SR4-AVN & Related Conditions Flashcards

1
Q
Which of the following names does not belong?
Avascular necrosis
Ischemic necrosis
Aseptic necrosis
Hemochromatosis
Osteonecrosis
Bone infarct
A

Hemochromatosis

Bone infarct is the same pathophysiologically, but it occurs in the metaphysis or diaphysis

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2
Q

List the two AVNs of the hip:

A

Legg-Calve-Perthe’s

Adult AVN

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3
Q

AVN in the wrist? Two names

A
  1. Keinbock’s

2. Preiser’s

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4
Q

AVN in the shoulder? (1)

A
  1. Hass’ disease
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5
Q

Osteochondritis dissecans, SONK, and Blount’s disease are AVN of the ____

A

Knee

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6
Q

Freiberg’s and Kohler’s are AVN of the ____

A

Foot

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7
Q

AVN in the spine? (1)

A

Scheuermann’s

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8
Q

Name the AVN:

  • Affects the capital epiphysis (femoral head) of children between 2 and 12
  • 3:1 Male predominance
  • Can be bilateral
  • Pain is presenting complaint, can refer to knee
  • Alteration of gait
A

LCP

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9
Q

The measured distance between the inside of the acetabulum and the femoral epiphysis is called?

A

Tear-drop distance

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10
Q

The line drawn on an x-ray along the medial femoral neck/shaft, that should line up nicely with the upper obturator foramen is called?

A

Shenton’s line

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11
Q

AVN of the lunate?

A

Keinbock’s disease

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12
Q

AVN of the scaphoid?

A

Preiser’s disease

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13
Q

The “feeder” vessel of the Scaphoid bone enters the middle (waist) of the bone and feeds proximal/distal?

A

Proximal (kind of backwards)

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14
Q

AVN of the humeral head?

A

Haas’ Disease

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15
Q

___ affects the LATERAL portion (slope) of the medial femoral condyle, while ___ affects the MEDIAL portion (weight bearing) of the medial femoral condyle

A

Osteochondritis dissecans (OCD), Spontaneous Osteonecrosis of the Knee (SONK)

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16
Q

Tibial vara. Affects the medial growth plate, epiphysis, and metaphysis. Unknown cause

A

Blount’s Disease

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17
Q

An “infarction”. Causes flattening and fragmentation of the head of the metatarsal (usually 2nd)

A

Freiberg’s Disease

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18
Q

AVN of the navicular bone.

A

Kohler’s Disease

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19
Q

Wavy, serpiginous calcifications, most common in the knee with the same risk factors as AVN. These occur in the metaphysis or diaphysis.

A

Medullary bone infarct

20
Q

A common DDX of medullary bone infarcts?

A

Enchondroma w/popcorn calcification

21
Q

A common type of soft tissue cancer, NOT common in bone. BUT pre-existing bone infarcts can give rise to this in bone.

A

Malignant Fibrous Histiocytoma (MFH)

22
Q

The “T and 6 S’s” for the risk factors of AVN are?

A
  1. Trauma
  2. Sickle cell anemia
  3. SLE
  4. Steroids
  5. Scuba divers
  6. Sterno abusers (alcoholics)
  7. Storage disease (Gaucher’s disease)
23
Q

The teardrop distance should be no more than __-__mm side-to-side

A

1-2

24
Q

Most common route of bone contamination?

A

Blood-borne (hematogenous) (infections spread!

25
Q

Mandibular osteomyelitis from tooth infection is an example of what route of bone contamination?

A

Direct spread from contiguous source

26
Q

A compound fracture is an example of ______, a route of bone contamination.

A

Direct implantation

27
Q

Post-operative infection is an example of a ____ route of bone contamination.

A

Iatrogenic

28
Q

90% of all bone and joint infections are caused by _____

A

Staphylococcus aureus (bacteria)

29
Q

Osteomyelitis in children can look like what two bone tumors/conditions?

A

Ewing’s sarcoma, osteosarcoma

30
Q

The radiographic features of acute osteomyelitis are similar to what?

A

Primary bone malignancy

  • permeative/moth eaten bone destruction
  • periosteal response
  • cortical destruction
31
Q

A way to potentially differentiate osteomyelitis from a primary bone malignancy on x-ray is ___ of the fat/muscle interface (in osteomyelitis)

A

Blurring

32
Q

A dead fragment of bone that is the source of re-infection unless removed

A

Sequestrum

33
Q

Heavy periosteal new bone surrounding infection

A

Involucrum

34
Q

A channel that develops due to pressure so that pus can escape

A

Cloaca

35
Q

Subacute osteomyelitis: a smoldering infection that doesn’t get better or worse. Due to low virulence of the organism and/or good immunity of the host. What is this called?

A

Brodie’s Abscess

36
Q

DDX for Brodie’s Abscess?

A

Osteoid Osteoma

37
Q

This can happen secondary to chronic osteomyelitis with a draining sinus (smells). Skin cancer tracks down the sinus into the bone

A

Epidermoid Carcinoma (poor prognosis)

38
Q

An organism deposits in vertebral endplate and quickly spreads to the disc causing “discitis”

A

Spinal osteomyelitis

39
Q

Radiographic signs:

  • loss of disc height
  • ill-defined endplates w/erosions
  • soft tissue swelling (where applicable)
A

Spinal Osteomyelitis

40
Q

T/F: The “Vacuum Phenomenon” which sometimes shows up in the discs of patient’s w/DDD will also occasionally show up in patients w/spinal osteomyelitis

A

FALSE

41
Q

Are osteophytes and subchondral sclerosis seen in both DDD and spinal osteomyelitis?

A

No, just DDD

42
Q

There is a classification system in endplate changes due to infection called?

A

Modic Changes

43
Q

There are 3 types of Modic changes. Initially water/liquid shows up on T1 as LOW signal, and T2 as HIGH signal. Which type of Modic change?

A

Type 1

44
Q

Modic type 2 shows up HIGH T1 and HIGH T2 and is due to ____

A

Fat

45
Q

Modic 3 shows up as LOW T1 and LOW T2, and is due to _____

A

Bone (marble)

46
Q

Which phase of Modic changes can be captured on plain film?

A

3 (bone)