Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Hema Lec > SQs Leukocyte Disorders > Flashcards

SQs Leukocyte Disorders Flashcards

1
Q

Inherited leukocyte disorders caused by a mutation in the lamin B receptor.

A

Pelger-Huet anomaly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Inherited leukocyte disorder that is one of a group of disorders with mutations in nonmuscle myosin heavy-chain IIA.

A

May-Hegglin anomaly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Inherited leukocyte disorders that might be seen in Hurler syndrome.

A

Alder-Reilly anomaly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

A lysosomal storage disease characterized by macrophages with striated cytoplasm and storage of glucocerebroside.

A

Gaucher disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

The neutrophils in chronic granulomatous disease are incapable of producing:

A

Hydrogen peroxide
Hypochlorite
Superoxide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Individuals with X-linked SCID have a mutation that affects their ability to synthesize:

A

IL-2 receptor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

An absolute lymphocytosis with reactive lymphocytes suggests what condition?

A

Viral infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What leukocyte cytoplasmic inclusion is composed of ribosomal RNA?

A

Dohle bodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

The expected complete blood count results for women in active labor would include:

A

High total WBC count with a slight shift to the left in neutrophils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Which is true of an absolute increase in lymphocytes with reactive morphology?

a. The population of lymphocytes appears morphologically homogeneous.

b. They are usually effector B cells.

c. The reactive lymphocytes have increased cytoplasm with variable basophilia.

d. They are most commonly seen in bacterial infections.

A

C. The reactive lymphocytes have increased cytoplasm with variable basophilia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Leukocytosis can be caused by

a. increased movement of immature cells out of the bone marrow’s proliferative compartment

b. increased mobilization of granulocytes from the maturation-storage compartment

c. increased movement of granulocytes from the marginating pool to the circulating pool

A

All of the choices (hehe)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Neutrophilia can be related to a variety of conditions or disorders. Select the appropriate conditions.

a. surgery
b. burns
c. stress

A

All of the choices

Surgery
Burns (tissue necrosis)
Stress (physiologic)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Charcot-Leyden crystals can be found in the ff. of patients with active eosinophilic inflammation, except:

a. sputum
b. tissues
c. stool
d. AOTC
e. NOTC

A

None of the choices.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Monocytosis can be observed in

a. tuberculosis
b. fever of unknown origin
c. rheumatoid arthritis
d. AOTC
e. NOTC

A

All of the choices

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Neutropenia can be observed in the ff., except:

a. bone marrow injury
b. nutritional deficiency
c. increased destruction and utilization
d. AOTC
e. NOTC

A

None of the choices

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Indicate the abnormality based on the characteristic stated below:

Precipitated mucopolysaccharides

A

Alder-Reilly inclusions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Indicate the abnormality based on the characteristic stated below:

Gigantic peroxidase-positive deposits

A

Chediak-Higashi syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Indicate the abnormality based on the characteristic stated below:

Single or multiple pale-blue staining inclusions

A

Dohle body inclusions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Indicate the abnormality based on the characteristic stated below:

Dohle body-like inclusions

A

May-Hegglin anomaly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What abnormality is being described:

Failure of the nucleus to segment/decreased nuclear segmentation

A

Pelger-Huet anomaly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What abnormality is being described:

Dark blue-black precipitates of RNA

A

Toxic granulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What abnormality is being described:

Five or more nuclear segments

A

hypersegmentation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What abnormality is being described by the following condition:

Associated with frequent infections in children or young adults

A

Chediak-Higashi syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What abnormality is being described by the following condition:

Associated with viral infections and burns

A

Dohle Bodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What abnormality is being described by the following condition:

May be related to a maturational arrest in some acute infections

A

Pelger-Huet anomaly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What abnormality is being described by the following condition:

Associated with a deficiency of vitamin B12 or folic acid

A

Hypersegmentation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is the appropriate cell type involved in this disorder:

Gaucher disease

A. Neutrophilic series
B. Monocytic-macrophagic series

A

Monocytic-macrophagic series

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is the appropriate cell type involved in this disorder:

Niemann-pick disease

A. Neutrophilic series
B. Monocytic-macrophagic series

A

Monocytic-macrophagic series

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is the appropriate cell type involved in this disorder:

Chediak-higashi syndrome

A. Neutrophilic series
B. Monocytic-macrophagic series

A

Neutrophilic series

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is the appropriate cell type involved in this disorder:

Chronic granulomatous disease

A. Neutrophilic series
B. Monocytic-macrophagic series

A

Neutrophilic series

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is the appropriate cell type involved in this disorder:

Lazy leukocyte syndrome

A. Neutrophilic series
B. Monocytic-macrophagic series

A

Neutrophilic series

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Gaucher cells have

a. wrinkled cytoplasm
b. one to three nuclei
c. a deficiency of B-glucocerebrosidase

A

All of the choices :)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

A peripheral blood film that shows increased neutrophils, basophils, eosinophils, and platelets is highly suggestive of __________.

A

Chronic Myelogenous Leukemia (CML)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What chromosome abnormality is associated with CML?

A

t (9;22)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

A patient has a WBC count of 30x10^9/L and the following WBC differential:

Segmented neutrophils: 38%
Bands: 17%
Metamyelocytes: 7%
Myelocytes: 20%
Promyelocytes: 10%
Eosinophils: 3%
Basophils: 5%

What test would be helpful in determining whether the patient has CML?

A

Fish positive for BCR/ABL1 fusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

A patient in whom CML has previously been diagnosed has circulating blasts and promyelocytes that total 30% of leukocytes. The disease is considered to be in what phase?

A

Transformation to acute leukemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

The most common mutation found in patients with primary polycythemia vera (PV) is:

A

JAK2 V617F

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

The peripheral blood in polycythemia vera (PV) typically manifests:

A

erythrocytosis, thrombocytosis, and granulocytosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

A patient has a platelet count of 700x10^9/L with abnormalities in the size, shape, and granularity of platelets; a WBC count of 12x10^9/L; and hemoglobin of 11g/dL. The philadelphia chromosome is not present. The most likely diagnosis is:

A

Essential Thrombocythemia (ET)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Complications of essential thrombocythemia include all of the following except:

a. thrombosis
b. hemorrhage
c. seizures
d. infections

A

d. infections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Which of the following patterns is a characteristic of the peripheral blood in patients with PMF?

a. Teardrop-shaped erythrocytes, nucleated, RBCs, immature granulocytes

b. abnormal platelets only

c. Hypochromic erythrocytes, immature granulocytes, and normal platelets

d. Spherocytes, immature granulocytes, and increased number of platelets

A

A. Teardrop-shaped erythrocytes, nucleated RBCs, immature granulocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

The myelofibrosis associated with PMF is a result of:

A

Enhanced activity of fibroblasts owing to increased stimulatory cytokines.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

The most characteristic morphological features of variant lymphocytes include:

a. increased overall size, possibly 1 to 3 nucleoli, and abundant cytoplasm

b. increased overall size, round nucleus, and increased granulation in the cytoplasm

c. segmented nucleus, light-blue cytoplasm, and no nucleoli

d. enlarged nucleus, six to eight nucleoli, and dark-blue cytoplasm

A

a. increased overall size, possibly 1 to 3 nucleoli, and abundant cytoplasm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Match the following with the given choices:

Rieder cells

A. Niemann-pick disease and burkitt lymphoma
B. CLL
C. Leukosarcoma
D. Natural artifact

A

B. CLL (Chronic Lymphogenous Leukemia)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Match the following with the given choices:

Vacuolated lymphocytes

A. Niemann-pick disease and burkitt lymphoma
B. CLL
C. Leukosarcoma
D. Natural artifact

A

A. Niemann-pick disease and burkitt lymphoma (plus tay sachs disease and hurley syndrome)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Match the following with the given choices:

Crystalline inclusions

A. Niemann-pick disease and burkitt lymphoma
B. CLL
C. Leukosarcoma
D. Natural artifact

A

C. Leukosarcoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Match the following with the given choices:

Smudge cells

A. Niemann-pick disease and burkitt lymphoma
B. CLL
C. Leukosarcoma
D. Natural artifact

A

D. natural artifact

Also usually seen in CLL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

T cells are

A. lymphocytes
B. monocytes
C. helper or suppressor types
D. Both A and C

A

D. Lymphocytes & Helper or Suppressor Types

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

B cells are

A. lymphocytes
B. associated with antigen recognition
C. found in thymus and bone marrow
D. AOTC

A

All of the choices

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

NK cells are classified as

A. macrophages
B. monocytes
C. effector lymphocytes
D. K-type lymphocytes

A

C. effector lymphocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Which of the ff. statements is (are) true of T cells?

A. Responsible for humoral responses
B. Responsible for cellular immune responses
C. Responsible for chronic rejection in organ transplantation
D. Both A and B
E. Both B and C

A

E. Both B and C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Which of the ff. statements is (are) true of B cells?

A. Responsible for antibody responses
B. Protect against intracellular pathogens
C. Responsible for chronic rejection in transplantation
D. Both A and B

A

A. Responsible for antibody responses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

According to the WHO classification, except in leukemias with specific genetic anomalies, the minimal percentage of blasts necessary for a diagnosis of acute leukemia is:

A

20%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Sudan Black B stains what component of the cell?

A

Lipids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

MDSs (Myelodysplastic Syndromes) are common in which age group?

A

Older than 50 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What is a major indication of MDS in the peripheral blood and bone marrow?

A

Dyspoiesis (hematopoiesis is ineffective)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

An alert hematologist should recognize all of the following peripheral blood abnormalities as diagnostic clues in MDS except:

a. Oval macrocytes
b. Target cells
c. Agranular neutrophils
d. Circulating micromegakaryocytes

A

b. Target cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

For an erythroid precursor to be considered a ring sideroblast, the iron-laden mitochondira must encircle how much of the nucleus?

A

1/3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

According to the WHO classification of MDS, what percentage of blasts would constitute transformation to an acute leukemia?

A

20%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

A patient has anemia, oval macrocytes, and hypersegmented neutrophils. Which of the following tests would be most efficient in differential diagnosis of this disorder?

A

Vitamin B12 and folate levels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Which of the following is least likely to contribute to the death of patients with MDS?

a. neutropenia
b. thrombocytopenia
c. organ failure
d. neuropathy

A

neuropathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

In what other hematologic disease does MDS often convert?

A

AML

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Chronic myelomonocytic leukemia is classified in the WHO system as:

A

MDS/MPN

64
Q

In most cases, the diagnosis of lymphoma relies on all of the ff. except:

a. Microscopic examination of affected lymph nodes

b. Immunophenotyping using immunohistochemistry or flow cytometry

c. Molecular or cytogenetic analysis

d. Peripheral blood examination and a complete blood count

A

d. Peripheral blood examination and a complete blood count

65
Q

The most common lymphoma occurring in young adults is:

A

Hodgkin lymphoma

66
Q

In a normal lymph node, the medulla includes predominantly:

A

Plasma cells

67
Q

The t(11;14) is the defining feature of:

A

Mantle cell lymphoma

68
Q

The immunophenotype of mycosis fungoides is:

A

An abnormal T cell immunophenotype with expression of CD4 and loss of CD7 antigen

69
Q

What is the major morphologic difference between Hodgkin lymphoma and other B cell lymphomas?

A

The presence of numerous reactive lymphocytes and only a few malignant cells in Hodgkin lymphoma

70
Q

Which morphologic diagnosis has to be confirmed with molecular studies demonstrating the presence of t(8;14)?

A

Burkitt lymphoma

71
Q

What is the function of the germinal center?

A

Generation of B cells producing immunoglobulins with the highest affinity for a particular antigen through the process of somatic mutation

72
Q

Marked paracortical expansion is most commonly seen in:

A

Dermatopathic lymphadenopathy

73
Q

Monoclonal gammopathy of undetermined significance (MGUS) is best described as:

A

The presence of monoclonal immunoglobulin in serum with only mild bone marrow plasmacytosis

74
Q

Lymphocytopenia means

A

a total decrease in lymphocytes

75
Q

The helper subset of T lymphocytes is _________ in AIDS

a. increased
b. decreased
c. not altered

A

b. decreased

76
Q

Match the given disorder with the following choices.

Radiation exposure

A. lymphocytosis
b. lymphocytopenia

A

B. lymphocytopenia

77
Q

Match the given disorder with the following choices.

Infectious mononucleosis

A. lymphocytosis
b. lymphocytopenia

A

A. lymphocytosis

78
Q

Match the given disorder with the following choices.

Cytotoxic drugs

A. lymphocytosis
b. lymphocytopenia

A

b. lymphocytopenia

79
Q

Match the given disorder with the following choices.

Whooping cough

A. lymphocytosis
b. lymphocytopenia

A

A. lymphocytosis

80
Q

Match the given disorder with the following choices.

Immune deficiency disorders

A. lymphocytosis
b. lymphocytopenia

A

b. lymphocytopenia

81
Q

Match the given disorder with the following choices.

Toxoplasmosis

A. lymphocytosis
b. lymphocytopenia

A

a. lymphocytosis

82
Q

Which of the following characterizes infectious lymphocytes?

a. an adult disorder
b. leukocytopenia in the early stages
c. lymphocyte differential counts over 95%
d. lymphoblasts on the peripheral blood smear

A

c. lymphocyte differential counts over 95%

83
Q

AIDS is caused by

A

HIV-1

84
Q

A definition of leukemia could include

a. an overproduction of leukocytes
b. solid, malignant tumors of the lymph nodes
c. malignant cells trespass the blood-brain barrier
d. both A and C
e. AOTC

A

d. both A and C

85
Q

Descriptive terms for most lymphomas can include

a. a nonneoplastic proliferative disease
b. a solid malignant tumor of the lymph nodes
c. a lymphocytopenia
d. freely trespassing the blood-brain barrier

A

b. a solid malignant tumor of the lymph nodes

86
Q

An acute leukemia can be described as being

A

of short duration with many immature leukocyte forms in the peripheral blood

87
Q

The etiological agents of leukemias can include

a. ionizing radiation
b. certain infectious agents
c. chemical exposure to benzene
d. AOTC

A

d. All of the choices

88
Q

HIV is associated with

A

AIDS

89
Q

The incidence of leukemia is higher in _______.

A

Scandinavian versus Japanese populations

90
Q

Which of the following are typical characteristics of an acute leukemia?

a. replacement of normal marrow elements by leukocytic blasts and bleeding episodes
b. blasts and immature leukocyte forms in the peripheral blood and anemia
c. leukocytosis

A

All of the choices :)

91
Q

Match the type of leukemia with its FAB classifications

Myeloid and monocytic

A

M4

92
Q

Match the type of leukemia with its FAB classifications

Monocytic

A

M5

93
Q

Match the type of leukemia with its FAB classifications

Myeloid without maturation

A

M1

94
Q

Match the type of leukemia with its FAB classifications

Lymphoblastic (one cell population)

A

L1

95
Q

Characteristics of FAB M1 include …

A

Leukocytosis without maturation of the myeloid cell line in the peripheral blood

96
Q

The incidence of FAB M1 is high in _______.

A

children younger than 18 months of age and middle-aged adults

97
Q

Match the following predominant peripheral blood cell morphological appearances with its FAB classification

A mixture of myeloid and monocytic blasts

A

FAB M4

98
Q

Match the following predominant peripheral blood cell morphological appearances with its FAB classification

Blasts of the monocytic type

A

FAB M5

99
Q

Match the following predominant peripheral blood cell morphological appearances with its FAB classification

Many coarsely granular promyelocytes with dumbbell-shaped or bilobed nuclei

A

FAB M3

100
Q

Match the following predominant peripheral blood cell morphological appearances with its FAB classification

Myeloblasts, promyelocytes, and myelocytes

A

FAB M2

101
Q

Match the following predominant peripheral blood cell morphological appearances with its FAB classification

Immature leukocytic and erythrocytic cell types

A

FAB M6

102
Q

FAB classification:

Leukemia secondary to burkitt lymphoma

A

FAB L3

103
Q

FAB classification:

Childhood lymphoblastic leukemia

A

FAB L1

104
Q

FAB classification:

Older children and adults

A

FAB L2

105
Q

Chloromas are associated with

A

FAB M1

106
Q

A common characteristic of ALL is

A

bone and joint pain

107
Q

Chromosomal alterations with the appropriate FAB type:

t(15q+;17q)

A

FAB M3

108
Q

Chromosomal alterations with the appropriate FAB type:

t(8q-;21q+)

A

FAB M2

109
Q

Chromosomal alterations with the appropriate FAB type:

t(9;22)

A

FAB ALL

110
Q

Cytochemical stain with the appropriate constituent:

Sudan black B

A

Lipids

111
Q

Cytochemical stain with the appropriate constituent:

Myeloperoxidase

A

Enzymes

112
Q

Cytochemical stain with the appropriate constituent:

PAS

A

Glycogen

113
Q

The Sudan Black B cytochemical stain differentiates

A

acute myeloid from ALL

114
Q

Myeloperoxidase differentiates

A

acute myelomonocytic from acute monocytic leukemia

115
Q

The PAS reaction is

A

positive in the neutrophilic granulocytes, except blasts

116
Q

Esterase (naphthol AS-D chloracetate) differentiates

A

granulocytic (promyelocytic to segmented neutrophils) from the monocytic line

117
Q

In the nonspecific esterase staining reaction, the cells of monocytic origin are

A

strongly positive

118
Q

Specific nature B-cell surface marker(s) membrane is

A

CD 79a, CD19, CD20

119
Q

Patients with AML have a good prognosis is

A

Less than 45 years of age
Over rods are present in blast cells
Ph chromosome

120
Q

The most common form of chronic leukemia in Western countries is

A

lymphocytic

121
Q

CLL is classically a

A

null cell disorder

122
Q

CLL symptoms frequently include

A

absolute lymphocytosis, malaise, and low-grade fever

123
Q

Characteristics of malignant lymphoma typically include

A

Overproliferation of lymphoctes and lymph node involvement

124
Q

A lymphoma characterized by Reed-Sternberg cells and occurs more frequently in males than in females

A

Hodgkin disease

125
Q

Rare forms of lymphoma

A

Non-hodgkin lymphoma and mycosis fungoides

126
Q

A disorder of plasma cells

A

multiple myeloma

127
Q

The abnormal protein frequently found in the urine of persons with multiple myeloma is

A

Bence jones

128
Q

Waldenstrom macroglobulinemia is characterized by increased levels of

A

IgM

129
Q

What cluster designations are positive in typical HCL?

A

CD25, CD22, CD19, CD20

130
Q

Myeloproliferative neoplasms are characterized by all of the following except

a. clonal disorders
b. they may evolve into acute leukemia
c. initial increase of immature cells
d. increased production of mature cells

A

c. initial increase of immature cells

131
Q

In CML, the total leukocyte count is

A

extremely increased

132
Q

Primary myelofibrosis differs from other types of MPN in which of the following ways?

A

Marrow fibrosis is greatly increased

133
Q

A remarkable characteristic of PV compared with other types of MPNs

A

Extremely increased erythrocyte mass

134
Q

Predominant feature of essential thrombocythemia compared with other types of MPNs

A

extremely increased number of platelets

135
Q

In MPN, the test results of disorders of hemostasis and coagulation that are most likely to be abnormal are:

A

Increased APTT, decreased factor V level, and increased concentration of antithrombin III in many

136
Q

Interferon alfa has been shown to

A

suppress proliferation of hematopoietic progenitor cells

137
Q

A leukemia of long duration that affects the neutrophilic granulocytes is referred to as

A

CML

138
Q

The alkaline phosphatase cytochemical staining reaction is used to differentiate between

A

CML and severe bacterial infections

139
Q

Patients with the initial phase of CML are prone to

A

low-grade fevers, night sweats, and splenic infarction

140
Q

The total leukocyte count in CML usually is ______x10^9/L

A

> 50

141
Q

The philadelphia chromosome is typically associated with

A

CML

142
Q

Patients with PV suffer from

A

hypervolemia

143
Q

Hyperviscosity can produce

A

dizziness

144
Q

The major criteria for diagnosis of PV include all of the following except

a. increased red blood cell mass
b. presence of JAK2V617F
c. hypercellular bone marrow
d. splenomegaly

A

d. splenomegaly

145
Q

Increased blood viscosity in patients with PV can cause a dangerous condition of

A

vascular occlusion

146
Q

The level of erythropoietin in the urine is ________ in patients with PV compared with other kinds of polycythemia

A

decreased

147
Q

Patients with PV demonstrate an _________ of hemosiderin in the bone marrow

A

absence

148
Q

Life expectancy after diagnosis of treated patients with PV

A

More than 10 years

149
Q

Primary treatment for PV

A

therapeutic phlebotomy

150
Q

Primary myelofibrosis is also called

A

agnogenic myeloid metaplasia

151
Q

Incidence of primary myelofibrosis is known to increased after exposure to

A

benzene

152
Q

Predominant clinical manifestation of primary myelofibrosis

A

anemia, splenomegaly, medullary fibrosis

153
Q

Most constant feature of primary myelofibrosis

A

dysmegakaryocytopoiesis

154
Q

Least common form of MPN

A

essential thrombocythemia

155
Q

Major criterion for the diagnosis of essential thrombocythemia

A

persistent increase of platelets in the peripheral blood

156
Q

Most common disorder in patients with essential thrombocythemia

A

neurological manifestations

157
Q

The bone marrow architecture in essential thrombocythemia is similar to the architecture seen in

A

CML

Hema Lec (2 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions