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LS2 > SQ1 > Flashcards

SQ1 Flashcards

1
Q

Presentation silver report is required how often for sets below $90k.

A

Biennial

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2
Q

Presentation silver report is required how often for all sets appraised at $90k or more.

A

Annually

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3
Q

When is Presentation Silver to be inventoried?

A

15 FEB 20__ - 15MAR 20__

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4
Q

How often is a SIM/DBI material (AT-4) inventory to be completed?

A

Semi-Annual

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5
Q

How often are DLR’s to be inventoried?

A

Annually

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6
Q

How often is Classified material to be inventoried?

A

Annually

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7
Q

How often is Hazardous (HAZMAT) inventoried?

A

Annually

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8
Q

Who is responsible for the storage, security and inventory control of all stock material in his/her custody?

A

Supply Officer

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9
Q

Type I shelf life material is extendable or non-extendable?

A

Non-extendable

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10
Q

Type II shelf life material is extendable or non-extendable?

A

Extendable

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11
Q

Quality Deficiency Report (QDR)

A

Standard Form 368

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12
Q

Government Bill of Lading (GBL)

A

Standard Form 1103

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13
Q

Report of Discrepancy (ROD)

A

Standard Form 364

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14
Q

All material not dangerous within themselves

A

Grey

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15
Q

As set forth by the CNO, the Fleet Issue Load List (FILL) is computed to satisfy how many percentage of the forecasted demands of the deployed unit for a how many day period.

A

85%

90 day

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16
Q

What Form is a Ships Configuration Change?

A

OPNAV form 4790/CK

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17
Q

What Form is an Allowance Change Request?

A

NAVSUP Form 1220-2

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18
Q

What 60% of line items in the Supply System are managed by DLA?

A

9Q

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19
Q

When a ship is required to off-load bulk propulsion fuel, what for will be prepared to document the transaction?

A

DD Form 1149

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20
Q

CBR clothing over what age will be considered for use in training operations or turned into the nearest supply activity ashore for disposal?

A

10 years

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21
Q

Transfers between forces afloat normally are made on what form?

A

DD Form 1348

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22
Q

Upon receipt of a DD Form 1348 or NAVSUP Form 1250-1 from another ship, the transferring ship prepares what form to document an inter-ship transfer of material?

A

DD Form 1348-1A

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23
Q

How many different segments are there in the Expenditure log and what are they?

A

2 DLR and non DLR

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24
Q

How long are expenditure log files kept for?

A

3 years

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25
Q

What Shore Activity is RFI DLR turned into?

A

Material Turn-in Ashore (MTIS)

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26
Q

What for is the DD Form 1384?

A

Transportation Control & Movement Document (TCMD)

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27
Q

When safes or safe lockers with combination locks are turned in to shore, transferred to another ship, or the custodian is relieved, the combination for each item will be reset to what?

A

50-25-50

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28
Q

What is the form number of the CARGO Manifest Recapitulation?

A

DD Form 1386-1

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29
Q

Who is required to sign receipts for material accepted as freight?

A

Supply Officer

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30
Q

What is defined as material received aboard Naval ships, as cargo, for shipment of a specified consignee at another location?

A

Freight

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31
Q

What is an CNAF 4790/109?

A

Department of the Navy Aircraft Inventory Record

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32
Q

What is an CNAF 4790/110?

A

Aircraft Inventory Record

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33
Q

What is an CNAF 4790/111?

A

Aircraft Inventory Record (Equipment List)

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34
Q

What is an CNAF 4790/112?

A

Aircraft Inventory Record (Shortages)

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35
Q

What is an CNAF 4790/104?

A

Aircraft Inventory Record Certification and Record Transfer

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36
Q

Classification of Personal Effects

A

(1) Navy Owned
(2) Navy Issued
(3) Money
(4) Negotiable and Non-negotiable
(5) Miscellaneous

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37
Q

What is the NAVSUP Form 29?

A

Personal Effects Inventory Form

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38
Q

Personal Effects are shipped on what form?

A

DD Form 1149

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39
Q

Personal Effects for an absentee or deserters will be kept for how many days .

A

181

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40
Q

All combinations on keyless padlocks will be changed at least how often?

A

Every 6 months

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41
Q

What movement, including turn-in of material from the custody and records of one ship to the custody and records of another ship or shore activity?

A

Transfer

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42
Q

What is the movement of material within ship to the end user?

A

Issue

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43
Q

What movement physically moves material off ship?

A

Transfer

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44
Q

This type of expenditure expends unusable/ un-repairable items from records and documents disposition?

A

Survey

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45
Q

What are the four types of expenditures?

A

Transfer, Issue, Survey’s and Cash Sales

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46
Q

What is the dollar amount (threshold) for micro-purchases?

A

$2,500.00

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47
Q

What is the Simplified Acquisition Threshold in CONUS/out CONUS?

A

100,000.00(in) $200,000.00(out)

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48
Q

What term defines the spending limit imposed on a cardholder’s cumulative purchase and transactions in a giving billing cycle?

A

Billing cycle purchases limit

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49
Q

How are billing cycle purchase limits assigned to cardholders?

A

(AO) Approving Official

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50
Q

Who may determine who the approving officials and cardholders shall be?

A

(APC’s) Agency Program Coordinator (normally SUPPO’s)

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51
Q

Who’s responsible for reviewing his/her cardholders monthly statements and verifying the purchases were for official government purpose?

A

(AO) Approving Official

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52
Q

What fund code is used for requisitions of initial outfitting material for all units with service designator code “R”?

A

RO

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53
Q

What fund code is used for requisitions of initial outfitting material for all units with service designator code “V”?

A

VO

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54
Q

Is appropriation purchase account (APA) material chargeable or non-chargeable to ships OPTAR?

A

Non-chargeable

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55
Q

When will ships force OPTAR holders submit detail unfilled order (obligation) documents?

A

Twice a month (15th and end of month)

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56
Q

Requisition and invoice shipping document?

A

DD Form 1149

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57
Q

Order for work and services?

A

NAVCOMPT Form 2275

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58
Q

Request for contractual procurement?

A

NAVCOMPT Form 2276

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59
Q

OPTAR Document transmittal report?

A

NAVCOMPT Form 2156

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60
Q

Budget/OPTAR report?

A

NAVCOMPT Form 2157

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61
Q

Request and authorization for TDY travel of DOD personnel?

A

DD Form 1610

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62
Q

What is done with the expenditures listed in the threshold charge addendum portion for the SFOEDL?

A

Will be accepted without challenge

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63
Q

What is column 21 of the BOR MSG?

A

Fund Code

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64
Q

What is column 22 of the BOR MSG?

A

Gross Obligations

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65
Q

What is column 23 of the BOR MSG?

A

Differences

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66
Q

What is column 24 of the BOR MSG?

A

Adjusted Obligations

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67
Q

Who retains the detail filled order expenditure listing?

A

Fleet Accounting Office

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68
Q

What is the purpose of the detail filled order expenditure listing?

A

Is for back up and audit trail purposes only

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69
Q

The Unfilled Order Listing (UOL) lists unfilled orders (obligations) more than how many months old?

A

3 months

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70
Q

Does the SNAP II system support reimbursable OPTARs?

A

NO

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71
Q

Of the three holding files, which one is no longer used and why?

A

Holding file 3, The listings are to be sent directly to the fleet accounting office as soon as they have been processed

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72
Q

How will chargeable requisitions submitted for continuing receipts of commodities and services be coded in the quantity block of the unfilled order document?

A

C9999

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73
Q

If there are no documents in holding file 1 or 2 what will be done with the OPTAR Document Transmittal Report 2156?

A

Skip it

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74
Q

Why should OPTAR holders thoroughly investigate before rejecting differences of $3,000.00 or greater?

A

These expenditures were validated by the fleet accounting officer prior to being listed

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75
Q

What name is given to a copy of a requisition for material or services, which is “chargeable” to the OPTAR and is also referred to as an obligation within the operating forces accounting system?

A

Unfilled Order Document

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76
Q

If a requirement still exists after the appropriation cited has lapsed, after the 3rd year the expenditure will be charged to the cited appropriations successor what account?

A

M account

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77
Q

What is contained in holding file ONE?

A

Unfilled Order chargeable documents

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78
Q

What is contained in holding file TWO?

A

Confirmed Cancellation documents

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79
Q

What is contained in holding file THREE?

A

Returned to the Fleet Accounting Office

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80
Q

What 2 NAVSUP forms may be used as an issued document by non-stock funded ships or units as a non-chargeable internal request for material previously purchased to be issued to requesting departments?

A

NAVSUP 1250-1 and NAVSUP 1250-2

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81
Q

How often are prior FY OPTARs reported?

A

Monthly, only if transactions have occurred or it’s not reported. (change in gross obligations)

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82
Q

What does UOL stand for?

A

Unfilled Order Listing

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83
Q

What does SFOEDL stand for?

A

Summary Filled Order Expenditure Difference Listing

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84
Q

When travel orders are written which involves travel that takes place over two fiscal years, will two separate lines of accounting be used or will charges be applied to the FY in which the travel was started?

A

Two separate lines of accounting will be used

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85
Q

What is the bureau control number in a line of accounting?

A

The UIC of the operating budget holder.

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86
Q

T/F: A separate requisition/ OPTAR Log NAVCOMPT Form 2155 will be established for each reimbursable operating target assigned.

A

TRUE

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87
Q

Only transactions with money value differences of _________ and over will be shown on the SFOEDL?

A

$100.01 and over

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88
Q

Who prepares the overdue travel advances report for the funds that they are assigned accounting responsibility for?

A

Fleet Accounting Office

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89
Q

The overdue travel advances report is prepared how often by each accounting office accounting for funds of the operating forces?

A

Monthly

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90
Q

The processing, review, and validation of SFOEDL will be completed within how many days following receipt?

A

10 Days

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91
Q

In what sequence are documents listed on the SFOEDL?

A

Document number sequence

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92
Q

In reference to SFOEDL rejection(challenge) codes, what code is used for
Duplicate charge

A

SFOEDL challenge code “A”

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93
Q

In reference to SFOEDL rejection(challenge) codes, what code is used for Erroneous charge

A

SFOEDL challenge code “D”

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94
Q

In reference to SFOEDL rejection(challenge) codes, what code is used for Other

A

SFOEDL challenge code “J”

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95
Q

In reference to SFOEDL rejection(challenge) codes, what code is used for Wrong price

A

SFOEDL challenge code “B”

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96
Q

In reference to SFOEDL rejection(challenge) codes, what code is used for Material not requisitioned

A

SFOEDL challenge code “G”

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97
Q

How are DLR carcass charges identified on the SFOEDL?

A

By the phrase “carcass” printed in the remarks column

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98
Q

The UOL review and validation will be completed within how many days following receipt?

A

20 Days

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99
Q

OPTAR holders are authorized to administratively cancel unfilled orders when material has been received how many days prior to the date of the unfilled order listing?

A

60 days

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100
Q

When is the Unfilled Order Listing distributed for the 4th through the 15th report months?

A

Monthly

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101
Q

When is the Unfilled Order Listing distributed for the 18th through 33rd report months?

A

6 times quarterly

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102
Q

How often is the SFOEDL produced for the 1st through 24th months?

A

Monthly

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103
Q

How often is the SFOEDL produced for the 25th through 33rd months?

A

Quarterly

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104
Q

Regarding UOL processing for below $100.00 threshold line items, if all material or services have been received two or more months prior to the processed date of the listing, what will be done with the unfilled order?

A

Administratively cancelled

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105
Q

Once an unfilled order appears on the Unfilled Order Listing, how many months will pass before it will be listed again if it has not been deleted by a matching expenditure?

A

3 Months

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106
Q

How will the BOR report be submitted if the ship or unit is not in the immediate vicinity of the fleet accounting office?

A

By message

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107
Q

When is the BOR report due to the fleet accounting office?

A

No later than the first day of the month following the end of the month being reported

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108
Q

How often will prior FY OPTARs be reported? When? For how long?

A

Monthly/ End of month only if transactions occurred that affects the gross obligations/ For full 36 month cycle

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109
Q

Each of the nine data fields of a complete line of accounting requires a specific number of characters to complete its data field. When a data field does not contain sufficient characters to completely fill the data field what will be entered preceding the first significant character to complete the field?

A

ZEROES

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110
Q

What is the NAVCOMPT form number for vouchers for disbursement and/ or collection?

A

NAVCOMPT Form 2277

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111
Q

How will holding files be established for each OPTAR received to hold the appropriate accounting documents and listings pending transmittal to fleet accounting office?

A

By Fiscal Year

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112
Q

What is in Appendix 1 of the P485 Vol II?

A

Advice Codes

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113
Q

What is in Appendix 2 of the P485 Vol II?

A

Status Codes

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114
Q

What is in Appendix 4 of the P485 Vol II?

A

Document Identifiers

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115
Q

What is in Appendix 9 of the P485 Vol II?

A

Local Management Codes (LMC’s)

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116
Q

What is in Appendix 30 of the P485 Vol II?

A

Fund Codes

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117
Q

What Advice Code is 2B?

A

Do not Substitute

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118
Q

What Advice Code is 2D?

A

Furnish exact quantity requested

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119
Q

What Advice Code is 2E?

A

Free Issue

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120
Q

What Advice Code is 2L?

A

Quantity reflected in the quantity field exceeds normal demands, however this is a valid requirement.

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121
Q

What Advice Code is 2N?

A

Item required in one continuous length

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122
Q

What is Status Code BF?

A

No record of your document for which your submitted a follow-up or cancellation

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123
Q

What is Status Code BN?

A

Requisition being processed as Free Issue

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124
Q

What is Status Code BQ?

A

Cancellation from Item Manager

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125
Q

What is Status Code BR?

A

Cancelled, due to MOV request

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126
Q

What is Status Code BS?

A

Cancelled, due to NON reply to MOV

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127
Q

What is Status Code CJ?

A

Item coded obsolete or inactive

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128
Q

What is Status Code CY?

A

Unable to procure item requested

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129
Q

What is Document Identifier AB1?

A

Direct delivery notice to requisitioner

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130
Q

What is Document Identifier AB2?

A

Direct Delivery Notice to supplementary address

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131
Q

What is Document Identifier AB3?

A

Direct Delivery Notice to CC54

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132
Q

What is Document Identifier AC_?

A

Cancellation

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133
Q

What is Document Identifier AE_?

A

Supply Status

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134
Q

What is Document Identifier AF_?

A

Follow up on requisition

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135
Q

What is Document Identifier AK_?

A

Follow up on Cancellation request

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136
Q

What is Document Identifier AM_?

A

Requisition Modifier

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137
Q

What is Document Identifier AN_?

A

Material Obligation Validation Request

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138
Q

What is Document Identifier AN9?

A

Receipt confirmation of MOV request

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139
Q

What is Document Identifier ANZ?

A

Follow up, when not getting original AN9

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140
Q

What is Document Identifier AP_?

A

Material Obligation Validation Response

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141
Q

What is Document Identifier APX?

A

Notice of non receipt of MOV documents

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142
Q

What is Document Identifier AS_?

A

Shipment Status

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143
Q

What is Document Identifier AT_?

A

Follow up to the original requisition process as

original

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144
Q

What is Document Identifier A0A?

A

Domestic shipment with NSN/NATO stock number

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145
Q

What is Document Identifier A0E?

A

Domestic shipment with exception data

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146
Q

What is Document Identifier A05?

A

Overseas shipment with exception data

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147
Q

What is Document Identifier A01?

A

Overseas shipment of NSN/NATO stock number

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148
Q

What is Document Identifier BKR?

A

Rejection of response to follow-up on shipment of Non-RFI

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149
Q

What is Document Identifier BK1?

A

Follow up on shipment on Non-RFI Transaction (WHERE’S MY SHIT)

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150
Q

What is Document Identifier BK2?

A

Response to a follow up on shipment of Non-RFI Transaction (HERE’S YOUR SHIT)

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151
Q

What is Document Identifier BK3?

A

Notification of Extra billing (WE HAVEN’T GOTTEN YOUR SHIT YET SO NOW YOUR BEING CHARGED FULL PRICE)

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152
Q

What is Document Identifier BK4?

A

Notification of reduced billing ( WE GOT YOUR SHIT SO HERE’S SOME OF YOUR MONEY BACK) (Financial LS will notify you of credit back)

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153
Q

What is Document Identifier DRA?

A

Material Receipt Acknowledgement

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154
Q

What is Document Identifier DRB?

A

Material Receipt Acknowledgement Reply to Follow up

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155
Q

What is Document Identifier DRF?

A

Follow up for Delinquent Material Receipt Acknowledgement

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156
Q

What is AT1?

A

COSAL Item

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157
Q

What is AT2?

A

Load List Item (AVCAL)

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158
Q

What is AT3?

A

COSAL/AVCAL Item

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159
Q

What is AT4?

A

Non-COSAL Demand based (DBI/SIM)

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160
Q

What is AT5?

A

TYCOM authorized

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161
Q

What is AT6?

A

EXCESS

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162
Q

What is AT7?

A

Economic retention

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163
Q

What is AT8?

A

Non-COSAL item that is established for demand record only

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164
Q

What is AT9?

A

Substitute Item

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165
Q

SFOEDL difference Listing Codes:

B

A

Wrong Price

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166
Q

SFOEDL difference Listing Codes:

C

A

Expenditure should be charged to unfilled order

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167
Q

SFOEDL difference Listing Codes:

D

A

Erroneous Charge

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168
Q

SFOEDL difference Listing Codes:

E

A

Advance Adjustment taken

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169
Q

SFOEDL difference Listing Codes:

F

A

Administrative Cancelation

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170
Q

What does UMMIPS stand for?

A

Uniform Material Movement and Issue Priority System

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171
Q

What does NAMPSOP stand for?

A

Naval Aviation Maintenance Program Standard Operating Procedures

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172
Q

What does AMMRL stand for?

A

Aircraft Maintenance Material Readiness List

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173
Q

What does FAD stand for?

A

Force Activity Designator

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174
Q

What does OSI stand for?

A

Operational Support Inventory

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175
Q

What does IRIM stand for?

A

Intensive Repairable Item Management

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176
Q

What does AVDLR’s stand for?

A

Aviation Depot Level Repairable

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177
Q

What does ASDTPS stand for?

A

Aviation Supply Desktop Procedures

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178
Q

What does MAG stand for?

A

Marine Air Group

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179
Q

What does ATAC stand for?

A

Advanced Traceability and Control

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180
Q

What does NWCF stand for?

A

Navy Working Capital Fund

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181
Q

What does AFM stand for?

A

Aviation Fleet Maintenance

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182
Q

What does RFI stand for?

A

Ready For Issue

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183
Q

What does CRIPL stand for?

A

Consolidated Remain in Place

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184
Q

What are the 3 levels of Maintenance?

A

O level-Organizational, I level-Intermediate and D Level-Depot

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185
Q

What assigns the FAD to activities for determining priorities?

A

UMMIPS

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186
Q

What establishes the speed a requisition must be filled by supply?

A

Priority

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187
Q

What are items in the custody and under the management of various department heads aboard ship?

A

OSI-Operating Space Items

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188
Q

Which programs control critical & costly repairable material used in support of aircraft maintenance?

A 
OSI
IRIM
AVDLR’s
ATAC DLR’s
All the above
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189
Q

Weapons systems are supported under what concept?

A

OSI strict one for one exchange

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190
Q

What program is financed under NWCF and paid for with AFM funds?

A

AVDLR’s

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191
Q

Item on CTTR is not closed out, what ICP follow up action is initiated?

A

BK1

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192
Q

Item on CTTR is not closed out, ICP submitted follow up action, what does the activity use to reply?

A

BK2

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193
Q

Item on CTTR is not closed out, ICP submitted follow up action, activity replied, but it was not an acceptable reply, ICP sends a?

A

BK3 * BK3 notification of additional billing. Difference between the net and standard price.*

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194
Q

Item on CTTR is not closed out, ICP submitted follow up action, activity replied, reply was not an acceptable, ICP sends new charge to activity, activity found subsequent proof of the turn in, under what code will it be submitted to the ICP?

A

BK2

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195
Q

What program was established to improve accountability, traceability, and customer billing accuracy in the DLR carcass tracking system.

A

ATAC

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196
Q

Item on CTR is not closed out, ICP submitted follow up action, activity replied, reply was not an acceptable, ICP sends new charge to activity, activity found subsequent proof of the turn in, proof is acceptable to ICP. What code is sent out to initiate the reversal?

A

BK4 Once BK4 is received, DLR LS needs to get with Financial LS and get Month and Year BK4 hit in order to put into DLR BK log.

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197
Q

What is the design of the Federal Supply Classification (FSC) System?

A

To classify all items of supply used by the federal government

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198
Q

What are the three ways of expending material?

A
  1. Issuing 2. Transfers 3. Expenditure’s
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199
Q

Who distributes the Federal Catalog System?

A

Defense Logistics Agency (DLA)

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200
Q

How many digits are in a NSN?

A

13

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201
Q

How many digits are in a FSC?

A

4

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202
Q

How many digits are in a NIIN?

A

9

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203
Q

What position of an NSN is the NCB Code?

A

5th and 6th

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204
Q

What are the 1st and 2nd positions of an NSN?

A

Group

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205
Q

What are the 3rd and 4th positions of an NSN?

A

Class

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206
Q

Who assigns NSN’s to material?

A

Defense Logistics Service Center (DLSC), Battle Creek, Michigan

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207
Q

What countries use the Federal Catalog System?

A

North Atlantic Treaty Organization Countries (NATO)

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208
Q

What system has been developed as a common language of supply?

A

Federal Catalog System (FEDLOG)

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209
Q

By whose direction does DLA administer the Federal Catalog System?

A

Assistant Secretary of Defense(Installations and Logistics)

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210
Q

What are the four most commonly used NICN’s?

A

LD-Directives, LP-Pubs, LF-Forms and LL-All others

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211
Q

What type of code is used to provide the supply source with special instructions applicable to the requisitioned item when considered necessary to ensure appropriate supply action?

A

Advice Code

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212
Q

Advice codes are mandatory for what material?

A

DLR’s and wood products in FSC’s 5510 & 5530

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213
Q

What service designator code is used for Pacific Fleet operating units?

A

R

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214
Q

What service designator code is used for Atlantic Fleet operating units?

A

V

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215
Q

What service designator code is used for Activities located ashore?

A

N

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216
Q

What manual would you reference to find a list of Unit Identification Codes?

A

Navy Comptroller Manual Volume 2 Chapter 5

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217
Q

Cannibalization will be accomplished in accordance with what?

A

TYCOM Procedures

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218
Q

What FAD is assigned to declared emergencies?

A

FAD I

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219
Q

How many days prior to deployment is a unit authorized a higher FAD?

A

90 days

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220
Q

What UND is assigned when the condition is that without the material needed, the activity is unable to perform one or more of it’s primary missions?

A

A

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221
Q

What is defined as Navy managed repair parts that are authorized for removal, complete repair, and condemnation at either the organizational or the intermediate maintenance level?

A

Field Level Repairable(FLR’s)

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222
Q

What type of requisition is submitted for a CASREP requirement?

A

NORS Requisition

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223
Q

What type of requisition is submitted for an anticipated CASREP requirement?

A

ANORS Requisition

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224
Q

What is the first position of the serial number for an NMCS/ANMCS/PMCS/ BROAD ARROW requirements?

A

“G”

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225
Q

What is the first position of the serial number of a NORS requirement?

A

“W”

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226
Q

GPETE is procured by NAVICP MECH through what fund?

A

Navy Working Capital Fund (NWCF)

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227
Q

What is defined as equipment capable of generating or measuring a range of electronic or electrical parameters as required, to test two or more functions in systems or equipment of basically different design?

A

General Purpose Electronic Test Equipment (GPETE)

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228
Q

The green copy of the DD Form 1348-6 is distributed to who?

A

OPTAR records keeper for filing

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229
Q

What copy of the DD Form 1348-6 goes to the material outstanding file?

A

Pink Copy

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230
Q

What copies of the DD Form 1348-6 are distributed to the ashore supply activity?

A

Original and Yellow copy

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231
Q

What form is used to requisition material, which cannot be identified by an NSN, a NATO stock number, or a NICN?

A

DD Form 1348-6

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232
Q

What do supply or material control officers of aviation activities maintain for issue to pilots making extended flights to assist in obtaining necessary items?

A

Flight Packets

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233
Q

What form is used to procure JET FUEL and aviation lubricants from DOD activities or commercial contractors holding DLA into plane refueling contracts?

A

DD Form 1896

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234
Q

MAMs are identified on APLs/AELs with what Allowance Note Code?

A

”N”

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235
Q

Where are MAMs located in the COSAL?

A

Part III, Section CF

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236
Q

What cognizance symbol is assigned to photographic equipment?

A

“2W”

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237
Q

What form may be used to purchase lodging for officers, or food and lodging for enlisted personnel on extended flights?

A

Standard Form 44

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238
Q

What is the term generally defined as an estimate of the amount of money, which will be required by an operating ship, staff squadron, or other unit to perform assigned tasks?

A

OPTAR

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239
Q

What form is a document used by fleet commanders, TYCOMs and other operating budget holders for requesting work, services, material, equipment which needs to be purchased from private sector, but this form cannot be used by mobile operating forces?

A

NAVCOMPT Form 2276

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240
Q

When the OPTAR of a tender/repair ship is funded by the same operating budget that funds the ROV OPTAR of a tender repair ship under which the ROV charges were initially funded, what type of summary will be prepared?

A

“B” Summary (Brother to brother/Brother of another)

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241
Q

Who is responsible for the financial management of all ships, squadrons, and other units under his/her command?

A

TYCOM

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242
Q

What type of transaction will show up on SFOEDL regardless of dollar value?

A

Travel transactions and reimbursable OPTAR transactions

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243
Q

T/F: A separate requisition/ OPTAR Log NAVCOMPT Form 2155 will be established for each reimbursable target assigned.

A

True

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244
Q

When is the BOR report due to the fleet accounting office?

A

No later than the first day of the month following the end of the month being reported.

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245
Q

Who is designated to perform accounting for ship’s operating forces of the Pacific Fleet and for aviation operating forces of the Pacific Fleet?

A

Fleet Accounting and Disbursing Center U.S. Pacific Fleet

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246
Q

In what sequence are documents listed on the SFOEDL?

A

Document number sequence

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247
Q

Who retains the detail filled order expenditure listing?

A

Fleet Accounting Office

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248
Q

Who will report unfilled order and expenditure data for centrally managed items to the responsibility center or major command for fund administration purposes?

A

Fleet Accounting Office

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249
Q

How will the BOR report be submitted if the ship or unit is not in the immediate vicinity of the Fleet Accounting Office?

A

By message

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250
Q

What is the form number of the OPTAR Document transmittal report?

A

NAVCOMPT Form 2156

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251
Q

What is the NAVCOMPT Form number for vouchers for disbursement and/or collection?

A

NAVCOMPT Form 2277

252
Q

What is the form number of the Requisition and invoice shipping document?

A

DD Form 1149

253
Q

Once an unfilled order appears on the Unfilled Order Listing, how many months will pass before it will be listed again if it has not been deleted by a matching expenditure?

A

3 Months

254
Q

How will holding files be established for each OPTAR received to hold the appropriate accounting documents and listing pending transmittal to Fleet Accounting Office?

A

By fiscal year

255
Q

What is the bureau control number in a line of accounting?

A

The UIC of the operating budget holder

256
Q

In reference to SFOEDL challenges, if the “not ready for issue” mandatory turn-in repairable was turned in for repair, the erroneous charges with the carcass phrase in the remarks column should be challenged by sending a message to who?

A

NAVICP

257
Q

An AT8 item will be changed to what AT Code if demand reaches established criteria?

A

AT4

258
Q

What action is taken if an AT8 item has no demand for 24 months?

A

It is deleted

259
Q

ALLOWANCE TYPE CODES
AT CODE Description
COSAL item
Load List Item, applicable to load carrying ships only.
LOAD AND allowance List item, applicable to load carrying ships only.
Non-COSAL item that is stocked based solely on demand.
Non-COSAL authorized add item based on specific TYCOM authority.
Non-COSAL excess item that does not have sufficient demand to maintain. The item is to
be offloaded and deleted.
Economic retention. Excess item that, because of low unit cost (normally under $100.00), is
authorized for retention until the next ILO.
Non-COSAL item that is established for demand recording only.
Assigned to a substitute item which is not stocked as a primary number.

A

ALLOWANCE TYPE CODES
AT CODE Description
COSAL item
Load List Item, applicable to load carrying ships only.
LOAD AND allowance List item, applicable to load carrying ships only.
Non-COSAL item that is stocked based solely on demand.
Non-COSAL authorized add item based on specific TYCOM authority.
Non-COSAL excess item that does not have sufficient demand to maintain. The item is to
be offloaded and deleted.
Economic retention. Excess item that, because of low unit cost (normally under $100.00), is
authorized for retention until the next ILO.
Non-COSAL item that is established for demand recording only.
Assigned to a substitute item which is not stocked as a primary number.

260
Q

Which division procures, receives, stores expends and accounts for all general supplies?

A

S-8 General Stores

261
Q

What division operates all phases of the officers mess?

A

S-5 Wardroom

262
Q

Who is responsible to the commanding officer for the proper performance and administration of the supply department?

A

Supply Officer

263
Q

What are the two main functions of the shipboard supply department?

A

Material Support and Services

264
Q

What Naval activity is the primary contact point for operating units for material support?

A

FISC (Fleet Industrial Supply Center)

265
Q

Which division operates resale and service activities?

A

S-3

266
Q

Which division collects and disburses all public funds and performs afloat pay and allowance functions?

A

S-4

267
Q

Which division is responsible for functions related to aviation stores?

A

S-6

268
Q

Which division determines stock requirements, stock reorders, financial accounting and controlling receipt and expenditure documents?

A

S-1

269
Q

Who assures the proper balance between assets and requirements?

A

IM Item Manager

270
Q

Who positions and redistributes material?

A

ICP Inventory Control Point

271
Q

What division operates all phases of the general mess?

A

S-2

272
Q

Security group I consists of which spaces?

A

General Stores

273
Q

What size is the padlock on general stores spaces?

A

1 ½”

274
Q

Which security group spaces are secured with a keyless padlock?

A

Group III Ships Retail and related storerooms

275
Q

How often is the combination changed on a keyless padlock?

A

At least every six months or relieve of custodian

276
Q

What are the two types of directives?

A

Instructions and Notice

277
Q

What subject does SSIC 4000 identify?

A

Logistics

278
Q

What subject does SSIC 10000 identify?

A

General Material

279
Q

What subject does SSIC 7000 identify?

A

Financial

280
Q

What is referred to as a 13-digit number used to identify an item in the supply distribution system of the U.S.?

A

National Stock Number

281
Q

What is referred to as a 9-digit number, which identifies each item of supply?

A

NIIN (National Item ID Number)

282
Q

What do the first 4 digits of an NSN represent?

A

FSC (Federal Supply Classification)

283
Q

What does the first position of the cog represent?

A

Stores Account

284
Q

What are the most common used MCC codes?

A

H E X G Q

285
Q

What are the 3 stores accounts?

A

NSA Navy Stock Account
APA Appropriation Purchase Account
Non-Stores

286
Q

Which stores account has chargeable material?

A

NSA

287
Q

Which stores account has even numbered cogs?

A

APA

288
Q

Who assigns NICN’s?

A

Item Manager

289
Q

Who assigns the MCC and for what reason?

A

IM to separate items into more manageable groups

290
Q

What type of material does the following NICN codes identify?
LP

A

Publications

291
Q

What type of material does the following NICN codes identify?
LF

A

Forms

292
Q

What type of material does the following NICN codes identify?
LD

A

Directives

293
Q

What type of material does the following NICN codes identify?
LK

A

Aircraft change kit numbers

294
Q

What type of material does the following NICN codes identify?
LQ

A

Aircraft quick engine change

295
Q

What code identifies the manufacturer that produces items used by the Federal Government?

A

CAGE

296
Q

How many digits does a CAGE code have?

A

5

297
Q

What is referred to as a 13-character number used for permanent or temporary control of selected non-NSN items?

A

NICN (Navy Item Control Number)

298
Q

What is referred to as a 13-character number assigned by an activity for its own use?

A

LICN (Local Item Control Number)

299
Q

What is the publication number for the Afloat Shopping Guide?

A

NAVSUP P-4400

300
Q

What publication is the primary source of management data for all publications, forms, placards and directives?

A

NAVSUP P-2000

301
Q

What is the publication number for the Naval Logistic Library?

A

NAVSUP P-600

302
Q

What will be used if an FSC is not assigned to a NICN?

A

0000

303
Q

What is the act of obtaining material and services?

A

Procurement

304
Q

What is the primary source of supply for a ship in CONUS?

A

FLC

305
Q

What is the primary source of supply for a deployed ship?

A

CLF Combat Logistic Force

306
Q

How often will the following outstanding requisitions be reviewed?
01-03
04-08
09-15

A

Daily
Weekly
Monthly

307
Q

What does the acronym MOV mean?

A

Material Obligation Validation

308
Q

What is the purpose of the MOV?

A

Determine whether a requirement still exists for

requisitioned material

309
Q

What type of inspection is required for material received from Naval activities?

A

Quantity only

310
Q

What type of inspection is required for material received from a commercial source, and was not previously inspected by an ashore activity?

A

Both quantity and quality

311
Q

Which form accompanies material purchased from a commercial source?

A

DD FORM 1155

312
Q

What are the annotations common to all receipt documents?

A

Circle, Sign, and Date

313
Q

What must be prepared if material is received without paper work?

A

Dummy Receipt

314
Q

Which storeroom is the centralized distribution point for most fast moving and shelf life items?

A

Main Issue Storeroom

315
Q

Which storeroom is used for stowage of case lots of certain frequently requested items or items that are too bulky or cumbersome for stowage in an issue storeroom?

A

Bulk Storeroom

316
Q

Where will the flammable liquid storeroom normally be located aboard ship?

A

Either end of the ship, below the full waterline

317
Q

What type of emergency equipment will the flammable liquid storeroom be equipped with?

A

Automatic fire alarm and CO2

318
Q

Where are compressed gas bottles stored aboard ship?

A

Weather deck, or a special designed storeroom

319
Q

Where can MSDS sheets be found?

A 
HM Coordinator
Safety 
Medical 
Manufacturer
HMIS
320
Q

What do the following acronyms mean?

MOF

A

Material outstanding File

321
Q

What do the following acronyms mean?

FIFO

A

First in First out

322
Q

What do the following acronyms mean?

MSDS

A

Material Safety Data Sheet

323
Q

What do the following acronyms mean?

HMIS

A

Hazardous Material Information System

324
Q

What is the estimate of the amount of money required by an operating unit to perform the task and functions assigned?

A

OPTAR

325
Q

How often are OPTAR funds received?

A

Quarterly

326
Q

What does the acronym OPTAR mean?

A

Operating Target

327
Q

How often does Congress approve Navy funds?

A

Annually

328
Q

What months of the Fiscal Year are funds received?

A

October
January
April
July

329
Q

Where do you receive you OPTAR funds from?

A

Type Commander

330
Q

How often is the OPTAR document transmittal report transmitted?

A

15th and last day of the month

331
Q

What is NAVCOMPT FORM 2155?

A

Requisition/OPTAR Log

332
Q

Who maintains the Requisition/Optar log?

A

Requisition/ Optar Storekeeper

333
Q

When can duplicate serial numbers be used in the Requisition/Optar log?

A

Only when the julian date changes

334
Q

When is the 1st quarter optar grant posted to the Requisition/Optar log?

A

First day of the new fiscal year (1 Oct.)

335
Q

How are entries made in the Requisition/Optar log?

A

Legibly in black ink

336
Q

What is defined as the quantity of stock on hand for which supply records are maintained?

A

Inventory

337
Q

What is the primary objective of an inventory?

A

Onhand balance agrees with stock records

338
Q

How often will SIM items be inventoried?

A

Semi-annually

339
Q

When will Non-SIM items be inventoried?

A

After each issue

340
Q

How often are classified items inventoried?

A

Annually and upon change of custodian

341
Q

How often are hazardous items inventoried?

A

Annually

342
Q

How often are security type medical supplies inventoried?

A

Quarterly and upon change of custodian

343
Q

How often are Depot Level Repairable items inventoried?

A

Annually and upon change of custodian

344
Q

When are controlled equipage items inventoried?

A

15 Feb.- 15 Mar.

345
Q

What happens to all non-posted receipts and or expenditure documents prior to an inventory?

A

Post to stock records

346
Q

Which publication sets the guidelines for SUADPS-RT?

A

NAVSUP 567

347
Q

When is the COSAL issued?

A

New upon Commissioning

348
Q

What does the letter “E” in front of the page number represent?

A

Electronics

349
Q

What does the letter “H” in front of the page number represent?

A

Hull Mechanical Electrical

350
Q

What does the letter “Z” in front of the page number represent?

A

Ordinance

351
Q

How many digits make up a HM&E and Ordinance APL?

A

9

352
Q

What does the acronym AEL mean?

A

Allowance Equipage List

353
Q

How many characters make up an AEL?

A

11 counting the dash

354
Q

Who provides supply management policies and methods to activities?

A

Naval Supply Systems Command (NAVSYSCOM)

355
Q

What Inventory Control Point manages aircraft equipment and spare parts?

A

Aviation Supply Office (ASO)

356
Q

What is the NAVSUP P-567?

A

Automated SNAP 1 Supply Procedures

357
Q

What does the acronym AL stand for?

A

Allowance List

358
Q

What does the acronym TBA stand for?

A

Table of Basic Allowances

359
Q

What does the acronym ARR stand for?

A

Allowance Requirement Register

360
Q

What does AVCAL stand for?

A

Aviation Consolidated Allowance List

361
Q

What is the purpose of the AVCAL?

A

It is a list of all items authorized to be carried in stock.

362
Q

What does the P2300 list?

A

Repairable assemblies under the cognizance of ASO or NAVAIR

363
Q

What is the P2310?

A

Serves as a reference list for identifying and requisitioning all parts of replacement to support the assemblies in the P2300

364
Q

Acronym CRIPL?

A

Consolidated Remain in Place List

365
Q

Acronym ICRL?

A

Individual Component Repair Listing

366
Q

Acronym SM&R?

A

Source, Maintenance and Recoverability code

367
Q

What does a directive do?

A

Prescribes or establishes policy, organization, conduct, methods, or procedures.

368
Q

What is an Instruction?

A

It is a directive that contains information of a continuing nature or requires continuing action.

369
Q

What is a Notice?

A

It is a directive of a one-time nature that contains information or requires action applicable for a brief period of time.

370
Q

What is SECNAVINST 5215.1?

A

Department of the Navy Directives Issuance System

371
Q

What is the NAMP?

A

Naval Aviation Maintenance Program

372
Q

How many volumes in the NAMP?

A

5

373
Q

NAMP

Volume 1

A

Organization, Maintenance Support Procedures

374
Q

NAMP

Volume 2

A

Depot Level Maintenance

375
Q

NAMP

Volume 3

A

Maintenance Data Systems (MDS)

376
Q

NAMP

Volume 4

A

Data Processing requirements

377
Q

NAMP

Volume 5

A

Standard Operating Procedures (SOP)

378
Q

What is the NAVSUPINST 4200.85?

A

Shore & Fleet Small Purchase and Other Simplified Purchase Procedures

379
Q

could cause grave damage to national security

A

Top Secret –

380
Q

could cause serious damage to national security

A

Secret –

381
Q

could cause damage to national security

A

Confidential –

382
Q

What is SSIC?

A

Standard Subject Identification Codes

Common SSIC’s

383
Q

Standard Subject Identification Codes
Common SSIC’s
4000

A

Logistics

384
Q

Standard Subject Identification Codes
Common SSIC’s
7000

A

Financial Management

385
Q

Standard Subject Identification Codes
Common SSIC’s
10000

A

General Material

386
Q

Standard Subject Identification Codes
Common SSIC’s
13000

A

Aeronautical Material

387
Q

Classes of material

5305

A

screws

388
Q

Classes of material

5306

A

bolts

389
Q

Classes of material

5310

A

nuts/washers

390
Q

Cogs

0I

A

Publications

391
Q

Cogs

1I

A

Forms

392
Q

Cogs

1R

A

Aeronautical/photo equipment

393
Q

Cogs

7R

A

AVDLR’s

394
Q

What is a Service/Agency Code?

A

It is a two-character code that identifies the service, agency, or activity.

395
Q

allows for separate identification of each maintenance action

A

Job Control Number (JCN)

396
Q

describes the end item on which the work is being performed

A

Type Equipment Code (TEC)

397
Q

serial number of the equipment or item being worked on

A

Bureau Number (BUNO)

398
Q

identifies the system, subsystem, or component

A

Work Unit Code (WUC)

399
Q

How much time do you have to turn in a part if it is on the CRIPL?

A

24 hours

400
Q

VIDS/MAF

A

Visual Information Display System/ Maintenance Action Form

401
Q

Flight packet form for buying fuel from non-DLA sources

A

Standard Form 44

402
Q

Standard Form 94

A

Statement of Witness

403
Q

Standard Form 95

A

Claim for Damage or Injury

404
Q

NALCOMIS

A

Naval Aviation Logistics Command Management Information System

405
Q

What is an overall program that provides the data required for effective management of Support Equipment.

A

AMMRL – Aircraft Maintenance Material Readiness List,

406
Q

What provides a continuous chain of accountability for specific equipment and material.

A

AIR – Aircraft Inventory Record

407
Q

Identifies items of installed and loose equipment that requires a periodic inventory

A

MAIR – Master Aircraft Inventory Record

408
Q

What is a consolidated allowance list of authorized quantities of SE items.

A

IMRL – Individual Material Readiness List

409
Q

What is a single alpha character code that provides supplemental accountability details about a SE transaction

A

Custody Codes

410
Q

Common Custody Codes
D – assigned to items listed only in a det. (Code D would apply to items required on air capable ships)
E – items used infrequently (less than once per month)
M – noncalibrated items requiring management
N – assigned to items that do not require calibration or management
P – items weighing over 200 pounds (over 300 pounds for wheeled equipment)
L – items requiring calibration and management

A

Common Custody Codes
D – assigned to items listed only in a det. (Code D would apply to items required on air capable ships)
E – items used infrequently (less than once per month)
M – noncalibrated items requiring management
N – assigned to items that do not require calibration or management
P – items weighing over 200 pounds (over 300 pounds for wheeled equipment)
L – items requiring calibration and management

411
Q

What is the 4790.2?

A

NAMP

412
Q

NMCS

A

Not Mission Capable Supply

413
Q

PMCS

A

Partial Mission Capable Supply

414
Q

ASD

A

Aviation Support Division, same as Supply Support

415
Q

SRS

A

Supply Response Section, provides follow-ups and status as required

416
Q

CCS

A

Component Control Section, responsible for managing repairables in the local repair cycle

417
Q

DCU

A

Document Control Unit, responsible for the control of NRFI components and components waiting to be turn-in from customers.

418
Q

AWP

A

hold material waiting for parts

419
Q

What division is responsible for the inventory control and management of all stock items in the custody of the Supply Officer?

A

Stock Control

420
Q

BK2 Response Codes

A

A

turn in shipped under original document number

421
Q

BK2 Response Codes

B

A

turn in shipped under different document number

422
Q

BK2 Response Codes

C

A

no turn in available, advice code 5A should have been used

423
Q

BK2 Response Codes

D

A

no turn in available, advice code 5D should have been used

424
Q

ZA9

A

High Time Item – Item coming close to its time limit of use

425
Q

707

A

PMCS – Partial Mission Capable Supply

426
Q

706

A

NMCS – Non-Mission Capable Supply

427
Q

ZP1

A

Replenishment of Pack-Up Kit (PUK)

428
Q

ZF7

A

Broad Arrow requirements

429
Q

AMRR

A

Aircraft Material Readiness Report

430
Q

Routing Identifiers

PYZ

A

NAVSUPO NAF Atsugi Japan

431
Q

Routing Identifiers

PDZ

A

NAVSUPO NAS North Island

432
Q

Document Identifier

BMD

A

NRFI DLR/FLR shipments to other than MRIL destinations

433
Q

What is the primary function of an inventory manager?

A

To assure proper balance between supply and demand

434
Q

Which inventory control point manages aircraft equipment and spare pats?

A

Aviation Supply Office

435
Q

What functions does the Requisition Control Center (RCC) perform?

A

Receive and process requisitions
Review and prepare all material requests
Edit material requests

436
Q

What division provides a complete range of technical functions associated with provisioning of aeronautical requirements?

A

Integrated Logistics Support (ILS)

437
Q

Ships Parts Control Center (SPCC) is the inventory control point for?

A

Ship equipment and spare parts

438
Q

Who distributes the naval logistics library?

A

SPCC

439
Q

FLCs are also known as?

A

Stock points

440
Q

Who serves as an advisor to the fleet commander-in-chief concerning supply and transportation matters?

A

Fleet Supply Officer

441
Q

This is a comprehensive listing of all fleet controlled material?

A

Consolidated Fleet Controlled Material List (CFCML)

442
Q

What agency is responsible for managing and controlling items commonly used by all military services?

A

Defense Logistics Agency (DLA)

443
Q

P2300

A

Lists repairable assemblies under the cog of ASO or NAVAIR

444
Q

P2310

A

master reference list for identifying and requisitioning all parts of replacement assemblies listed in P2300

445
Q

P2330

A

lists the family group code cross-reference

446
Q

C0030

A

Packaging data for ASO, NAVAIR and aircraft launch and recovery equipment repairable assemblies

447
Q

C0018

A

repairable assembly model code table of Navy aviation materials

448
Q

What does the manufacturer for each model aircraft, engine accessory, electronics equipment or support equipment prepare?

A

Illustrated Parts Breakdown (IPB)

449
Q

What is the SECNAVINST 5216.5?

A

Navy Correspondence Manual

450
Q

What does a memorandum provide?

A

Informal means of correspondence within an activity or between activities on routine business

451
Q

How many types of memorandums are there?

A

4

452
Q

When is a business letter used?

A

Used to correspond with agencies or individuals outside DON who are unfamiliar with a standard letter

453
Q

What does the N in front of the Standard Subject Identification Code (SSIC) represent?

A

The numeric group was taken from the Navy list

454
Q

Who assigns the DTG to the message?

A

Communications Officer

455
Q

What prescribes or establishes policy, organization, conduct, methods, or procedures?

A

Directives

456
Q

What do instructions contain?

A

Information of a continuing nature or require continuing action

457
Q

What is a Notice?

A

Directives of a onetime nature or that contain information or required action applicable for a brief period only

458
Q

What is OPNAVINST 4790.2?

A

Naval Aviation Maintenance Program

459
Q

What is OPNAVINST 4614.1F?

A

Uniform Material Movement and Issue Priority System (UMMIPS)

460
Q

What provides instruction and guidance concerning purchase or procurement of material from commercial suppliers?

A

NAVSUPINST 4200.85 (Shore and Fleet Small Purchase and Other Simplified Purchase Procedures

461
Q

What does the acronym TD stand for?

A

Technical Directive

462
Q

Where can you find specific information concerning the TD program?

A

NAVAIRINST 5218.8

463
Q

What are the two types of technical directives?

A

Formal and informal

464
Q

There are how many action categories to TDs?

A

3

465
Q

TD: uncorrected safety condition exists could result in fatality or injury, destruction to equipment

A

Immediate

466
Q

TD: potential hazard condition exists, could result in injury to personnel or damage to equipment

A

Urgent

467
Q

The Navy’s SSIC system is broken down into how many subject groups?

A

13

468
Q

What does the second Character represent?

A

Item manager

469
Q

What does the first character in the Cog mean?

A

Stores Account

470
Q

What is a single alphabetic character assigned by the inventory manager?

A

Material Control Code (MCC)

471
Q

What does the acronym SMIC stand for?

A

Special Material Identification Code

472
Q

It is a two alpha or numeric character assigned by the inventory manager when it requires special handling

A

What is a SMIC?

The first character of the SMIC has no meaning by itself.

The second character of the SMIC identifies the applicable weapons system or equipment, assigned by ASO

473
Q

Groups

10

A

WEAPONS

474
Q

Groups

16

A

AIRCRAFT COMPONENTS AND ACCESSORIES

475
Q

Groups

20

A

SHIP AND MARINE EQUIPMENT

476
Q

Groups

40

A

ROPE, CABLE, CHAIN AND FITTINGS

477
Q

Groups

42

A

FIRE FIGHTING, RESCUE, AND SAFETY EQUIPMENT

478
Q

Groups

48

A

VALVES

479
Q

Groups

51

A

HAND TOOLS

480
Q

Common second character SMIC that you see:

A

A

Attack aircraft

481
Q

Common second character SMIC that you see:

E

A

special electronic aircraft

482
Q

Common second character SMIC that you see:

H

A

helicopters

483
Q

Common second character SMIC that you see:

S

A

antisubmarine aircraft

484
Q

What does the acronym NAC stand for?

A

Navy Activity Control

485
Q

What code is used to indicate whether or not an item is repairable?

A

Repairability Code

486
Q

Items listed in the GSA catalog are assigned what Cognizance?

A

9Q

487
Q

What code indicates the lowest echelon authorized to condemn and dispose of a repairable?

A

Recoverability Code (RC)

488
Q

It is a catalog of Navy managed items that are turned in for repair when they become unserviceable

A

What is the Master Repairable Item List (MRIL)?

489
Q

It indicates the lowest maintenance echelon capable of repairing an item

A

What does the Repair Maintenance Code (RMC) indicate?

490
Q

What provides procedures for conducting maintenance to aircraft equipment and components?

A

Maintenance or Technical Manuals

491
Q

Standardizes procedures, forms, formats, codes, and documentation of requisitioning and issuing systems for all military services

A

What is the purpose of the MILSTRIP?

492
Q

Example of Accounting Data
1781804.702D 000 53824 0 060957 2D R05504 BLNK 0073210066NR

1781804.702D

A

is the appropriation and subhead

493
Q

Example of Accounting Data
1781804.702D 000 53824 0 060957 2D R05504 BLNK 0073210066NR

000

A

identifies the object class

494
Q

Example of Accounting Data
1781804.702D 000 53824 0 060957 2D R05504 BLNK 0073210066NR

53824

A

operating budget holder

495
Q

Example of Accounting Data
1781804.702D 000 53824 0 060957 2D R05504 BLNK 0073210066NR

0

A

suballotment

496
Q

Example of Accounting Data
1781804.702D 000 53824 0 060957 2D R05504 BLNK 0073210066NR

060957

A

UIC of authorized accounting activity

497
Q

Example of Accounting Data
1781804.702D 000 53824 0 060957 2D R05504 BLNK 0073210066NR

2D

A

transaction type

498
Q

Example of Accounting Data
1781804.702D 000 53824 0 060957 2D R05504 BLNK 0073210066NR

R05504

A

property accounting office

499
Q

Example of Accounting Data
1781804.702D 000 53824 0 060957 2D R05504 BLNK 0073210066NR

BLNK

A

occupies the Country Code field

500
Q

Example of Accounting Data
1781804.702D 000 53824 0 060957 2D R05504 BLNK 0073210066NR

0073210066NR

A

is the cost code. It consists of two zeros, julian date, serial number, and fund code

501
Q

What is Standard Form 44?

A

Purchase Order-Invoice Voucher

502
Q

Used for on-the-spot, over-the-counter purchase of supplies and services while away from the purchasing office or at isolated activities

A

What is the purpose of Standard Form 44?

503
Q

When is the Standard Form 44 used?

A

The amount of purchase does not exceed $2,500, except aviation fuel and oil purchases by pilots, which should not exceed $25,000

504
Q

How many types of follow-ups are there?

A

4

505
Q

AF

A

regular follow up for status

506
Q

AT

A

follow used as requisition if original not found

507
Q

AFC

A

follow up asking to improve ESD

508
Q

AK

A

follow up on a cancellation

509
Q

Who is responsible for the receipt, identification, inspection, and distribution of all incoming material?

A

Supply Officer

510
Q

Used to verify material inspection and acceptance for items received directly from a contractor.

A

What is the DD Form 250 used for?

511
Q

What is the Standard Form 1103?

A

Government Bill of Lading

512
Q

What does the Material Outstanding File (MOF) contain?

A

Contains a copy of procurement documents for materials or services not yet received

513
Q

What does the Material Completed File contain?

A

Contains a copy of procurement documents removed from the MOF

514
Q

What does the acronym TCN stand for:

A

Transportation Control Number

515
Q

How many characters is a TCN?

A

17

516
Q

What is the DD Form 1387-2?

A

Special Handling Data/Certification

517
Q

What is the DD Form 2521?

A

Hazardous Chemical Warning Label

518
Q

Who is responsible for the storage, security, and inventory control of material stowed in storerooms?

A

Supply Officer

519
Q

Stowage of supply stock items in other department spaces must have written approval from?

A

Commanding Officer

520
Q

What term refers to those durable and uninstalled items that are located in operating spaces to support operational, maintenance, or administrative functions?

A

Equipage

521
Q

Fund Code

_A

A

REIMBURSABLE WORK–includes all material, civilian labor, temporary additional duty, and other costs chargeable to a specifically authorized reimbursable operating target.

522
Q

Fund Code

_B

A

NAVY STOCK ACCOUNT NON-AVIATION DLR–Non-aviation depot level repairable in the Navy Stock Account with COG symbols 7E, 7G, or 7H used in accomplishing organizational level maintenance in equipment and systems.

523
Q

Fund Code

_C

A

CONSUMABLE NSA TYPE MATERIAL–Navy Stock Account types of consumable material used up in the day-to-day operation of the ship and low cost equipage items.

524
Q

Fund Code

_D

A

PASSENGER VEHICLE RENTAL–the rental or hire of a passenger vehicle;

525
Q

Fund Code

_E

A

NSA TYPE EQUIPMENT/EQUIPAGE–Navy Stock Account types of durable (life expectancy greater than one year) end use equipment and equipage with a unit value greater than $100.

526
Q

Fund Code

_F

A

CIVILIAN PERSONNEL–includes the payroll costs of civilian personnel employed by commands of the operating forces (used by commands, staff, and designated units only).

527
Q

Fund Code

_G

A

NAVY STOCK ACCOUNT CONSUMABLES/ROV (Repair of Other Vessels)–Navy Stock Account type consumable material consumed (or costs of repair thereof) in the repair of other vessels.

528
Q

Fund Code

_H

A

NAVY STOCK ACCOUNT REPAIR PARTS ROV (Repair of Other Vessels)–items appearing in an allowance list that are used (or cost of repair thereof) in the repair of vessels.

529
Q

Fund Code

_I

A

MINOR CONSTRUCTION PROJECTS–includes materials and labor costs associated with minor construction projects in the $15,000.01 to $200,000.00 range (to be used only when authorized by the fleet commander)

530
Q

Fund Code

_J

A

ADP AND AIS EQUIPMENT–includes all Operation and Maintenance appropriation funded operating force costs for purchase/acquisition/lease of automated data processing (ADP) equipment used for on in direct support of ADP, automated information system (AIS), or information resource management (IRM).

531
Q

Fund Code

_K

A

CHARTER AND HIRE–includes the cost of tugs, pilotage, and other related port services provided by commercial or other non-Naval sources to fleet ships properly chargeable to fleet funds.

532
Q

Fund Code

_L

A

PUCHASED EQUIPMENT MAINTENANCE - SERVICE CRAFT AND BOATS (Private)–include labor and material costs associated with the maintenance and upkeep of service craft and boats assigned to the active fleet and for other special purposes specifically authorized Mobile Construction Battalions.

533
Q

Fund Code

_M

A

TEMPORARY ADDITIONAL DUTY (Training)–includes travel and per diem associated with temporary additional duty assigned for training (to be used only when authorized by the type commander).

534
Q

Fund Code

_N

A

TEMPORARY ADDITIONAL DUTY (Crew Rotation/Deployment)–includes travel and per diem associated with temporary additional duty assigned for crew rotation and deployment (to be used only when authorized by the type commander).

535
Q

Fund Code

_O

A

REAL PROPERTY MAINTENANCE–includes labor and material costs associated with real property maintenance projects in the $15,00.01 to $200,000.00 range (to be used only when authorized by the fleet commander).

536
Q

Fund Code

_P

A

TRANSPORTATION OF THINGS–includes transportation of things costs properly chargeable to fleet commander or type commander funds.

537
Q

Fund Code

_Q

A

TEMPORARY ADDITIONAL DUTY (Administrative-Essential/Critical)/TEMPORARY SHORE PATROL/HOMEPORT TRAVEL ENTITLEMENT–includes 1) mobile operating force travel and per diem costs associated with temporary additional duty assigned for the administration of a ship or a mobile unit 2) all costs of escort travel and cost reimbursable to personnel assigned to temporary shore patrol 3) administrative travel and per diem costs associated with temporary additional duty of a shore based activity/command operating under NAVSO P-3013 procedures when such travel is essential/critical to the organization’s mission and 4) costs to homeport during an overhaul period, as entitled in accordance with JTR (to be used only as authorized by type commander).

538
Q

Fund Code

_R

A

EQUIPMENT MAINTENANCE RELATED MATERIAL (EMRM) / NAVY STOCK ACCOUNT TYPE REPAIR PARTS–Navy Stock Account type of repair parts and repair related materials used to accomplish organizational level maintenance actions on ship’s equipment and systems.

539
Q

Fund Code

_S

A

COMMUNICATIONS–long distance telephone, teletype services, postage (other than parcel post), rental of post office boxes, and telephone installation charges.

540
Q

Fund Code

_T

A

PURCHASED EQUIPMENT MAINTENANCE - SERVICE CRAFT AND BOATS (Public)–includes labor and material costs associated with the maintenance and upkeep of service craft and boats assigned to the active fleet and other special purposes authorized Mobile Construction Battalion (to be used only when directed by the fleet commander).

541
Q

Fund Code

_U

A

OTHER PURCHASED SERVICES–includes the procurement of services ashore (such as laundry services, repair of typewriters, computing machines, and other labor saving devices), rental of boats, civilian witness fees, hire or rental of motor vehicle other than a passenger motor vehicle, etc.

542
Q

Fund Code

_V

A

ORDERS FOR PRINTING AND PUBLICATIONS–includes costs associated with the procurement of printing and publications as defined in the Department of the Navy Publication and Printing Regulations.

543
Q

Fund Code

_W

A

PURCHASED UTILITIES–cost of heat, light, power, electricity, gas, water, and other utility services produced and purchased by operating force activities based ashore.

544
Q

Fund Code

_X

A

MAINTENANCE OF REAL PROPERTY AND MINOR CONSTRUCTION–maintenance and repair of real property and minor construction cost incurred by operating force activities based ashore which may be approved by the responsibility center operating budget holder.

545
Q

Fund Code

_Y

A

ADP, AIS, OR IRM - OTHER THAN EQUIPMENT–includes all Operation and Maintenance appropriation funded operating force costs for automated data processing (ADP), automated information system (AIS), or information resource management (IRM) other than equipment purchase/acquisition/lease.

546
Q

Fund Code

_0

A

NAVY STOCK ACCOUNT TYPE AVDLR ROV (Repair of Other Vessels)–COG Symbol 7R Navy Stock Account AVDLR items that are used in the repair of other vessels.

547
Q

Fund Code

_1

A

NAVY STOCK ACCOUNT TYPE NON-AVDLR ROV (Repair of Other Vessels)–COG Symbols 7E, 7G, or 7H Navy Stock Account non-AVDLR items that are used in the repair of other vessels.

548
Q

Fund Code

_2

A

HULLL & STRUCTURAL (FACILITIES) MAINTENANCE & PRESERVATION–All Navy Stock Account types of maintenance material used in hull and structural (facilities) maintenance and preservation exclusive of cleaning supplies.

549
Q

Fund Code

_3

A

NAVY STOCK ACCOUNT AVDLR–AVDLR COG 7r NSA material purchased by the SHIP Forces part of operating forces.

550
Q

Fund Code

_4

A

MILITARY SEALIFT COMMAND CHARTER–includes the cost of chartering Military Sealift Command (MSC) ships.

551
Q

Fund Code

_5

A

MAC SAAM (MILITARY AIRLIFT COMMAND SPECIAL ASSIGNMENT AIRLIFT MISSION)–Includes the cost for the lease of an airlift services industrial fund (ASIF) funded aircraft for the transportation of personnel or property for a Special Assignment Airlift Mission.

552
Q

Fund Code

_7 except for G7, I7 and O7

A

MEDICAL/DENTAL MATERIAL–includes material requisitioned for medical and dental purposes.

553
Q

Fund Code

G6, I6

A

MINOR CONSTRUCTION PROJECT–includes material and labor cost associated with minor construction projects in the $15,000.01 to $200,000.00 range (used only in CINCLANTFLT).

554
Q

Fund Code

_8

A

SPECIAL STORAGE HHG–Special storage of HHG (Household Goods) for members who must move out of quarters ashore and store HHG because of TAD or deployment for more than 90 days or for an indefinite period.

555
Q

Fund Code

_9 except for I9, O9 or G9

A

PETROLEUM, OIL, AND LUBRICANTS - OTHER (OTHER POL)

556
Q

AAA

A

Authorization Accounting Activity

557
Q

ACC

A

Aircraft Controlling Custodian

558
Q

ACR

A

Allowance Change Request

559
Q

ACR-F

A

Allowance Change Request-Fixed

560
Q

AECL

A

Aircraft Equipment Configuration List

561
Q

AEL

A

Allowance Equipage List

562
Q

AEMS

A

Aircraft Engine Management System

563
Q

AESR

A

Aeronautical Equipment/Service Record

564
Q

AFM

A

Aviation Fund Maintenance

565
Q

AIC

A

Account Identifier Code

566
Q

AIMD

A

Aircraft Intermediate Maintenance Depot

567
Q

AIR

A

Aircraft Inventory Record

568
Q

AIS

A

Automated Information System

569
Q

AL

A

Allowance List

570
Q

AMC

A

Air Mobility Command

or

Area Mail Coordinator

571
Q

AMC/AMF

A

Airport Mail Center/Airport Mail Facility

572
Q

AMMRL

A

Aircraft Maintenance Material Readiness List Program

573
Q

AMSU

A

Aeronautical Material Screening Unit

574
Q

ANMCS

A

Anticipated NMCS

575
Q

AOM

A

Aviation Operation Maintenance

576
Q

APA

A

Appropriation Purchase Account

577
Q

APL

A

Allowance Parts List

578
Q

ARR

A

Allowance Requirements Registers

579
Q

ASD

A

Aviation Support Division

580
Q

ASG

A

Afloat Shopping Guide

581
Q

ASI

A

Automated Shore Interface

582
Q

ASKIT

A

Aviation Storekeeper Information Tracking System

583
Q

ASM

A

Administrative Support Manual

584
Q

ASO

A

Aviation Support Officer

585
Q

ASR

A

Assembly Service Record

586
Q

ATAC

A

Advanced Traceability and Control

587
Q

AVCAL

A

Aviation Consolidated Allowance List

588
Q

AVDLR

A

Aviation Depot level Repairable

589
Q

AVGAS

A

Aviation Gasoline

590
Q

AWP

A

Awaiting Parts

591
Q

BAH

A

Basic Allowance Housing

592
Q

BCM

A

Beyond Capable Maintenance

593
Q

BCS

A

Bar Code Sorter

594
Q

BK (unit of issue)

A

Book

595
Q

BOR

A

Budget/OPTAR Report

596
Q

BUNO

A

Bureau/Serial Number

597
Q

BX(unit of issue)

A

Box

598
Q

C.O.D.

A

Collect on Delivery, Cash on Delivery

599
Q

CAGE

A

Commercial and Government Entity

600
Q

CASREP

A

Casualty Report

601
Q

CBR OSIMS

A

Chemical Biological Radiological Operating Space Item Management Systems

602
Q

CCP

A

Central Control Point

603
Q

CCS

A

Component Control Section

604
Q

CFCML

A

Consolidated Fleet Controlled Material List

605
Q

CLF

A

Combat Logistics Force

606
Q

CNATRA

A

Chief of Naval Air Training

607
Q

CNP

A

Common Naval Packaging

608
Q

CONREP

A

Conventional Replenishment

609
Q

CONPLANS

A

Operation Plans in Concept Format

610
Q

CONUS

A

Continental United States

611
Q

COPE

A

Custodian of Postal Effects

612
Q

COSAL

A

Coordinated Shipboard Allowance List

613
Q

COSBAL

A

Coordinated Shore-Based Allowance List

614
Q

CTPL

A

Central Technical Publication Library

615
Q

DAASC

A

Defense Automatic Addressing System Center

616
Q

DAAS

A

Defense Automatic Addressing System

617
Q

DBA

A

Data base Administrator

618
Q

DBI

A

Demand Based Item

619
Q

DCU

A

Document Control Unit

620
Q

DFAS

A

Defense Finance and Accounting Service

621
Q

DFAS-CL

A

Defense Finance and Accounting Service-Cleveland

622
Q

DLIS

A

Defense Logistics Information Service

623
Q

DLSC

A

Defense Logistics Services Center

624
Q

DMM

A

Domestic Mail Manual

625
Q

EAOS

A

End of Active Obligated Service

LS2 (3 decks)

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