c. Concentration and volume
d. Patient name or identification number

A

d. Patient name or identification number

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4
Q

What is the difference between preparation of a 99mTc HMPAO kit for use in leukocyte labeling as compared to brain imaging?

a. Methylene blue stabilizer is not added
b. The kit is boiled after addition of pertechnetate
c. An anticoagulant must be added
d. Labeling efficiency is much more critical

A

a. Methylene blue stabilizer is not added

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5
Q

Testing for pyrogens is achieved by:

a. Radiochromatography
b. Limulus amebocyte lysate assay
c. ITLC
d. None of the above

A

b. Limulus amebocyte lysate assay

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6
Q

If the proper centrifuge speed is not used during separation of cell types for leukocyte labeling with In111 Oxine, what may happen?

a. Platelets may be inadvertently labeled
b. In111 Oxine will not tag WBCs
c. Red blood cells may become damaged
d. White blood cells may become damaged

A

a. Platelets may be inadvertently labeled

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7
Q

In reconstituted radiopharmaceutical kits, in what form is 99mTc is present?

a. Free pertechnetate
b. Bound technetium
c. Reduced, hydrolyzed technetium
d. All of the above

A

d. All of the above

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8
Q

A 99Mo/99mTc generator exists in _______ equilibrium and the parent isotope has a physical half life __________ than the daughter isotope?

a. Transient, longer
b. Transient, shorter
c. Static, longer
d. Static, shorter

A

a. Transient, longer

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9
Q

Which of the following radionuclides is not a positron emitter?

a. Rb82
b. O15
c. F18
d. C14
e. Ga68

A

d. C14

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10
Q

When a neutron deficient emits a positron:

a. Atomic mass number decreases by 1
b. Atomic mass number increases by 1
c. Atomic number increases by 1
d. Atomic mass number is unchanged

A

d. Atomic mass number is unchanged

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11
Q

Which of the following has the shortest half-life?

a. Rb82
b. N13
c. O15
d. F18

A

a. Rb82

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12
Q

When 18FDG is transported across most cell membranes:

a. It diffuses back out of the cell in about 3 hours
b. It is trapped in the cell
c. It is not further metabolized
d. It is trapped in the cell AND it is not further metabolized
e. It diffuses back out of the cell in about 3 hours AND it is not further metabolized

A

d. It is trapped in the cell AND it is not further metabolized

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13
Q

Which of the following will not affect the distribution of 18FDG on a PET image?

a. Intense physical activity the day before imaging
b. Serum insulin level
c. Serum glucose level
d. Bladder catheterization
e. All of the above affect distribution

A

e. All of the above affect distribution

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14
Q

Which of the following bodies regulates the use of investigational pharmaceuticals?

a. NRC
b. DOT
c. IRB
d. FDA

A

d. FDA

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15
Q

In the event of a spill of 99mTc to clothes, one should immediately:

a. Enter the shower fully clothed
b. Remove and store the clothes until they decay to background
c. Wash the clothes in hot water and then survey them to determine remaining activity
d. Remove and destroy the clothing

A

b. Remove and store the clothes until they decay to background

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16
Q

If a radiopharmaceutical is spilled on the floor, the first priority is to:

a. Contact the radiation safety officer
b. Pour a chelating solution over the area of the spill
c. Cover the area with absorbent paper and restrict access around it
d. Call the housekeeping department to arrange for cleaning

A

c. Cover the area with absorbent paper and restrict access around it

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17
Q

The inverse square law, in words, says:

a. If you double the distance from the source of activity, you reduce the exposure to 25% of the original intensity
b. If you double the distance from the source of the activity, you decrease exposure by 25%
c. If you halve the distance from the source of activity, you decrease exposure to 25% of the original intensity
d. If you halve the distance from the source of activity, you decrease exposure to one fourth of the original intensity

A

a. If you double the distance from the source of activity, you reduce the exposure to 25% of the original intensity

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18
Q

What is the best way to decrease the radioactive dose to visitors if a patient is surveyed to emit 3mR/hr at bedside?

a. Have the patient wear a lead apron
b. Keep the patient well hydrated and encourage frequent voiding
c. Have the visitor sit or stand as far as possible from bedside
d. Have the visitor wear lead shielding

A

c. Have the visitor sit or stand as far as possible from bedside

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19
Q

Which of the following should be used when administering an intravenous pharmaceutical to a patient?

a. Lead syringe shield
b. Leaded eye glasses
c. Gloves
d. Lead syringe shield and leaded eyeglasses
e. All of the above

A

c. Gloves

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20
Q

A technologist performs an extrinsic uniformity correction on Monday and it shows a nonuniformity of 3%. One Tuesday it is 8%, What would be the next step?

a. Check the photopeak
b. Call for service on the machine
c. Remove the collimator and obtain intrinsic uniformity flood
d. Check the photopeak AND remove the old collimator and obtain intrinsic uniformity flood

A

d. Check the photopeak AND remove the old collimator and obtain intrinsic uniformity flood

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21
Q

Why might a technologist use an asymmetric window around a photopeak?

a. To include other emissions
b. To exclude Compton edge
c. To exclude Compton scatter
d. None of the above

A

c. To exclude Compton scatter

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22
Q

What energies are included if a 20% symmetric window is used for the 364 keV photopeak of I131?

a. 191-437
b. 328-400
c. 337-391
d. 344-384

A

B. 328-400

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23
Q

Osteoclastic activity refers to:

a. Bone marrow biopsy
b. Destruction and reabsorption of bone
c. Bone compression
d. New bone formation

A

b. Destruction and reabsorption of bone

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24
Q

The function of the skeleton is:

a. To provide support
b. To protect organs
c. Production of blood cells
d. All of the above

A

d. All of the above

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25
Q

Which group shows the highest rate of primary bone tumors?

a. The elderly
b. Children
c. Males
d. Females

A

b. Children

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26
Q

The radiation dose from a bone scan is highest to the:

a. Bone marrow
b. Chest
c. Bladder
d. Brain

A

c. Bladder

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27
Q

When performing a bolus injection for a 3-phase bone scan, why would the tourniquet be released and injection delayed for one minute?

a. To minimize pain during injection
b. To reduce transient hyperemia resulting from vasodilation
c. To double check the dynamic sequence settings
d. To obtain a better bolus

A

b. To reduce transient hyperemia resulting from vasodilation

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28
Q

What is an advantage of spot planar imaging over whole body imaging for a bone scan?

a. Speed
b. Decreased patient to detector distance
c. No need for COR correction
d. Better evaluation of metastasis spread

A

b. Decreased patient to detector distance

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29
Q

Which of the following would be a reason not to inject in the right antecubital fossa?

a. The patient had blood drawn from the back of the right hand the same day
b. The patient was injected on the right for a previous bone scan
c. There is a suspicion of osseous abnormality in the right distal humerus
d. The patient is left-handed

A

c. There is a suspicion of osseous abnormality in the right distal humerus

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30
Q

Which of the following is not in the pelvis?

a. The ilium
b. The ischium
c. The iridium
d. None of the above

A

c. The iridium

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31
Q

The preparation for a bone scan is:

a. NPO for midnight
b. Cleansing enema
c. Patient must be off thyroid medication for 4 weeks
d. None of the above
e. NPO from midnight AND cleansing enema

A

d. None of the above

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32
Q

A high-resolution collimator would be most appropriate for:

a. Myocardial perfusion study with 201TI chloride
b. Myocardial perfusion with 99mTc Sestamibi
c. First pass study with 99mDTPA
d. Myocardial imaging with 99mTc pyrophosphate

A

b. Myocardial perfusion with 99mTc Sestamibi

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33
Q

On Monday morning, a technologist receives a telephone request to perform a myocardial study with 99mTc PYP for detection of a myocardial infarct suspected to have taken place that morning at 8:00 a.m. What should be done?

a. The patient should be injected, but not scanned until at least 8:00 a.m. on Tuesday
b. The study should be delayed until 8:00 a.m. on Tuesday
c. The study should be delayed until 8;00 a.m. on Thursday
d. The patient should be injected and scanned as soon as possible

A

b. The study should be delayed until 8:00 a.m. on Tuesday

the calcium build up after infarction takes about 18-24 hours in order to show up on a scan, so you must wait 1 day after MI to be able to image

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34
Q

Infarct-avid myocardial imaging with 99mTcPYP is usually interpreted by comparing cardiac activity in:

a. Rib
b. Sternum
c. Kidneys
d. All of the above
e. Rib and sternum only

A

e. Rib and sternum only

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35
Q

If a SPECT myocardial study with 99mTcPYP is performed using 64 views of 20 seconds each over 360, how long will the study take assuming continuous rotation?

a. 18 minutes
b. 21 minutes
c. 92 minutes
d. 112 minutes

A

b. 21 minutes

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36
Q

Gated equilibrium cardiac blood pool images can be used to reliably determine:

a. Hibernating myocardium
b. LVEF
c. Interventricular shunt
d. Ischemia
e. All of the above

A

b. LVEF

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37
Q

Akinesis refers to:

a. A lack of wall motion
b. Diminished wall motion
c. Paradoxical wall motion
d. Septal motion

A

a. A lack of wall motion

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38
Q

The R-R interval represents:

a. Only repolarization
b. Arrhythmia filtering
c. The length of a cardiac cycle
d. Length of time data is held in a buffer before being accepted or rejected

A

c. The length of a cardiac cycle

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39
Q

When labeling RBCs with 99mTc for radionuclide ventriculography, the highest labeling efficiency with be obtained by:

a. The invivo method
b. The invitro method
c. The modified invivo/invitro method
d. All result in the same labeling efficiency

A

b. The invitro method

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40
Q

In which of the following cases must imaging be initiated as soon as possible after radiopharmaceutical injection?

a. Radionuclide ventriculography with 99mTc labeled RBCs
b. Radionuclide ventriculography with 99mTcHSA
c. Myocardial perfusion imaging with 99mTc Sestamibi
d. Resting myocardial perfusion with 201TI chloride

A

b. Radionuclide ventriculography with 99mTcHSA

HSA accumulates in the liver very quickly after injection so you must take pictures immediately

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41
Q

A patient has an enlarged left atrium. When drawing an ROI for calculation of LVEF following radionuclide ventriculography, the technologist includes some activity from the left atrium. The resulting ejection fraction with be:

a. Unchanged
b. Falsely elevated
c. Falsely lowered
d. Cannot be determined form the information given

A

c. Falsely lowered

42
Q

Gated blood pool ventriculography is often used to:

a. Diagnose arrhythmia
b. Obtain a baseline measurement of cardiac function in potential radiation therapy patients
c. Detect hematologic spread of metastases
d. Determine effect of chemotherapy on cardiac function

A

d. Determine effect of chemotherapy on cardiac function

43
Q

Set up for a SPECT imaging of myocardial perfusion with 99mTc Sestamibi includes all of the following except:

a. Ensuring that the detector head will not snag IV lines or oxygen tubing
b. Setting a 10o caudal tilt to differentiate left atrium from left ventricle
c. Moving patients arms over his or her head
d. Ensuring that COR correction for high sensitivity collimator is selected

A

b. Setting a 10o caudal tilt to differentiate left atrium from left ventricle

44
Q

A patient who cannot exercise and who has asthma can undergo a stress myocardial perfusion study through the use of:

a. The Bruce protocol
b. Dipyridamole
c. Dobutamine
d. Adenosine

A

c. Dobutamine

45
Q

A patient will be asked to fast, or to eat lightly between stress and redistribution studies with 201TI chloride because:

a. Peristalsis will degrade images
b. Stomach activity may obscure myocardium
c. Gall bladder contraction will be stimulated
d. The patient will experience nausea following the stress test

A

b. Stomach activity may obscure myocardium

46
Q

Which of the following pairs of radiopharmaceuticals is used for simultaneously studying gastric emptying of both liquids and solids?

a. 99mTc sulfur colloid chicken livers and 111In DTPA scrambled eggs
b. 99Tc albumin colloid scrambled eggs and 99mTc colloid in milk
c. 99Tc sulfur colloid scrambled eggs and 111In DTPA in water
d. 111InDTPA scrambled eggs and 99mTc sulfur colloid in water

A

c. 99Tc sulfur colloid scrambled eggs and 111In DTPA in water

47
Q

What structure is outlined by the ROI on Figure 10.1?

FIGURE 10.1

a. esophagus
b. stomach
c. common bile duct
d. duodenum

A

b. stomach

48
Q

Which of the following radiopharmaceuticals can be used to study the spleen?

a. 51Cr labeled damaged red blood cells
b. 99mTc labeled damaged red blood cells
c. 99mTc sulfur colloid
d. All of the above
e. 99mTc labeled damaged red blood cells AND 99mTc sulfur colloid

A

d. All of the above

49
Q

How is radiopharmaceutical administered when a LeVeen shunt is evaluated?

a. By intravenous injection
b. By intraperitoneal injection
c. By subcutaneous injection
d. By intrathecal injection

A

b. By intraperitoneal injection

50
Q

The ejection fraction of the gallbladder can be evaluated using:

a. Cimetidine
b. Dipyridamole
c. Cholecystokinin
d. Dobutamine
e. Acetazolamide
f. Morphine sulfate

A

c. Cholecystokinin

51
Q

If no gallbladder is seen at one hour following injection of 99mTc DISIDA, what should be done?

a. Cimetidine should be given
b. Images should be taken at 24 hours
c. Images should be taken at 4 hours
d. The exam should be ended

A

c. Images should be taken at 4 hours

52
Q

While performing a liver scan with sulfur colloid, the technologist notices that lung uptake is present. This is probably due to:

a. Free pertechnetate in the sulfur colloid preparation
b. Too much AI3+ ion in the pertechnetate that was used for labeling
c. Lung metastases
d. Patient being injected in the supine position

A

b. Too much AI3+ ion in the pertechnetate that was used for labeling

53
Q

The function of the LeVeen shunt is to:

a. Treat hydrocephalus
b. Drain peritoneal fluid into the inferior vena cava
c. Drain peritoneal fluid into the superior vena cava
d. Diver CSF flow

A

c. Drain peritoneal fluid into the superior vena cava

54
Q

A technologist receives a request to perform a scan with 99mTc albumin colloid to rule out acute cholecystitis. What should he or she do next?

a. Check if albumin colloid is available
b. Alert the nuclear medicine physician to the problem
c. Change the order to 99Tc IDA
d. Perform the study as ordered

A

b. Alert the nuclear medicine physician to the problem

55
Q

When performing a SPECT study of the liver and spleen, the camera should be positioned:

a. So that the costal margin is at the bottom of the detector face
b. So that it touches the left side of the patient when rotating
c. So that it touches the right side of the patient when rotating
d. As close as possible but without touching the patient during rotation

A

d. As close as possible but without touching the patient during rotation

56
Q

Radiocolloids are cleared from the circulation by:

a. liver parenchymal cells
b. hepatocytes
c. Kupffer cells
d. hemangiomas

A

c. Kupffer cells

57
Q

Which radiopharmaceutical is commonly used to image cavernous hemangioma?

a. 99Tc albumin colloid
b. 99Tc RBCs
c. 99Tc IDA
d. 99Tc pertechnetate
e. 99Tc sulfur colloid

A

b. 99Tc RBCs

58
Q

Colloid shift refers to:

a. Small colloid particles clumped together to form large particles which localize in the lungs
b. 99Tc sulfur colloid changing into albumin colloid
c. Increased uptake of colloid in the spleen and bone marrow relative to liver
d. The redistribution of colloid within the liver over time

A

c. Increased uptake of colloid in the spleen and bone marrow relative to liver

59
Q

Which of the following does not involve the use of labeled RBCs?

a. Blood pool imaging of the liver
b. GI bleed imaging
c. Spleen imaging
d. Meckel’s diverticulum
e. Blood pool imaging of the liver AND Meckel’s diverticulum

A

d. Meckel’s diverticulum

60
Q

Cimetidine:

a. Prevents the gallbladder form contracting
b. Prevents the release of pertechnetate from gastric mucosa
c. Increases uptake of pertechnetate in the gastric mucosa
d. Decreases peristalsis

A

b. Prevents the release of pertechnetate from gastric mucosa

61
Q

The approximate time for half of the activity to empty from the stomach during a solid phase gastric emptying exam is:

a. 25 minutes
b. 40 minutes
c. 90 minutes
d. 180 minutes

A

c. 90 minutes

62
Q

Esophageal reflux studies are usually performed with both solid and liquid phases

a. True
b. False

A

b. False

63
Q

Which imaging study is acquired while an abdominal binder is inflated to increase pressures?

a. Meckel’s diverticulum study
b. Gastric emptying study
c. Esophageal transit study
d. Esophageal reflux study
e. Gastrointestinal bleeding study

A

d. Esophageal reflux study

64
Q

Which of the following is not true regarding glomerular filtration rate?

a. It usually becomes abnormal before serum creatinine levels become abnormal
b. It is typically obtained through the use of 99mTc DTPA
c. It can be determined only by taking blood or urine specimens
d. It is a measure of the ability of the kidneys to clear inulin from the plasma
e. All except it is typically obtained through the use of 99mTc DTPA

A

c. It can be determined only by taking blood or urine specimens

65
Q

Which radiopharmaceuticals can be used to determine effective renal plasma flow?

a. 99mTc MAG3
b. 131I OIH
c. 99mTc DTPA
d. 99mTc MAG3 AND 131I OIH
e. 99mTc MAG3 AND 99mTc DTPA

A

d. 99mTc MAG3 AND 131I OIH

66
Q

An advantage of GFR and ERPF measurements over other indicators of renal function such as BUN and creatinine is that the function of each kidney can be determined separately.

a. True
b. False

A

a. True

67
Q

Which saline bottle would be sufficient to fill the bladder of an 8 year old during radionuclide cystography?

a. 125 ml
b. 250 ml
c. 400 ml
d. None of the above

A

c. 400 ml

68
Q

Which renal imaging agent requires the highest administered dose?

a. 99mTc DTPA
b. 131I OIH
c. 99mTc MAG3
d. 99mTc DMSA

A

?

69
Q

On a renal scan, gallbladder activity is noted. This indicates that the scan was performed using:

a. 99mTc DMSA
b. 99mTc DTPA
c. 99mTc GH
d. 99mTc MAG3

A

d. 99mTc MAG3

70
Q

The adrenal glands are:

a. Superior to the kidney
b. Inferior to the kidney
c. Anterior to the kidney
d. Posterior to the kidney

A

a. Superior to the kidney

71
Q

Which of the following is tuft of capillaries?

a. Loop of Henle
b. The glomerulus
c. Renal pyramid
d. Collecting tubule

A

b. The glomerulus

72
Q

What is the optimal scanning time for neoplasm when using 67Ga citrate?

a. 4 hours
b. 6 hours
c. 24 hours
d. 48 hours

A

d. 48 hours

73
Q

Lymphoscintigraphy is used to:

a. Map lymphatic channels
b. Determine drainage pathways from malignant neoplasms
c. Identify the sentinel node
d. All of the above
e. Map lymphatic channels AND determine drainage pathways form malignant neoplasms

A

d. All of the above

74
Q

Which of the following is true of 67Ga citrate and 111In labeled leukocytes?

a. Both require use of a medium energy collimator
b. Both can be used to effectively image neoplasms and infections
c. Both have 3 gamma peaks available for imaging
d. All of the above
e. Both require use of a medium energy collimator AND both can be used to effectively image neoplasms and infections

A

a. Both require use of a medium energy collimator

75
Q

111In Pentetreotide is a:

a. Potassium analog
b. Monoclonal antibody
c. Somatostatin analog
d. Radiocolloid

A

c. Somatostatin analog

76
Q

A HAMA response occurs because:

a. A kit contains pyrogens
b. Monoclonal antibodies are produced from mouse cells which the human body recognizes as a foreign protein
c. A patient is allergic to 111In
d. Monoclonal antibodies are reproduced from human cells that trigger an immune response in the patient

A

b. Monoclonal antibodies are produced from mouse cells which the human body recognizes as a foreign protein

77
Q

A monoclonal antibody is developed which displays cross-reaction. This means:

a. The antibody triggers an immune response in the patient
b. The antibody will bind antigens other that the one it was formed with
c. The antibody can be labeled with either 99mTc or 111In
d. None of the above

A

b. The antibody will bind antigens other that the one it was formed with

78
Q

Examples of neuroendocrine tumor include:

a. Pituitary adenoma
b. Small cell lung cancer
c. Neuroblastomas
d. All of the above
e. Pituitary adenoma AND neuroblastomas

A

d. All of the above

79
Q

Visualization of kidneys at 48 hours is ____ on a scan using 111In Pentetreotide and ____ on a 67 Ga citrate scan.

a. Normal, abnormal
b. Abnormal, normal
c. Normal, normal
d. Abnormal, abnormal

A

a. Normal, abnormal

80
Q

18FDG can be used to image tumors because the glycolytic rate is higher in tumor than in normal tissues.

a. True
b. False

A

a. True

81
Q

Which of the following are true regarding 18FDG tumor imaging?

a. PET scanning is required
b. The patient should fast before the exam
c. Only brain tumors can be detected
d. All of the above
e. All except only brain tumors can be detected

A

e. All except only brain tumors can be detected

82
Q

On a Monday morning, a technologist learns that a patient needs to be scheduled for imaging with 67Ga citrate, and also a lower GI. If the ordering physician wished that both exams be done within the week, how should these studies be scheduled?

a. Lower GI on Monday morning, and 67Ga citrate on Monday afternoon
b. Lower GI on Monday morning, and 67Ga citrate on Wednesday
c. 67Ga injection on Monday morning followed by imaging each day, lower GI at noon on Friday
d. Inject patient with 67Ga citrate on Monday morning, send for lower GI, and then perform first imaging of gallium on Monday afternoon

A

c. 67Ga injection on Monday morning followed by imaging each day, lower GI at noon on Friday

83
Q

Pheochromocytomas are imaged using:

a. 131I MIBG
b. 131I NP-59
c. Indium 111 Capromab pentedide
d. I123 NaI

A

a. 131I MIBG

84
Q

The use of PET imaging in oncology takes advantage of the ____ differences between normal and neoplastic tissue.

a. Structural
b. Metabolic
c. Density
d. hormonal

A

b. Metabolic

85
Q

Hodgkin’s disease is a type of:

a. Lung cancer
b. Lymphoma
c. AIDS
d. Lupus

A

b. Lymphoma

86
Q

Normal areas of uptake for 67Ga citrate include all of the following except:

a. Intestinal mucosa
b. Parathyroid glands
c. Liver
d. Epiphyses in pediatric patients

A

b. Parathyroid glands

87
Q

If a low energy collimator is using for imaging 67Ga, what will be the effect?

a. There is increased septal penetration
b. Poor spatial resolution
c. Decreased sensitivity
d. There is increased septal penetration AND decreased sensitivity
e. There is increased septal penetration AND poor spatial resolution
f. All of the above

A

e. There is increased septal penetration AND poor spatial resolution

88
Q

In general, the best radiopharmaceutical to use for a suspected abdominal abscess is:

a. 67Ga citrate
b. 111In labeled leukocytes
c. 111I satumomab pendetide
d. 111In octreotide

A

b. 111In labeled leukocytes

89
Q

A technologist is performing a thyroid uptake with 123I sodium iodide. The capsule is counted before being administered to the patient, and 850,196 cpm are obtained. Six hours after swallowing the capsule, the counts from the patient’s neck are 116,239 and from the thigh, 34,982. Background for the uptake probe is 239 cpm, and the six hour decay factor for 123I is 0.730.

What is the 6 hour uptake?

a. 7.0%
b. 9.5%
c. 13.1%
d. 18.7%

A

c. 13.1%

90
Q

What will the effect be if a technologist places the uptake probe over the proximal thigh when counting background in the patient?

a. The background will be falsely elevated
b. The background will be falsely decreased
c. The calculated uptake will decrease
d. The background will be falsely elevated AND the calculated uptake will decrease
e. The background will be falsely decreased AND the calculated uptake will decrease

A

d. The background will be falsely elevated AND the calculated uptake will decrease

91
Q

Which of the following dietary supplements will affect thyroid uptake?

a. Vitamin A
b. Vitamin B
c. St. John’s Wort
d. Kelp tablets
e. Lactobacillus

A

d. Kelp tablets

92
Q

Which of the following will not affect thyroid uptake?

a. Iodinated contrast media
b. Prophlthiouracil
c. Thyroid hormones
d. Beta blockers

A

d. Beta blockers

93
Q

Thyrotropin is also known as:

a. TRH
b. TSH
c. T3
d. T4

A

b. TSH

94
Q

Which of the following statements is not true?

a. TRH stimulates the release of TSH by the anterior pituitary
b. Release of T3 is inhibited by elevation of T4
c. T3 and T4 are both hormones which are manufactured and release by the thyroid
d. TRH is synthesized in the hypothalamus

A

b. Release of T3 is inhibited by elevation of T4

95
Q

Most people have four parathyroid glands

a. True
b. False

A

a. True

96
Q

The salivary glands include:

a. The parotid glands
b. Sublingual salivary glands
c. Submandibular salivary glands
d. All of the above
e. Sublingual salivary glands AND submandibular glands

A

d. All of the above

97
Q

The collimator attached to a thyroid uptake probe is:

a. Converging
b. Diverging
c. Pinhole
d. Flat field
e. low energy all purpose

A

d. Flat field

98
Q

For determination of plasma volume, 10uCi of human serum albumin in 2.5 ml is added to 500 ml of water. What is the concentration of the resulting solution?

a. 0.019 uCi/ml
b. 0.025 uCi/ml
c. 50.00 uCi/ml
d. 50.20 uCi/ml

A

a. 0.019 uCi/ml

99
Q

Which of the following are part of the preparation for a thyroid uptake?

a. NPO
b. Administer Lugol’s solution
c. Have the patient void before administration of radiopharmaceutical
d. Withhold caffeine containing beverages for 24 hours prior to examination
e. None of the above

A

a. NPO

100
Q

When performing a thyroid uptake, the technologist neglects to count the capsule before it is administered to the patient. What are the implications?

a. It will not be possible to calculate uptake values
b. An identical capsule must be counted in a neck phantom in order or obtain uptake values
c. No decay factor will be used in the calculation of uptake values
d. None of the above
e. An identical capsule must be counted in a neck phantom in order to obtain uptake values AND no decay factor will be used in the calculation of uptake values

A

e. An identical capsule must be counted in a neck phantom in order to obtain uptake values AND no decay factor will be used in the calculation of uptake values

NUCLEAR MEDICINE BOARD STUDYING (31 decks)

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