SR4-AVN & Related Conditions Flashcards

1
Q
Which of the following names does not belong?
Avascular necrosis
Ischemic necrosis
Aseptic necrosis
Hemochromatosis
Osteonecrosis
Bone infarct
A

Hemochromatosis

Bone infarct is the same pathophysiologically, but it occurs in the metaphysis or diaphysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

List the two AVNs of the hip:

A

Legg-Calve-Perthe’s

Adult AVN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

AVN in the wrist? Two names

A
  1. Keinbock’s

2. Preiser’s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

AVN in the shoulder? (1)

A
  1. Hass’ disease
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Osteochondritis dissecans, SONK, and Blount’s disease are AVN of the ____

A

Knee

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Freiberg’s and Kohler’s are AVN of the ____

A

Foot

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

AVN in the spine? (1)

A

Scheuermann’s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Name the AVN:

  • Affects the capital epiphysis (femoral head) of children between 2 and 12
  • 3:1 Male predominance
  • Can be bilateral
  • Pain is presenting complaint, can refer to knee
  • Alteration of gait
A

LCP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

The measured distance between the inside of the acetabulum and the femoral epiphysis is called?

A

Tear-drop distance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

The line drawn on an x-ray along the medial femoral neck/shaft, that should line up nicely with the upper obturator foramen is called?

A

Shenton’s line

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

AVN of the lunate?

A

Keinbock’s disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

AVN of the scaphoid?

A

Preiser’s disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

The “feeder” vessel of the Scaphoid bone enters the middle (waist) of the bone and feeds proximal/distal?

A

Proximal (kind of backwards)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

AVN of the humeral head?

A

Haas’ Disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

___ affects the LATERAL portion (slope) of the medial femoral condyle, while ___ affects the MEDIAL portion (weight bearing) of the medial femoral condyle

A

Osteochondritis dissecans (OCD), Spontaneous Osteonecrosis of the Knee (SONK)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Tibial vara. Affects the medial growth plate, epiphysis, and metaphysis. Unknown cause

A

Blount’s Disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

An “infarction”. Causes flattening and fragmentation of the head of the metatarsal (usually 2nd)

A

Freiberg’s Disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

AVN of the navicular bone.

A

Kohler’s Disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Wavy, serpiginous calcifications, most common in the knee with the same risk factors as AVN. These occur in the metaphysis or diaphysis.

A

Medullary bone infarct

20
Q

A common DDX of medullary bone infarcts?

A

Enchondroma w/popcorn calcification

21
Q

A common type of soft tissue cancer, NOT common in bone. BUT pre-existing bone infarcts can give rise to this in bone.

A

Malignant Fibrous Histiocytoma (MFH)

22
Q

The “T and 6 S’s” for the risk factors of AVN are?

A
  1. Trauma
  2. Sickle cell anemia
  3. SLE
  4. Steroids
  5. Scuba divers
  6. Sterno abusers (alcoholics)
  7. Storage disease (Gaucher’s disease)
23
Q

The teardrop distance should be no more than __-__mm side-to-side

24
Q

Most common route of bone contamination?

A

Blood-borne (hematogenous) (infections spread!

25
Mandibular osteomyelitis from tooth infection is an example of what route of bone contamination?
Direct spread from contiguous source
26
A compound fracture is an example of ______, a route of bone contamination.
Direct implantation
27
Post-operative infection is an example of a ____ route of bone contamination.
Iatrogenic
28
90% of all bone and joint infections are caused by _____
Staphylococcus aureus (bacteria)
29
Osteomyelitis in children can look like what two bone tumors/conditions?
Ewing’s sarcoma, osteosarcoma
30
The radiographic features of acute osteomyelitis are similar to what?
Primary bone malignancy - permeative/moth eaten bone destruction - periosteal response - cortical destruction
31
A way to potentially differentiate osteomyelitis from a primary bone malignancy on x-ray is ___ of the fat/muscle interface (in osteomyelitis)
Blurring
32
A dead fragment of bone that is the source of re-infection unless removed
Sequestrum
33
Heavy periosteal new bone surrounding infection
Involucrum
34
A channel that develops due to pressure so that pus can escape
Cloaca
35
Subacute osteomyelitis: a smoldering infection that doesn’t get better or worse. Due to low virulence of the organism and/or good immunity of the host. What is this called?
Brodie’s Abscess
36
DDX for Brodie’s Abscess?
Osteoid Osteoma
37
This can happen secondary to chronic osteomyelitis with a draining sinus (smells). Skin cancer tracks down the sinus into the bone
Epidermoid Carcinoma (poor prognosis)
38
An organism deposits in vertebral endplate and quickly spreads to the disc causing “discitis”
Spinal osteomyelitis
39
Radiographic signs: - loss of disc height - ill-defined endplates w/erosions - soft tissue swelling (where applicable)
Spinal Osteomyelitis
40
T/F: The “Vacuum Phenomenon” which sometimes shows up in the discs of patient’s w/DDD will also occasionally show up in patients w/spinal osteomyelitis
FALSE
41
Are osteophytes and subchondral sclerosis seen in both DDD and spinal osteomyelitis?
No, just DDD
42
There is a classification system in endplate changes due to infection called?
Modic Changes
43
There are 3 types of Modic changes. Initially water/liquid shows up on T1 as LOW signal, and T2 as HIGH signal. Which type of Modic change?
Type 1
44
Modic type 2 shows up HIGH T1 and HIGH T2 and is due to ____
Fat
45
Modic 3 shows up as LOW T1 and LOW T2, and is due to _____
Bone (marble)
46
Which phase of Modic changes can be captured on plain film?
3 (bone)