Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Diagnostic Imaging II Exam One > Spondylo and Pelvic Fractures > Flashcards

Spondylo and Pelvic Fractures Flashcards

1
Q

Spondylolisthesis has a prevalence of 5-7% in the population of what race?

A

Caucasians

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Spondylolisthesis has a prevalence of 40% in what population?

A

Alaskan eskimos

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are the categories of spondylolisthesis?

A 
I = dysplastic (congenital)
II = spondylolytic (isthmic)
III = degenerative 
IV = traumatic 
V = pathological 
VI = post surgical
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Displacement with spondylolisthesis is rare after what age? At what age is the greatest degree of anterior slippage seen?

A

Rare after 18; greatest at 10

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the most common location for type II spondylolisthesis?

A

L5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the most common location for type III spondylolisthesis?

A

L4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Type III spondylolisthesis is more common among what gender?

A

Females over 40

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the most common type of spondylolisthesis?

A

Type II (isthmic)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the most common type of type IV spondylolisthesis?

A

Hangman’s fracture of C2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the 2nd most common type of spondylolisthesis?

A

Type III (degenerative)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are the most common locations in order for type II spondylolisthesis?

A

L5, L4, L3, L2, L1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are the most common locations in order for type III spondylolisthesis?

A

L4, L5, L3, L2, L1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What causes type I spondylolisthesis?

A

Malformation of sacrum and L5 (rare)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the congenital predisposition for type I spondylolisthesis?

A

Thin pars

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Is type I spondylolisthesis present at birth?

A

NO, but the congenital thin pars as a cause IS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What causes type II spondylolisthesis?

A

Stress fracture, elongated pars, or acute fracture (rare)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What causes type III spondylolisthesis?

A

Degeneration of posterior joints

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is unique about the pars with a type III spondylolisthesis?

A

Intact (pseudospondylo)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What conditions can cause type IV spondylolisthesis?

A

Metastasis, Paget’s, osteopetrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What causes type VI spondylolisthesis?

A

Stress fracture at level above or below arthrodesis or at level of laminectomy (rare)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Using what measurement line is spondylolisthesis best detected?

A

George’s line

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What procedure is used to grade a spondylolisthesis?

A

Meyerding’s method

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What radiographic sign is associated with a spondylolisthesis?

A

Inverted napoleon hat sign

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Does a spondylolisthesis automatically mean there is a pars defect?

A

No

25
Q

What part of the vertebra is the eye of the scotty dog?

A

Pedicle

26
Q

What part of the vertebra is the neck of the scotty dog?

A

Pars

27
Q

What part of the vertebra is the feet of the scotty dog?

A

Inferior articular process

28
Q

What part of the vertebra is the ear of the scotty dog?

A

Superior articular process

29
Q

What is the best recommendation for a young patient with visible stress of a pars?

A

Break for 6 months (difficult with athletes but best strategy for healing)

30
Q

What is usually the mechanism of injury for a sacral fracture?

A

Falling on buttocks (possibly direct trauma)

31
Q

What is the most common location of a sacral fracture?

A

Horizontally near 3rd or 4th segment (snaps forward)

32
Q

Sacral fractures are best seen on what view?

A

Lateral

33
Q

Why are sacral fractures sometimes difficult to see?

A

Observed by fecal material and gas

34
Q

Most coccygeal fractures occur in which direction?

A

Horizontal

35
Q

Are pelvic fractures usually stable or unstable? Why?

A

Stable due to pelvic musculature keeping bones in place following fracture

36
Q

What is the issue with unstable pelvic fractures?

A

Considerable soft tissue injury, possibly fatal

37
Q

What is the eponym for an isolated iliac wing fracture?

A

Duverney fracture

38
Q

Why can Duverney fractures be hard to see?

A

Fecal material and gas build up due to abdominal trauma shutting down GI tract

39
Q

What is the most common STABLE (and overall) fracture of the pelvic (40%)?

A

Ischiopubic rami fractures

40
Q

Which rami of the ischium is more prone to fractures?

A

Inferior (medial portion)

41
Q

What population tends to have more ischiopubic rami fractures?

A

Elderly (from falls)

42
Q

What is the eponym for ipsilateral double vertical shearing fractures of both the superior and inferior pubic rami WITH a fracture about the ipsilateral SI joint (aka hell)?

A

Malgaigne fractures

43
Q

What is the most common UNSTABLE pelvic fracture?

A

Malgaigne fractures

44
Q

Avulsion fractures of the pelvis are more common among what population?

A

Adolescents with athletic participation

45
Q

What muscle can cause an avulsion fracture of the ASIS?

A

Sartorius

46
Q

What muscle can cause an avulsion fracture of the AIIS?

A

Rectus femoris

47
Q

What muscle can cause an avulsion fracture of the ischial tuberosity?

A

Hamstrings

48
Q

What is the most common avulsion fracture of the pelvis?

A

Ischial tuberosity (from hamstring attachment)

49
Q

Does an epiphysis or apophysis serve as an attachment site for muscles on a bone?

A

Apophysis (epiphysis is for adding length)

50
Q

What is the only avulsion fracture of the pelvis that will displace superiorly?

A

Lesser trochanter fracture from tension of iliopsoas

51
Q

What muscle can cause an avulsion fracture of the greater trochanter?

A

Gluteal muscles

52
Q

What muscle can cause an avulsion fracture of the lesser trochanter?

A

Iliopsoas

53
Q

Avulsion fractures of the pelvis usually displace in which direction?

A

Inferiorly

54
Q

In what sport do we see a high prevalence of pelvic avulsion fractures?

A

Soccer

55
Q

What kind of fracture is the same as a Malgaigne fracture but has CONTRALATERAL SI joint fracture/dislocation?

A

Bucket-handle fracture

56
Q

What is a straddle fracture?

A

Bilateral superior and inferior rami fractures

57
Q

What is another name for an “open book” fracture?

A

Sprung pelvis

58
Q

What is a sprung pelvis?

A

Diastasis of pubic symphysis and of one or both SI joints

Diagnostic Imaging II Exam One (5 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions