Spinal Surgery Anesthesia Flashcards

1
Q

What is scoliosis?

A

Lateral rotation of the spine >10° with vertebral rotation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are the effects of thoracic spine scoliosis?

A
  • ↓ Chest wall compliance
  • Restrictive lung disease
  • ↓ exercise tolerance

Get PFTs!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What EKG/cardiac findings might one suspect to find on a scoliosis patient? (Select all that apply)

a. RVH
b. RAE
c. LVH
d. Bi-atrial enlargement

A

a & b

RVH and RAE from trying to overcome pulmonary vascular resistance (increased R heart afterload)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

The increased pulmonary vascular resistance of chronic, significant scoliosis can lead to ___ _______.

A

cor pulmonale

Enlarged RV due to lung disease.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What muscles would you expect to be affected from a C5 injury?

A
  • Partial diaphragmatic paralysis
  • Deltoids
  • Biceps
  • Brachialis
  • Brachio-radialis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are the hemodynamic consequences of injuries T5 and higher?

A

Physiologic Sympathectomy
- ↓BP
- ↓HR (T1-T4)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What medications would mostly not be effective in treatment of bradycardia with a T1-T4 spinal cord injury?

A
  • atropine and glycopyrrolate generally wont work
  • Need epinephrine
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Autonomic Hyperreflexia is most often seen with cord transection above the ____ level.

A

T5/T6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What s/s are seen with autonomic hyperreflexia?

A
  • Severe, transient HTN
  • Bradycardia
  • Dysrhythmias
  • Cutaneous dilation and constriction
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

In autonomic hyperreflexia, cutaneous vasodilation is seen _____ the site of injury, whilst cutaneous vasoconstriction is seen ____ the site of injury.

A

above ; below

cutaneous vasoconstriction leads to severe transient HTN, bradycardia, and dysrhythmias

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the basic pathophysiology of Autonomic Dysreflexia?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are the most common causes of Autonomic Dysreflexia?

A
  1. Distended bladder/bowel
  2. Noxious stimuli (think surgical pain)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the treatment for Autonomic Dysreflexia?

A
  1. Removal of stimulus
  2. Deepen anesthetic
  3. Direct-acting Vasodilators
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Injury to C3-C5 results in….

A

Diaphragmatic respiratory failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Is respiratory function affected by injury to C5-C7?

A

Yes; impairment of abdominal and intercostal respiratory support

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Why is there an increased risk of pulmonary infection with cervical spine injuries?

A
  • Inability to cough/ clear secretions
  • Atelectasis
17
Q

What is poikilothermia?

A

Inability to maintain constant core temp

18
Q

What is the pathophysiology of poikilothermia?

A
  • SNS pathway disruption
  • Temperature sensation disruption
  • Inability to vasoconstrict below spinal cord injury
19
Q

Spinal deformities are associated with _______ respiratory patterns, often necessitating PFT’s and an ABG.

A

Restrictive respiratory patterns

20
Q

Flaccidity in which two muscles would indicated possible cervical spine fracture?

A
  • Deltoids
  • Biceps
21
Q

With neurologic or spinal cord injury surgery, the anesthesia provider must make what consideration when developing an anesthetic plan regarding drug choice?

A

Must consider the need for SSEP/MEP/EMG monitoring

some anesthetic drugs will interfere with these monitors

22
Q

What is the greatest risk with a cervical sitting position?

A

VAE (Venous Air Embolism)

23
Q

An anterior approach for a thoracic spine procedure requires what position and equipment?

A
  • Lateral position with bean bag
  • Double Lumen ETT or bronchial blocker

May have to drop lung for access.

24
Q

A posterior approach for a thoracic spine procedure requires what position and equipment?

A
  • Prone with arms tucked or <90° abduction
  • Single lumen ETT.
25
Q

With prone positioning, what should be considered to prevent drooling/secretions?

A

anti-sialogogue preop (glycopyrrolate)

26
Q

What airway considerations should be made with prone positioning?

A
  • corrugated adapter for flexibility
  • assess for BBB after turning (make sure not R main)
  • Monitor for unintentional extubation
  • prone to airway edema (leak test)
27
Q

What are the three causes of postoperative vision loss secondary to prone positioning?

A
  • Ischemic Optic Neuropathy (ION)
  • Retinal vessel occlusion
  • Cortical brain ischemia
28
Q

T/F. Ischemic optic neuropathy occurrence requires direct pressure placed on the eyes?

A

False. Can occur without direct pressure.

*Occurs due to ↓ blood flow or O₂ delivery.

29
Q

What are risk factors for ION?

A
  • Male
  • Obesity
  • Wilson Frame Use
  • > 6 hour surgery
  • ↓ colloid usage
  • Blood loss > 1000 mL
30
Q

What is the typical onset of ION?

A

24 - 48 hours postop

31
Q

What are the symptoms of ION?

A

Bilateral

  • Painless vision loss
  • Non-reactive pupils
  • No light perception
32
Q

What are the treatments for ION?

A
  • Acetazolamide/diuretics
  • Corticosteroids
  • Hyperbaric O₂
  • BP and Hgb management (transfusion, colloids, minimal permissive HoTN)