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IFR Oral Exam > SRM (Single pilot Resource Management) > Flashcards

SRM (Single pilot Resource Management) Flashcards

1
Q

What does the acronym SRM stand for?

A

Single pilot Resource Management

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2
Q

What are the main components of SRM (Single pilot Resource Management)?

A
  1. Aeronautical Decision Making
  2. Risk Management
  3. Situational Awareness
  4. Task Management
  5. Automation Management
  6. CFIT (Controlled Flight Into Terrain)
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3
Q

What is an acronym that can be used to help with Aeronautical Decision Making?

A

The D.E.C.I.D.E. model can assist in keeping a pilots thought process on track during a stressful situation.

  • Detect the problem
  • Estimate the severity
  • Choose a good outcome
  • Identify steps needed to acheave outcome
  • Do those steps
  • Evaluate and repeat
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4
Q

What does the acronym D.E.C.I.D.E. stand for?

A
  • Detect the problem
  • Evaluate the severity
  • Choose a good outcome
  • Identify the steps needed to achieve the desired outcome
  • Do those steps
  • Evaluate the results and repeat
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5
Q

What are some acronyms that can be used to help with Risk Management?

A
  • Know the 5 hazardous attitudes
  • P.A.V.E.
  • The “3 Ps”
  • I.M.S.A.F.E.
  • A.R.R.O.W.
  • A.V.I.A.T.E.
  • T.O.M.A.T.O .A. F.L.A.M.E.S.
  • G.R.A.B. C.A.R.D.
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6
Q

What are the 5 Hazardous Attitudes and their solutions?

A
  1. Anti-authority - “Follow the rules, they are usually right”
  2. Impulsivity - “Think everything through first”
  3. Invulnerability - “It COULD happen to me” “Thats what the last guy thought”
  4. Macho - “Taking chances is foolish”
  5. Resignation - “I’m not helpless, I CAN make a difference!”
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7
Q

How is the the acronym P.A.V.E. used and what does it stand for?

A

P.A.V.E. is used to evaluate the 4 major risk areas for a pilot.

  • Pilot
  • Aircraft
  • enVironment
  • External Pressures
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8
Q

How is the the acronym I.M.S.A.F.E. used and what does it stand for?

A

I.M.S.A.F.E. is used to identify risk factors for the pilot.

  • Illness
  • Medication
  • Stress
  • Alcohol
  • Fatigue
  • Emotions/Eating
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9
Q

How is the the acronym A.R.R.O.W.E. used and what does it stand for?

A

A.R.R.O.W.E. identifies the required documents needed onboard the aircraft.

  • Airworthiness Certificate
  • Registration
  • Radio license (International flights)
  • Operation limitations (Pilots Operating Handbook)
  • Weight and balance
  • Required Equipment list
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10
Q

How is the the acronym A.V.I.A.T.E. used and what does it stand for?

A

A.V.I.A.T.E. is used to identify the required inspections needed for the aircraft to be considered legal to fly.

  • Annual inspection (every 12 caledar months)
  • VOR test (every 30 days for IFR flight)
  • 100 hour inspection
  • Altimeter inspection (every 24 calendar months)
  • Transponder inspection (every 24 calander months)
  • ELT inspection (Every 12 calendar months, 1 hour of use, 1/2 useful battery life)
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11
Q

How is the the acronym T.O.M.A.T.O .A. F.L.A.M.E.S. used and what does it stand for?

A

T.O.M.A.T.O .A. F.L.A.M.E.S. is used to identify the required equipment needed for VFR flight.

  • Tachometer
  • Oil pressure
  • Manifold pressure
  • Altimeter
  • Temperature gauge (engine)
  • Oil temperature gauge
  • Airspeed indicator
  • Fuel gauge
  • Landing gear and lights
  • Attitude indicator
  • Magnetic direction indicator
  • ELT
  • Seatbelts and Shoulder harness
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12
Q

How is the the acronym G.R.A.B. C.A.R.D. used and what does it stand for?

A

G.R.A.B. C.A.R.D. is used to identify the required equipment needed for IFR flight.

  • Gyros (attitude and heading)
  • Radio
  • Altimeter
  • Ball and skid indicator
  • Clock
  • Alternator of sufficient capacity
  • Rate of turn indicator
  • DME capabilities (if flying above 24,000’)
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13
Q

How is the the “3 Ps” used and what does it stand for?

A

Similar to P.A.V.E., the 3 Ps gives the pilot the major areas of concern to address for risk management.

  • Pilot
  • Plane
  • Passengers
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14
Q

What are the “5 Ts” and when is it used?

A

The 5 Ts are used when entering a hold or procedure turn and are listed in priority.

  1. Turn aircraft
  2. Twist OBS knob to inbound track
  3. Start Timer
  4. Adjust Throttle
  5. Talk to ATC
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15
Q

What are some of the major factors in Situational Awareness?

A
  • GPS capabilities
  • Magnetic compass errors
  • VFR airspace requirements
  • Supplemental oxygen
  • Hypoxia
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16
Q

What is hypoxia and what are the different types?

A

Hypoxia is lack of oxygen in the brain leading to decreasing performance and eventually death. It can be identified through slurred speech, loss of color vision, tunnel vision, blue coloration of lips or fingertips.

  • Hypoxic - Not enough air being breathed in (high altitudes)
  • Hydemic - Not enough air being transported by the blood (illness, dehydration)
  • Hystotoxic - Blood transporting toxins instead of oxygen (alcohol, drugs, medication)
  • Hypokinetic - Blood not able to transport oxygen to the brain due to kinetic causes (high G loads also known as “G-LOC”)
17
Q

What are the supplemental oxygen requirements?

A
  • 8,000’+ at night: Recomended for essential crewmembers
  • 12,500’+ for more than 30 minutes: Required for essential crewmembers
  • 14,000’+ : Required for all essential crewmembers
  • 15,000’+ : Required for all crewmembers and available for all passengers
18
Q

What are magnetic compass errors?

A

Error created due to the way magnets and the magnetic direction indicator works. The acronym V.D.M.O.N.A. helps identify the different types of errors.

  • Variation errors (can be found on VFR charts)
  • Deviation errors (from aircraft equipment)
  • Magnetic dip
  • Oscillation errors (from sudden movement or turbulance)
  • Northerly turning errors (U.N.O.S.)
  • Acceleration and deceleration errors (A.N.D.S.)

Acronyms like U.N.O.S. and A.N.D.S. help pilots remember how to compensate for those types of errors while navigating.

19
Q

What are northerly turning compass errors?

A

U.N. O.S.

  • Undershoot North turns
  • Overshoot South turns
20
Q

What are acceleration and deceleration compass errors?

A

A.N.D.S.

  • Accelerate Northerly displayed error on compass
  • Decelerate Southerly displayed error on compass
21
Q

What is Task Management?

A

Task Management is understanding when high workloads will be required of the pilot (such as the approach to landing) and practically managing the required tasks in order to reduce workload.

“Staying ahead of the aircraft”

22
Q

What is an acronym that can be used to assist with Task Management?

A

The “5 As” are used to prepare the pilot for the approach so that the workload is decreased while in the approach.

  1. Get ATIS for destination airport
  2. Update Altimeter setting
  3. Give Aproach brief
  4. Check Avionics
  5. Set approapriate Airspeed
23
Q

What is Automation Management?

A

With the increasing levels of automation available in modern cockpits the pilot must not be lulled into a sense of false security or complacency. The pilot should allow the automation to help reduce his workload but continue to monitor all aspects of automation to ensure it is performing as expected.

24
Q

What is CFIT?

A

Controlled Flight Into Terrain, CFIT can occur from a variety of pilot or controller induced factors, quite often related to miscommunication or misunderstanding responsibilities. The pilot should remember its their life on the line and take all necessary precautions to avoid CFIT situations.

25
Q

What are the VFR airspace limitations?

A
  • Class A - 3.CoC
  • Class B - 3.512
  • Class C - 3.512
  • Class D - 3.512
  • Class E - 5.111 over FL100 and 3.512 below FL100
  • Class G - 5.111 over FL100
    • Night: 3.512 below FL100
    • Day: 1.512 between FL100 and FL012
    • 1.CoC below FL012

(“3.152” or “5.111” can be explained as W.XYZ:

  • W= visibility in SM
  • X= clearance above clouds
  • Y= clearance blow clouds
  • Z= clearance laterally from clouds
  • “CoC” = Clear of Clouds
26
Q

What is the required equipment for each airspace?

A
  • Class A
  • Class B
  • Class C
  • Class D
  • Class E
  • Class G

IFR Oral Exam (5 decks)

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